FRIDAY AFTERNOON SESSIONS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common inflammatory arthritis?

A

Gout

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2
Q

Why is it important to explore prognosis with patients?

A

It can affect lives in different ways e.g. occupation loss
Impprtant for involving the MDT
Gives pt closure
Assess trends

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3
Q

What is medical pluralism?

A

The consistence of both conventional, complementary and alternative medicine for health and illness

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4
Q

What did pts with an inflammatory arthritis identify as things they need support with?

A

Disease impact and pharm treatment
Care continuity and relations with HCP
Non-pharm treatment
Need for support from family and friends
Support needs relating to work
Self-management support e.g. educational sessions, information

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5
Q

What are yellow flags?

A

The psychosocial factors associated with the development of persistent debilitating pain

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6
Q

Examples of yellow flags?

A

Attitudes - belief that pain is harmful, catastrophic thinking, belief that pain must be abolished before returning to work
Behaviours - use of extended rest, poor compliance with physical activity, poor sleep, high intake of substances
Compensation issues - lack of incentive to return to work, disputes over access to benefits
Disability - unfamiliar medical language
Emotions - fear of increased pain with activity, depression, anxiety, stress, social anxiety
Family - over protective partners, lack of someone to talk to

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7
Q

What is the STarT back risk prediction tool?

A

a short questionnaire that GPs can use to assess an individual’s physical, psychosocial and psychological risk factors for chronic back pain that can be improved with treatment
Score of 4 or more = high risk of chronic back pain

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8
Q

What has been the benefits of using the STarT back risk prediction tool for back pain?

A

This new approach enables GPs to quickly and easily group patients according to the treatment likely to work best for them
It has led to 50% fewer days off work and 30% fewer sickness certificates
Substantial cost-savings to NHS

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9
Q

On average what is the % chance of any pt in hospital currently dying in the next year?

A

30%

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10
Q

What is the doctrine of double effect? how does this apply to euthanasias?

A

This doctrine says that if doing something morally good has a morally bad side-effect, it’s ethically OK to do it providing the bad side-effect wasn’t intended.

Although euthanasia is illegal in the UK, doctors are allowed to administer potentially lethal doses of painkilling drugs to relieve suffering, provided they do not primarily intend to kill the patient.

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11
Q

What is assisted suicide?

A

This usually refers to cases where the person who is going to die needs help to kill themselves and asks for it. It may be something as simple as getting drugs for the person and putting those drugs within their reach.

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12
Q

What is indirect euthanasia?

A

This means providing treatment that has the side effect of speeding the patient’s death.

Since the primary intention is not to kill, this is seen by some people as morally acceptable.

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13
Q

What is voluntary euthanasia?

A

Voluntary euthanasia occurs at the request of the person who dies.

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14
Q

What is non-voluntary euthanasia?

A

Non-voluntary euthanasia occurs when the person is unconscious or otherwise unable (for example, a very young baby or a person of extremely low intelligence) to make a meaningful choice between living and dying, and an appropriate person takes the decision on their behalf.

Non-voluntary euthanasia also includes cases where the person is a child who is mentally and emotionally able to take the decision, but is not regarded in law as old enough to take such a decision, so someone else must take it on their behalf in the eyes of the law.

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15
Q

What is active euthanasia?

A

In active euthanasia a person directly and deliberately causes the patient’s death e.g. giving an OD of painkillers

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16
Q

What is passive euthanasia?

A

In passive euthanasia they don’t directly take the patient’s life, they just allow them to die e.g. withdrawing treatment

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17
Q

Why did we change from DNACPR to ReSPECT forms?

A

The ReSPECT form has more than just the DNACPR decision
Provides a more holistic approach that is more patient-centred
It promotes shared decision-malig between patients

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18
Q

What is the role of the GMC?

A

set the standards of patient care and professional behaviours doctors need to meet.
make sure doctors get the education and training they need to deliver good, safe patient care.
check who is eligible to work as a doctor in the UK and check they continue to meet the professional standards we set throughout their careers.
give guidance and advice to help doctors understand what’s expected of them.
investigate where there are concerns that patient safety, or the public’s confidence in doctors, may be at risk, and take action if needed.

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19
Q

What is the Medical Act 1983?

