GASPAR #2 Flashcards

A+

1
Q

DRUG?

A

natural or synthetic > physiological or psychological in humans.

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2
Q

what are two questions forensic laboratories are asked?

A

charges? severity of charges?

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3
Q

what year was the comprehensive controlled substance act (CCSA) - enacted?

A

1970

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4
Q

what are five keywords to remember regarding the (CCSA)?

A
  • Updated laws
  • Federal in charge (DOJ)
  • Created (DEA)
  • Secretary of Health and Human Services (SHHS) does drug recommendations
  • Exemptions (Alcohol, tobacco, caffeine)
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5
Q

three characteristics used to “schedule” drugs.

A

abuse potential
physical and psychological potential
medical value

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6
Q

drug abuse

A

intentional or unintentional, other than intended, personal purpose.

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7
Q

physical dependence

A

physiological need;
brought about by regular use;
withdrawals;
physical dependence or addiction

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8
Q

Could marijuana lead to physical dependence? yes or no

A

no

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9
Q

what is the common denominator of drugs?

A

creation of psychological dependence

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10
Q

is psychological dependence emotional

A

yes

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11
Q

-user characteristics
-user expectations
-society’s attitude
-society’s responses
are these emotional (psychological)
factors? yes or no

A

yes

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12
Q

DOES C-1 HAVE medical use?

A

no

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13
Q

C-1 drugs include:

A

Ecstasy, heroin, lsd, marijuana, peyote

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14
Q

C-II has a medical purpose. true or false?

A

true

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15
Q

(common) CII DRUGS

A

Methadone

am & methamphetamine

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16
Q

CIII Drugs (common)

A
Vicodin
Tylenol with codeine
testosterone
steroids
ketamine
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17
Q

C IV Drugs (common)

A

pams & ams

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18
Q

C V Drugs (common)

A

Robitussin AC;

Phenergan with codeine

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19
Q

narcotics?

A

analgesics; depresses the central nervous system.

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20
Q

analgesics?

A

relieve pain

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21
Q

what is the most common source of analgesics?

A

poppies

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22
Q

what three human functions are impacted by depressants

A

blood pressure
pulse rate
breathing rate

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23
Q

opium is made into?

A

morphine

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24
Q

morphine is made into

A

heroin

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25
Q

natural origin drugs (4)

A

codeine
morphine
acetaminophen
Tylenol w/ codeine

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26
Q

Semi-synthetic

A

hydrocodone & oxycodone & demoral

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27
Q

heroin high lasts how long?

A

3-4 hours

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28
Q

codeine is present in?

A

opium

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29
Q

codeine is synthetically made from?

A

morphine

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30
Q

is oxycodone derived from opium and morphine?

A

no

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31
Q

what is another synthetic opiate?

A

methadone

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32
Q

depressants alter the central nervous system? yes or no

A

yes

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33
Q

is a barbiturate a depressant? yes or no

A

yes

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34
Q

another name for alcohol?

A

ethyl alcohol

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35
Q

do anti anxiety drugs make you sleepy or prevent high-thinking?

A

no, unlike barbiturates

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36
Q

is valium and xanax anti-anxiety medication?

A

yes

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37
Q

do stimulants cause depression and exhaustion after initial rush and pleasure?

A

yes

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38
Q

what type of coca is cocaine extracted from ?

A

eryth

roxylin

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39
Q

how do you inject crack?

A

mix with water, soda, and then heated.

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40
Q

what type of drugs cause abnormal thoughts, perceptions, and moods?

A

hallucinogens

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41
Q

what type of drugs is LSD and PCP?

A

hallucinogens

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42
Q

what is hashish?

A

THC resin

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43
Q

does marijuana cause physical dependency?

A

no

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44
Q

what is the street name for MDMA

A

ecstasy

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45
Q

what type of drugs is psilocybin, peyote?

A

hallucinogen

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46
Q

what does lysergic acid make?

A

LSD

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47
Q

what is another name for -phen
cycli
dine?