A

A piece of legislation in the United Kingdom that governs the regulation of the medical profession, particularly the registration and oversight of doctors. It establishes the General Medical Council (GMC), the body responsible for regulating medical practitioners in the UK. The act outlines the following key elements:
Registration
Educationa nd training
FTP
Revalidation
Ethical guidelines
Disciliplnary actins

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20
Q

What are the 5 themes of good medical practice in 2024?

A

• creating respectful, fair and compassionate workplace
• Promote pt centred care
• Help to tackle discrimination
• Championing fair and inclusive leadership
• Supporting continuity of care and safe delegation

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21
Q

What is a bystander duty?

A

Being an active bystander means being aware of when someone’s behaviour is inappropriate ans choosing to challenge it

all doctors have a duty to raise concerns where they believe that pt safety or care is being compromised by the practice of colleagues or the systems, policies and procedures in the organisations in which they work.
If you have reason to believe pt are at risk of death or serious harm you should report concerns to the appropriate person without delay.

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22
Q

Principles of research ethics?

A

Is it useful? Does it provide values that outweigh any risk or harm?
Is it necessary?
What risks?
Consent? Is there capacity and legal documentation?
Confidentiality?
Is it totally voluntary? No coercion or inappropriate incentives. Autonomy must be respected and protected
Does it have approval if required?
Research should be conducted with integrity and transparency

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23
Q

Which type of research requires approval?

A

If it involves vulnerable groups e.g. children, disability
If it involves those who lack capacity
If it involves sensitive topics
If it involves access to records of personal or confidential information
If it involves intrusive interventions or data collection methods
Where safety of researcher may be in question
When it may involve data sharing of confidential infromation

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24
Q

What is the human tissues act 2004?

A

It regulates activities concerning the removal, storage, use and disposal of human tissue.

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25
Q

Why is research ethics approval needed?

A

in order to protect the dignity, rights and welfare of research participants.
Ensures informed consent
Ensures a risk-benefit assessment is carried out
Compliance with laws
Ensures studies are designed with scientific integrity

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26
Q

Who gives research ethics approval?

A

Research Ethics COmmittees (RECs)
Health Research Authority (HRA)

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27
Q

What are offences under the Human Tissue Act 2004?

A

1
Removing, storing or using human tissue for Scheduled Purposes without appropriate consent.

2
Storing or using human tissue donated for a Scheduled Purpose for another purpose.

3
Trafficking in human tissue for transplantation purposes.

4
Carrying out licensable activities without holding a licence from the HTA (with lower penalties for related lesser offences such as failing to produce records or obstructing the HTA in carrying out its power or responsibilities).

5
Having human tissue, including hair, nail, and gametes, with the intention of its DNA being analysed without the consent of the person from whom the tissue came or of those close to them if they have died.

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28
Q

Is abortion a criminal offence in the mainland UK?

A

If it does not meet the criteria of being before 24 weeks gestation and not approved by 2 independant doctors

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29
Q

How was the 1990 abortion act amended?

A

Lowered the term limit from 28 to 24 weeks for abortion in cases of mental or physical injury
It also clarified the circumstances under which abortion could be obtained at a later stage

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30
Q

Rules on telemedicine abortions?

A

For women up to gestations of 9 weeks and 6 days
Woman must go through a thorough assessment
Sufficient safe gaurding must be done

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31
Q

What proportion of women will have an abortion?

A

1 in 3

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32
Q

How are decisions of abortion made when women dont have capacity?

A

Decisions are made in the pts best interests
If there are conflicts in making this decision then the Court of protection cn be involved to ensure decisions are being made appropriately within the context of the MCA and abortion act

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33
Q

What are some reasons for pts presenting for an abortion after the first trimester?

A

• delay in recognising pregnancy
• Foetal anomaly
• Significant changes in circumstances
• Difficulties in accessing the are
• Marginalised/vulnerable or complex and challenging circumstances
• Woman may be unsure if she wants to be pregnant and needs time to think

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34
Q

What is done in the final examination to certify death?

A

This must be all done for a minimum of 5 minutes…
A/B - auscultation lungs for >1 minute
C - palpate for a pulse for >1 minute and auscultation the heart for >1 minute
D - check for pupillary response/corneal reflex and motor response to pain using supra-orbital pressure
E - pt my be peripherally cold

Time of death is recorded as the time at which all of these criteria have been confirmed

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35
Q

What is the definition of death?

A

Irreversible loss of the capacity for consciousness combined with the irreversible loss of the capacity to breathe

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36
Q

When can ‘old age’ be used as 1a cause of death on a death certificate?

A

If the pt was at least 80 years of age and certain conditions are met
Use of this is discolouraged

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37
Q

What are examples of notifiable deaths?

A

unexpected or sudden deaths
when the doctor attending the deceased did not see them within 28 days before death
if a death occurs within 24 hours of hospital admission
accidents and injuries
suicide
industrial injury or disease (e.g. asbestosis)
deaths occurring as a result of ill treatment, starvation or neglect
the death occurred during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic
poisoning, including taking illicit drugs
stillbirths - if there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive
prisoner or people in police custody
service disability pensioners

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38
Q

Outline what happens when a death is reported to a coroner?

A

If the cause of death is clear they will issue a certificate to the registrar saying a post-Mortem or inquest is not needed and the registrar can register the death
They may decide a post-mortem is needed to find out how the pt died. No one can object to this! After this the body can be released for the funeral
A coroner can hold an inquest if the cause of death is still unknown or the pt might have died in a violent/unnatural death or the pt might have died in prison or police custody

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39
Q

What is the ‘great man’ theory?

A

A theory that suggests that some individuals are born with traits that naturally make them skilled leaders

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40
Q

What is the trait theory?

A

A theory that leadership traits could be learned or you can be born with them

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41
Q

What are some traits of a good leader according to the trait theory?

A

Intelligence
Self-confidence
Determination
Integrity
Sociability

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42
Q

Outline the Duke Healthcare Leadership Model?

A

A model which demonstrates the 5 competencies that leaders should have to be most effective in a healthcare setting: emotional intelligence, teamwork, selfless service, integrity, critical thinking
All of this is around the focus which is being patient centered

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43
Q

What is the authoritarian leadership style?

A

Aka autocratic leadership

Characterised by centralised power, decisions being made without input from others, controlling and directive

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44
Q

What is the democratic leadership style?

A

Characterised by the leader actively seeking the views of others in making decisions, encouraging others to be engaged actively in setting direction and providing honest praise and criticism

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45
Q

What is the Laissez-faire leadership style?

A

Characterised by a lack of direction by the leader, non-participation in most work activities and little or no feedback from leader to followers
Viewed by some as non-leadership rather than a style!

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46
Q

What is the full range of leadership model?

A

By bass and avolio
A model which identifies 3 leadership processes:
- transactional (uses rewards and punishments to promote compliance/incentivise)
- transformational (motivating anc empowering others)
- laissez-faire (absence of leadership)

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47
Q

What did Goldman identify as the 6 types of leader?

A

Coercive
Authoritative
Affiliation
Democratic
Pacesetting
Coaching

48
Q

What are contingency theories in leadership?

A

The theory that the right leader should match the right situation

49
Q

What are situational theories in leadership?

A

A theory that a leader should adapt to the situation at hand

50
Q

What is the X-Y theory of leadership?

A

Theory X managers believe their employees lack creativity and only work for a paycheck. The manager micromanages peoples work to ensure it gets done properly
Theory Y is a participative management style where managers believe employees want to work and make decisions with less supervision. Theory Y managers believe employees enjoy work and want to see the organization succeed - more likely to adopt a participative management style

51
Q

Content vs process theories?

A

Content theories explain the specific factors that motivate people i.e. what drives them e.g. maslows hierarchy of needs, self-determination theory and Herzberg’s two-factor theory
Process theories explains the process of motivation and how an individuals make choices based on performance, rewards and accomplishments e.g. skinners reinforcement theory, goal setting theory and equity theory

52
Q

Outline Maslow’s theory of motivation?

A

Maslow proposed that motivation is the result of a person’s attempt at fulfilling five basic needs: physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization.

53
Q

What is the self-determination theory?

A

A theory suggesting that we have 3 innate needs: autonomy, competence and relatedness
By supporting these, employee’s wellbeing and performance will be enhanced

54
Q

According to the self-determination theory, what are intrinsic and extrinsic motivations?