A

PCP

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48
Q

PCP, LSD, Amphetamine powder is called?

A

angel dust

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49
Q

what is GHB? (GHB)

A

gamma
hydroxy
butyrate

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50
Q

is Rohypnol like GHB?

A

yes

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51
Q

what does MDMA stand for?

A

methylene
dioxy
methamphetamine

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52
Q

MDMA chronic use affects?

A

decreases inhibitions
causes seizures, muscle breakdown,
kidney failure

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53
Q

ketamine is for

A

animal anesthetic

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54
Q

ketamine could cause

A

respiratory depression and amnesia

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55
Q

are steroids related to testosterone?

A

yes

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56
Q

steroids affect mood, diminish sex drive, stops bone growth, and causes liver cancer.

A

true

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57
Q

designer drugs when discovered are classified on schedule dugs : analogs
true or false

A

true

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58
Q

designer drugs when discovered are classified on scheduled : analogs
true or false

A

true

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59
Q

name one designer drug?

A

bath salts

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60
Q

Drug Identification
Analytical techniques
CATAGORY A

A

Infrared spectroscopy

mass spectrometry

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61
Q

Drug Identification
Analytical techniques
CATAGORY B

A
  • gas chromatography
  • microcrystalline tests
  • thin layer chromatography
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62
Q

Drug Identification
Analytical techniques
CATAGORY C

A
  • color tests
  • immunoassay
  • ultraviolate spectrascopy
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63
Q

what is the requirements for a CONFIRMATION?

A

1 A + A/B/C
or
2 B+ B/C

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64
Q

What are the four botanical examinations?

A

marijuana
little brown mushrooms
opium poppies
peyote

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65
Q

what is psilocybin?

A

little brown mushrooms

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66
Q

what does botanical examination involve?

A

microscopic and chemical examination.

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67
Q

cystolithic hairs are located where?

A

underside of leaves

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68
Q

how are botanical drugs identified?

A

chemical tests

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69
Q

what does the duque-nois- Levine test for?

A

marijuana

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70
Q

the duquenoise Levine test is a confirmatory test when combined with what?

A

microscopic

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71
Q

what could confirm the presence of THC

A

GC/MS

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72
Q

what does GC stand for?

A

Gas chromatography

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73
Q

what does MS stand for?

A

Mass spectrometry

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74
Q

what is duquenoise Levine?

A

it is a chemical

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75
Q

what is added to duquenoise Levine?

A

hydrochloric acid

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76
Q

if it turns purple it means that ______is present?

A

THC

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77
Q

what chemical does peyote contain?

A

mescaline

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78
Q

is MS or GC used to identify mescaline?

A

gas chromatography

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79
Q

is the peyote plant itself illegal?

A

yes

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80
Q

what type of substances are white power and pills?

A

non-botanical substances

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81
Q

screening step is a what type of test?

A

presumptive

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82
Q

what does a confirmatory step provide?

A

positive identification

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83
Q

Marquis test

A

heroin & amphetamine

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84
Q

Duquenois-Levine

A

Marijuana

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85
Q

Scott

A

cocaine

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86
Q

Dillie Koppanvi

A

barbiturates

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87
Q

Van Urk

A

LSD

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88
Q

froehde

A

beige

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89
Q

Marquis

A

blood red

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90
Q

mecke

A

forest green

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91
Q

what test is done after the color test?

A

micro

crystalline test

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92
Q

is microcrystalline a confirmatory test?

A

no

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93
Q

what does TLC stand for?

A

thin layer chromatography

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94
Q

TLC involves what?

A

seperation

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95
Q

TLC procedure (4)

A

spot
place
stop
visualize

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96
Q

Q + K comparison

A

same sheet

same conditions

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97
Q

Ultraviolet spectrophotometry is Quantitative or Qualitative?

A

Qualitative and Quantitative

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98
Q

ultraviolet spectrophotometry qualitative is?

A

spectrum shape; identity

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99
Q

quantitative ultraviolet spectrophotometry is?

A

concentration/absorbance

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100
Q

Theory of Light:

visible light is small part of electromagnetic spectrum?