A

Intrinsic - completing an activity for its inherent satisfactions (e.g. fun) rather than for some separable consequence (e.g. rewards)

Extrinsic - completing an activity in order to attain some separable outcome e.g. career progression, avoiding sanctions

55
Q

What is the Herzberg two-factor theory?

A

A theory that says there are separate sets of mutually exclusive factors in the workplace that either cause job satisfaction (motivators) or dissatisfaction (lack of hygiene factors).

Motivators include achievement, recognition, intrinsic factors, responsibility and growth
Hygiene factors include working conditions, policies/rules, colleague relationships, leadership, conditions and pay

56
Q

What is the equity theory in leadership?

A

This theory suggests that people are motivated when they perceive fairness and impartiality in their work relationships.
Leaders can enhance job satisfaction by focusing on emplyee’s inputs and output

57
Q

What is the goal-setting theory?

A

A theory for motivating employees through the setting of goals
It suggests that…
Challenging goals can improve performance
Participation in goal setting can increase commitment to goals
Specific goals can improve performance
Knowledge of results of past behaviour can be motivational
Situational constraints can affect goal achievement

58
Q

What are the 3 elements that underpin motivation to lead?

A

Affective-identity - the extent 1 enjoys leading others and identifies as a leader
Social-normative - the extent one treats leadership as a responsibility and a duty
Non-calculative - the extent one views leadership opportunities positively despite potential costs or minimal personal benefits of leading

59
Q

How do self-efficacy and decentralisation affect motivation to lead in healthcare professionals?

A

Increased self-efficacy positive relates to increased motivation to learn
Decentralisation reduces the positive impact of self-efficacy on motivation to learn

60
Q

What is negligence?

A

An act or omission that does not meet the level of appropriate care expected which results in injury or loss

61
Q

How can clinical negligence be proven?

A

The person needs to show that..
The HCP owed a duty to take care of you and not cause injury
The HCP breached that duty
The failure caused the person harm
Their failure was the main reason to cause you harm
Damage or other losses have resulted from that harm e.g. PTSD, financial loss etc

62
Q

What is the time limit for starting a legal claim for clinical negligence?

A

Within 3 yers from the date of the incident or from when they knew the injury was negligent

63
Q

What is the Bolam principle?

A

A test that is judged by the medical professional’s peers that says “if a doctor reaches the standard of a responsible body of medical opinion, it is not negligence”
They must be able to show that any medical professional who was in the same position as them would have done the same even if the practice is not the usual standard of care, giving the same outcome

64
Q

What is the Bolitho test?

A

An adaptation of the Bolam principle
The defence could not be considered reasonable if the body of doctors or supporting witnesses were not capable of withstanding logical analysis. That is to say that simply providing a defence is not quite good enough, but that the defence and its body of opinion must be reasonable and responsible

65
Q

What are the 3 ways of viewing the moral status of the foetus?

A

The foetus has the same rights as a live child
The foetus has no rights until birth
The foetus has increasing moral status with advancing gestation

66
Q

Arguments against abortion?

A

Abortion ends the life of the foetus which has the moral status of a person so abortion is morally wrong. Roman catholics believe life begins at conception. Every human being has the right to life (justice)
The unborn child is denied choice
Destroying a human life makes life appear cheap and disposable, affecting the quality and value of life
People born with disabilities can live full happy lives
Abortion is doing harm (non-maleficience)
Can lead to medical complications later in life physically and psychologically (non-maleficience)
Many couples are looking to adopt and abortion deprives them of this option

67
Q

Arguments for abortion?

A

It involves a safe medical procedure that can save the mothers life. Could argue the woman’s health and welfare are more important than that of the embryo/foetus (non-maleficience)
The foetus isn’t alive so does not have the rights of a human.
Mother has autonomy to decide what to do with their body
Allows women in teenage years to achieve their full potential
Banning will encourage the use of unsafe and harmful methods
Women should be allowed to avoid the emotional harm of bearing a child by rape
May be due to contraceptive failure and pregnancy may reduce QOL for the mother and she may not be able to provide a good QOL for the future child

68
Q

What is the abortion act?

A

An act in the UK that legalised abortion in 1967. Initially it made it lawful to have an abortion up to the 28th week if 2 registered medical professionals believed in good faith that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to the life or the pregnant women, or harm her physical/mental health or that of any of her family members
Changes were introduced through the human fertilisation and embryology act in 1990 where time limits wwre lowered to 24 weeks on the grounds that medical technology had advanced for these babies to be viable

69
Q

Laws on abortion if under 16?

A

Can still have an abortion without parental consent provided 2 doctors agree
If <13 it will be a safegaurding concern and reported to police

70
Q

What are the 3 ways you can get an abortion on the NHS?

A

Self-referential by contacting an abortion provider directly
Speak to a GP and ask for a referral to an abortion service
Contact a sexual health clinic and ask for a referral to an abortion service

71
Q

Waiting times for an abortion?

A

You should not have to wait >2 weeks from when you or a doctor first contact an abortion provider to having an abortion

72
Q

When can abortions be carried out after 24/40?

A

Only in very specific certain circumstances e.g. mothers life at risk or child would be born severely disabled

73
Q

What are the statutory grounds for abortion?

A

A - continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to the life of the pregnant woman greater than if the pregnancy were terminated
B - termination is necessary to prevent grave permenant injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman
C - before 24th week and continuance of pregnancy would involve risk of injury to the physical/mental health of the pregnant woman, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated
D - before 24th week and the continuance of pregnancy would involve risk of injury to the physical/mental health of any existing children of the family, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated
E - there is substantial risk that if the child were born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped
F - to save the life of a pregnant woman
G - to prevent grave permeant injury to the physical/mental health of the pregnant woman

74
Q

Under which ground of the abortion act are 98% of abortions carried out?

A

Ground C - That the pregnancy has NOT exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman (with 99.9% of these being due to mental health!)

75
Q

Arguments against euthanasia?

A

Religious views say only God has the right to end human life/weaknes society’s respect for the sanctity of life
This could change attitudes regarding human lives - accepts that some lives are worth less than others
Its a slippery slope leading to involuntary euthanasia
Might not be in the person’s best interests
Proper palliative care makes euthanasia unnecessary
There’s no way of properly regulating euthanasia
Violates non-maleficience
May undermine the trust that patients have in their doctors as pts may not want to raise their fears to doctors who have the power to provide lethal drug to end pts lives

76
Q

Arguments for euthanasia?

A

Allows pt autonomy to control own body and how one dies
Already done in some sense? DNACPR is passive
Acts in beneficence of pt as it relives severe, unbearable physical or emotional distress
Physician assisted dying is legal in many places around the world. Pts often travel to places like Switzerland but this is dependant on funds nd how well they need to be to travel
There is no reason why the safegaurds in place for withdrawing life-sustaining treatment cannot be used effectively in assisted dying to ensure decisions are made voluntarily and without coercision

77
Q

Where in the Uk is physician-assisted suicide likely to be legalised soon?

A

Jersey
Scotland

78
Q

Functions of the GMC?

A

Registration
Revalidation
Education
Standards
FTP

79
Q

Why should you use GMC guidance?

A

Broad principles of good practice
Ethical and consistent with UK low
Allows scope for doctors to exercise judgement in applying the principles to individual cases
Serious or persistent failure to follow could result in action

80
Q

What are the 5 key themes of Good Medical Practice 2024?

A

Creating respectiful, fair and compassionate workplaces
Promoting pt centred care
Helping to tackle discrimination
Championing fair and inclusive leadership
Supporting continuity of care and safe delegation

81
Q

What is the medical practitioners tribunal service?

A

A service that runs hearings that make independant decisions about whether doctors are fit to practice in the UK

82
Q

Can the GMC ever ask to see a doctor’s reflective practice notes if the doctor is under investigation for FTP?

A

No

83
Q

What is the GMC guidance on doctors accepting gratuities?

A

You must not ask for or accept, from pts, colleagues or others, any incentive payments, gifts or hipsitality that may affect or be seen to affect the way you propose, provide or prescribe treatments, refer or commission services for pts

84
Q

GMC guidance on sharing information with relatives and friends over the phone?