A

true

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101
Q

400-780 nm

(wavelength) is visible light?

A

true

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102
Q

what is a Spectrophotometer?

A

instrument

used to measure and record absorption of a chemical (drugs).

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103
Q

How many components does a spectrophotometer have?

A
5:
1-radiation (light)
2-fq selector
3-sample holder
4-detector to convert
5-recorder
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104
Q

do drugs give similar spectrophotometer graphs?

A

yes

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105
Q

Gas Chromatography

could be hooked up to a MS mass spectrometers for a confirmation?

A

true

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106
Q

GAS CHROMATOGRAPHY:

chromatogram?

A

written record of this seperation

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107
Q

GAS CHROMATOGRAPHY:

retention time?

A

component emergence time from a GC column

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108
Q

what is a unique feature of MS mass spectrometry?

A

two substances produce the same fragmentation pattern

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109
Q

INFRARED SPECTROPHOTOMETRY:

is complex?

A

yes

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110
Q

IR is like a substance fingerprint?

A

yes

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111
Q

IR is confirmatory

A

true

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112
Q

CLANDESTINE LABS:

what is the criminalist role? (3)

A

assess
document
conclusion

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113
Q

what is FT?

A
detection
isolation
identification
   -of drugs or poisons
   -in a body
human behavior
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114
Q

FT’s three responsibilities

A

detection
measuring
relating

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115
Q

most heavily abused - legal drug - in the west?

A

alcohol or ethyl alcohol

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116
Q

ethyl alcohol BAC is directly proportional to the alcohol in the the __________.

A

brain

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117
Q

knowing what provides a key understanding of its effects on behavior

A

metabolization

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118
Q

what are metabolization’s three steps?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Elimination

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119
Q

longer time of consumption equals a lower peak alcohol. true or false

A

true

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120
Q

human body water ratio

A

2/3

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121
Q

complete absorption means equal distribution?

A

yes

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122
Q

oxidation and excretion are terms related to ?

A

alcohol elimination

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123
Q

oxidation accounts for what percentage of elimination?

A

95 - 98%

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124
Q

oxidation occurs where?

A

liver

125
Q

what is the liver enzyme in charge of elimination?

A

deydrogenase

126
Q

what percent of alcohol is excreted unchanged via breath, urine, and sweat?

A

5%

127
Q

a breath, BAC and brain alcohol content is the same or proportional?

A

true

128
Q

what is the percent of alcohol burn off per hour?

A

0.015%

129
Q

.10% in an hour will be what %?

A

0

130
Q

how is BAC measured?

A

percent weight per volume

131
Q

translate 0.10%

A

.10 grams per

100 ml of blood

132
Q

which is the standard method of BAC ?

A

blood
or
breath

133
Q

what type of vessel exchanges material in the human circulatory system

A

capillaries

134
Q

where does the respiratory system bridge with the circulatory system?

A

lungs

135
Q

lungs have sacs called?

A

alveoli

136
Q

exhale what leaves?

A

carbon dioxide and alcohol

137
Q

what is in equilibrium with blood?

A

alveoli sacs

138
Q

which has a higher BAC - venous or arterial?

A

arterial

139
Q

where does a breath test get its sample from?

A

pulmonary artery or al veolar breath.

140
Q

what is the ratio of alveolar breath?

A

2,100 to 1 @ 34C

141
Q

infrared light is becoming more popular?

A

true

142
Q

infrared light is becoming more popular?

A

true

143
Q

doe fuel cells convert to electrical current?

A

yes

144
Q

breath testers:

avoid anything in mouth for 15-minutes.

A

true

145
Q

what is the most widely used approach by toxicologist when considering BAC

A

gas chromatography

146
Q

when collecting blood what does the airtight container have?

A

Anti coagulant: EDTA or potassium oxalate.

Preservative: sodium fluoride

147
Q

is collected blood refrigerated?

A

yes

148
Q

few substances enter the body and leave in the same chemical state. true or false?