A

Early discussions about pt wishes can help avoid disclosure they might object to
Establish what infromation they want you to share, with whom and in what circumstances

85
Q

GMC guidance for prescribing to a friend/relative in need?

A

You should only prescribe medicines if you have adequate knowledge of the pt’s health and you are satisfaction that they serve the pt’s needs. Where possible avoid prescribing for yourself or anyone you have a close personal relationship with

You must not prescribe controlled drugs for yourself or someone close to you unless:
- mother person with the legal right to prescribe is available to assess and prescribe without delay
- emergency treatment is immediately necessary to avoid serious deterioration in health or serious harm

86
Q

According to the GMC, what is the difference between “must” and “should”?

A

‘You must’ is used for an overriding duty or principle.

You should’ is used when we are providing an explanation of how you will meet the overriding duty. OR where the duty or principle will not
apply in all situations or circumstances OR where there are factors outside your control that affect whether or how you can follow the guidance.

87
Q

Choose must or should for the following
According to the GMC… You “must/should” be registered with a GP outside your family?

A

Should

You should avoid seeking medical care from a family member or anyone you work closely with. If you are registered with a GP this should be someone outside your family and your workplace

88
Q

Choose must or should for the following
According to the GMC… You “must/should” make sure you have adequate insurance or indemnity cover?

A

Must

You must make sure you have appropriate and adequate insurance or indemnity that covers the full scope of your practice
You should keep your level of cover under regular review

89
Q

Choose must or should for the following
According to the GMC… You “must/should” tell the GMC without delay if you have accepted a causation from the police ?

A

MUST

You must also tell if you have been charged with a criminal offence, been found guilty of a criminal offence, been criticised by an official inquiry or another professional body has made a finding against your registration as a result of FTP procedures

90
Q

Choose must or should for the following
According to the GMC… You “must/should” offer the pt the opportunity of a chaperone being present?

A

Should

91
Q

GMC guidance on raising concerns?

A

All doctors have a duty to raise concerns where they believe that pt safety or care is being compromised by the practice of colleagues or the systems, policies and procedures in the organisations in which they work

If you have a reason to believe pts are or may be at risk of death/serous harm you should report your concern to the appropriate person or organisation immediately

92
Q

Public health implications of the climate and ecological crisis?

A

Extremes of temperatures
Flooding
Poor outdoor air quality - lung development
Allergies
Infectious disease increased risk of food-borne and water-borne infections
Vector-borne diseases rising
Wildfires
Drought
Food security - development, immune system, neurological system underdevelopment
Poor housing
Forced migration - mental health and wellbeing

93
Q

Public health implications of climate crisis: protective factors for children?

A

Healthy food available, affordable, accessible and acceptable
Adaptation and mitigation to reduce forced migration whilst enabling climate refugees safety and wellbeing
Reducing and ending use of harmful extractive processes and products
Economic justice - positive downstream effects as children have resources to thrive

94
Q

Socioeconomic deprivation and asthma

A

Children living in deprived areas, poor-quality or overcrowded housing - increased likelihood of developing persistent asthma by 70%.
59% of these have risks that are attributable to early life exposures before child was 3

95
Q

How do inequities in political power impact health outcomes

A

Inequities in political power can limit the ability of marginalized groups to participate in decision-making, leading to policies that do not address their health needs and reduced access to resources for community organizing.

96
Q

How do inequities in economic power impact health outcomes

A

People with lower economic power may struggle to afford material conditions needed for a healthy life e.g. healthy food, resulting in reduced access to quality healthcare and poorer health outcomes.

97
Q

How do inequities in social power impact health outcomes

A

Society advantages/disadvantages opportunities for health by race, gender, class and disability can lead to systemic discrimination, contributing to disparities in healthcare access, quality of care, and overall health outcomes.

98
Q

What are social determinant of health?

A

The non-medical factors that influence health outcomes e.g. Income, eduction, food insecurity, early childhood development, housing

99
Q

What does it mean to use medicine and the health system to address unjust social and economic policies?

A

It means using healthcare to deal with the consequences of social and economic inequities, such as treating health problems that arise from poverty or discrimination, rather than fixing the root causes.

100
Q

Why is it problematic to rely on medicine and healthcare to address the unjust social and economic policies?