A

true

149
Q

which specimen is the choice for toxicologist wanting to quantify, interpreting see metabolites?

A

blood

150
Q

where could THC become embedded for a long time?

A

keratin

151
Q

which test is used to measure substance in the keratin?

A

GC-MS

152
Q

POSTMORTEM

postmortem sampling - what is used?

A

urine or bile if urine is not available

153
Q

POSTMORTEM

for qualitative blood samples where from?

A

right atrium
inferior vena cava
large vessels

154
Q

POSTMORTEM

for quantitative blood samples where from?

A

left or right

femoral veins

155
Q

Keratin?

A

scale-like feature on a hair strand.

156
Q

name 3 postmortem sampling areas of the human body.

A

gastric
cerebrospinal fluid
meconium

157
Q

name 5 parts of the human body from which tissue is postmortem sampled.

A

liver: drugs
brain: lipophillics
lung: drugs inhale
kidney: metal poisoning

skeletal muscle: “meat shakes” when body is severly decomposed.

158
Q

what two types of extraction is there?

A

acid:
liquid extraction
vs
base: solid phase extraction

159
Q

LIQUID EXTRACTION:

has which two solvents?

A

aqueous

organic

160
Q

LIQUID EXTRACTION:

what three words are key in understanding the process?

A

shake

gravity

seperation

161
Q

does a solid phase extraction involve liquid and a solid?

A

yes

162
Q

SOLID PHASE EXTRACTION:

stationary phase?

A

test tube with membrane and sample with drugs loaded

163
Q

SOLID PHASE EXTRACTION:
the following steps involves pouring liquids to which the drugs in the sample like; the drug will attach to the liquid as it moves down the test tube. eventually extracting the one drug from the sample.

true or false?

A

true

164
Q

name one screening test that FT use.

A

immunoassay

165
Q

does immunoassay require extraction?

A

no

166
Q

what five drugs is immunoassay effective at?

A
meth/amph
cocaine
opiates
barbs
marijuana
167
Q

are immunoassay drug specific?

A

yes

168
Q

antigen

A

specific drug

169
Q

antibody

A

produced when “foreign” antigen is present

170
Q

antiserum

A

serum that contains antibody for specific antigen

171
Q

immunoassay screening: cross-reactivity should occur?

A

false; immunoassay is drug specific so “no” cross-reactivity should occur.

172
Q

explain immunoassay:
STEP 1: In a well mix antibody, sample antigen drug, and antigen conjugate (enzyme) coated drug. STEP 2: (PRIMARY INCUBATION) Fight for antibody -5-MIN. then wash the well. STEP 3: add substrate to activate color. STEP 4: (read plate) the color we see in the immunoassay screening - is INVERSELY related to the amount of drug present.

A

true

173
Q

GC is a separation technique. true or false

A

true

174
Q

mass spectrometry is a fingerprint of the drug? true or false?

A

true

175
Q

which test follows the immunoassay?

A

GC/MS

176
Q

IR only gives identity not concentration. true or false

A

true

177
Q

is GC/MS a confirmatory test?

A

yes

178
Q

FTIR give you

“qualitative” identification. true or false

A

true

179
Q

GC/MS give you qualitative and quantitative measures.

true or false?

A

true

180
Q

name 5 heavy metal killers:

A
arsenic
bismuth
antimony
mercury
thallium
181
Q

most common non drug killer FTL?

A

carbon monoxide

182
Q

carbon monoxide attaches to what?

A

hemoglobin

183
Q

when CM and H it forms?

A

carbo
xyh
hemoglobin

184
Q

carbo xyh hemoglobin depletes what in the human body?

A

oxygen

185
Q

is carbon monoxide poisoning make for a cherry red lividity?

A

yes

186
Q

the finding or effects of the drug on the body is affected by what three human factors?

A

age

health

tolerance

187
Q

anthropometry?

A

body measurements; Alphonse Bertillon

188
Q

1st used fingerprints (yr; WW; FLP)

A

1903;
will west (WW)
FLP

189
Q

anthropometry

discriminatory or not discriminatory?