A

It can lead to band-aid solutions that only treat the symptoms and not the root cause
Overburdens healthcare systems
Can divert attention nd resources from the primary objective or diagnosing and treating diseases
Lack of systemic change
Medicalisation of social problems

101
Q

Whats the pattern for rates of UK childhood immunisation rates?

A

They are in decline with no vaccinations meeting the 95% target set by WHO
Regional uptake of routine vaccinations was at its lowest in London

102
Q

What are some of the broad societal issues that may be connected to the decreased vaccines rates in the UK?

A

Erosion of trust in institutions
Spread of disinformation = safety concerns
Increased inequality = hard to access groups and barriers to accessing healthcare
Diminished sense of community = less social responsibility
Politician and economic instability = shift in priorities away from vaccines
Changes in perception of risk of disease

103
Q

Why are healthcare workers voices so distinctive and powerful?

A

They are witnesses to the injustice
They have high public trust
They can interfere with some elements of the system
They have some level of privilege that allows them to engage with these issues

104
Q

Public health emergency: housing

A

Mold, lead, asbestos, poor ventilation, overcrowding - resp issues, chronic illness
Unstable housing or homelessness -> Mental health

Can also impact income and education
Homelessness can increase the child vulnerability to malnutrition, substance abuse, violence etc. they will have more barriers to accessing basic health care

105
Q

The health worker’s role in public health issues e.g. housing causing chronic illness

A

Bearing witness to conditions and listening - writing letters to local authority PRS enforcement offices, attending public health meetings to raise concerns of renters, providing comments to journalists
Supporting tenants and members of community
Collaborating with legal experts to mount a class action action lawsuit
Participating in a protest
Undertaking research on the impact of housing-related moral distress to push for political and policy change

106
Q

Real world example of UK hospital workers protesting?

A

In Gaza healthcare workers in uniform protested outside Downing Street on Friday to commemorate almost 200 clinicians killed in Gaza since Israel’s bombardment began.

The vigil was organised to call on Rishi Sunak to push for an urgent ceasefire.

107
Q

What is PatentsNotPassports?

A

A toolkit designed to support HCP in advocating for people facing changes for NHS care and in taking action to end immigration checks and upfront charging in the NHS

108
Q

Do women and pregnant people have a legal right to abortion in mainland UK?

A

No there is no legal right!

109
Q

True or false: The 1990 amendments removed entirely the time limit onabortions for a fetus with a serious disability

A

True
No time limit if serious foetal abnormality or to save a woman’s life or prevent grave permenant injury - only 1 doctor’s authorisation is needed!

110
Q

True or false: The law sets out the criteria for deciding when a disabilitycounts as serious enough for abortion.

A

False
The decisions about the seriousness of a disability are at the hands of individual doctors and the pregnant person

111
Q

True or false: Partners of pregnant people have a legal right to beconsulted about abortion.

A

False - partners have no right or veto or even to be consulted

112
Q

True or false: Doctors with a conscientious objection have the right towithdraw from their duty of care to a person requesting anabortion

A

False

Doctors have a legal and professional right to opt out of participatingin abortion care.• As long as the person can still access an abortion.• Unless one is needed to save life/prevent serious harm.

113
Q

True or false: The right to conscientious objection permits healthcareprofessionals (HCPs) to opt out of supervising other HCPsinvolved in abortion care.

A

False
There is no legal right to opt out of supervising duties, administrative tasks or routine care

114
Q

Abortion laws in N Ireland?

A

Decriminalised up to 12 weeks without conditionality

After 12 weeks of pregnancy, the law in Northern Ireland is like the rest of the UK. This means that abortion care may be available up to 23 weeks and 6 days of pregnancy

115
Q

Potential impacts of conscientious objection?

A

Person seeking abortion may feel judged, stigmatised, have their decision influenced by a doctor or lose trust in the doctor
The doctor with he objection may feel judged or stigmatised
It increases the workload and stress of other clinical colleagues
It can compromise abortion service provision

116
Q

Examples of way that doctors with conscientious objections might block access to abortion?

A

Lying to pts that they can’t have an abortion
Refusing to give infromation or refer
Delaying the referral
Giving false information e.g. about risks or infertility
Persuading pts abortion is wrong