A

not discriminatory

190
Q

fingerprints: invented by? in what year?

A

Francis Galton

1892

191
Q

Galton’s hometown?

A

England

192
Q

Galton’s three fingerprint proposal?

A

arch, loop, whorl

193
Q

who and what year was fingerprint classification systemized?

A

Sir Edward Henry; 1897

194
Q

reproduction of friction skin ridges found on the palm of the fingers and thumbs?

A

fingerprints

195
Q

what are the three fundamental principals of fingerprints?

A

ind. characteristics
no change
ridges classified

196
Q

FINGERPRINTS:

principal one?

A

no two the same

197
Q

another name for ridge characteristics?

A

minutiae or Galton points

198
Q

what is understood by Galton Points?

A

match for common origin

199
Q

FINGERPRINT: Principle Two?

A

do not change

200
Q

Epidermis?

A

outer

201
Q

Dermis?

A

inner

202
Q

dermal papillae

A

junction

203
Q

who is responsible for determining the forms and patterns of fingerprints?

A

dermal papillae

204
Q

raised lines or hills are called?

A

ridges

205
Q

the valleys between the hills?

A

grooves

206
Q

do fingerprints enlarge and change or just enlarge from birth?

A

enlarge

207
Q

principle three?

A

loop (60-65); whirl (30-35), arch (5)

208
Q

radial loop (eats)? pinky or thumb?

A

thumb

209
Q

ulnar (eats)?

A

pinky

210
Q

what four groups are whorls divided INTO?

A

plain
central pocket loop
double loop
accidental

211
Q

which two make a complete circuit?

A

plain whorl & central pocket loop

212
Q

double loop whorl?

A

S shape

213
Q

accidental whorl?

A

two or more patterns or pattern not covered by common fingerprint categories.

214
Q

arches - divided into which two distinct groups?

A

plain arches and tented arches

215
Q

plain arches

A

distribution curve

216
Q

tented arches

A

sharp upthrust

217
Q

tented arches

A

sharp upthrust

218
Q

FINGERPRINT HIERARCHY

A

GENERAL
GPC
DETAILED COMPARISON

219
Q

three methods of detecting fingerprints?

A

visible

latent

plastic

220
Q

visible

A

visible

221
Q

latent

A

invisible

222
Q

plastic

A

imprint

223
Q

RUVIS, or visualizing, powders, super glue: what type of surface?

A

hard non-porous surfaces.

224
Q

chemical treatment on fingerprints is used for what type of surfaces?

A

soft and porous surfaces.

225
Q

what develops latent prints on non-porous surfaces?

A

super glue fuming

226
Q

name three methods for porous chemical ?

A

iodine fuming
ninhydrin
physical developer

227
Q

which fingerprint developer will fade in a few hours and should be photographed?

A

Iodine prints

228
Q

which fingerprint developer will fade in a few hours and should be photographed?

A

Iodine prints

229
Q

which fingerprint developer involves amino acids and produces a purple blue color?

A

ninhydrin

230
Q

when other chemical developers fail - which method is chosen?

A

physical developer

231
Q

a physical developer uses which reagent?

A

silver nitrate base

232
Q

the physical developer method is also used in what types of surfaces that have been what in the past?

A

porous objects;

wet

233
Q

AFIS?

A

Automated Fingerprint Identification System

234
Q

AFIS could make how many comparisons per second?

A

thousands

235
Q

what two elements need to be present in a fingerprint match?

A

characteristic and location

236
Q

how many individual ridge characteristics does a fingerprint have?

A

150

237
Q

suggested as sufficient amount of Galton points to meet criteria of individuality?

A

8-16 points

238
Q

what is useful for exclusions?

class or individual characteristics

A

class characteristics

239
Q

what is useful for inclusions?

class or individual characteristics

A

individual characteristics

240
Q

“new” sneaker bottom impression? could or cannot make an individualization?

A

cannot make an individualization

241
Q

Is individualization statistically supported?

A

no

242
Q
worn shoe impression
could give both class and individual characteristics?  true or false
A

true

243
Q

worn shoe impressions could give more valuable information?

A

true

244
Q

what determines if detection is easy or hard?

A

if the medium is moldable (easy -dirt or snow) or not moldable (hard;- dust on hard floor)

245
Q

what lighting angle captures dust on hard floors?

A

oblique

246
Q

how is a dust impression preserved?

A

photograph

247
Q

documenting tire impressions require which two wheel measurement?

A

wheel base

tire tread stance (track)

248
Q

Which evidence is fragile and very transient?

A

impression evidence

249
Q

which method is better for dark dust particles?

tape lift or electrostatic

A

tape lift

250
Q

which method is better for light dust particles?

A

electrostatic

251
Q

an EDL paper contains a positive or negative charge?

A

positive

252
Q

which charge does the dust on the floor contain?

A

negative

253
Q

positive and negative charge attract each other. true or false

A

true

254
Q

Q?

A

from crime scene

255
Q

K?

A

from possible suspect

256
Q
make
model
pattern
size
are characteristics of class or individual?
A

class

257
Q

wear & tear are characteristics of class or individual?

A

individual

258
Q

how are shoe sole comparison samples created?

A

powder
cellulose
walks
dried

259
Q

how are tire comparison samples created?

A

vaseline
poster
powder
dried

260
Q

should images or casts be compared with like polarity (+ or -)?

yes or no

A

yes

- -
or
(+ +)

261
Q

should images or casts be compared with like polarity (+ or -)?

yes or no

A

yes

- -
or
(+ +)

262
Q

is there a defined number of individual characteristics needed to make an individualization?

A

no

263
Q

are comparisons supported statistically?

A

no

264
Q

are comparisons supported statistically?

A

no

265
Q

What is the purpose (3) of a death investigation?

A

cause
mechanism
manner

266
Q

coroner

A

elected

medical degree optional

267
Q

medical examiner

A

appointed

board certified forensic pathologist (autopsies)

268
Q

medical examiner

A

appointed

board certified forensic pathologist (autopsies)

269
Q

what two questions must a medical examiner ask her or himself to have jurisdiction?

A

sudden death?

unexpected death?

270
Q

is only sudden or unexpected or are both necessary for a ME to have jurisdiction?

A

both

271
Q

injury or disease, sequence, and death is mechanism, manner, or cause?

A

cause

272
Q

physiological abnromality

mechanism, manner, or cause?

A

mechanism

273
Q

circumstances

mechanism, manner, or cause?

A

manner

274
Q

an autopsy
witness statements
medical records
scene investigation is

mechanism, manner, or cause?

A

cause

275
Q

what is considered a critical phase of a death investigation?

A

preliminary reconstruction of events.

276
Q

autopsy

A

examination of a body after death

277
Q

focus on internal organs and

medical conditions?

A

clinical/hospital autopsy

278
Q

cause and manner determination - used in court

A

forensic/medic o legal autopsy.

279
Q

documentation
photographs
tissue toxicological examination is part of ?

A

Autopsy

280
Q

are photographs of “no injury” important?

A

yes

281
Q

Pete chiae

A

homorrages in eyelids

282
Q

strangulation and smothering cases have evidence of ?

A

Pete chi

283
Q

postmorten redistribution

A

drug re-entry into blood after death

284
Q

what study could help in drugs are therapeutic, toxic, or fatal.

A

toxicology

285
Q

five most common causes of death?

A
blunt
sharp
asphyxia
gunshot
drugs
286
Q

ruptured blood vessels beneath the skin

A

contusions

287
Q

a level of what could determine if a person was breathing while the fire was burning?

A

a level of carbon monoxide

288
Q

what is the most important factor in characterizing a gunshot wound?

A

distance between muzzle and target

289
Q

star wound is called?

A

stellate tearing

290
Q

ESTIMATING TIME OF DEATH

name the three rate methods

A

rigor

temp

decomposition

291
Q

concurrence method?

A

comparing events that occurred at or shortly before the time of death.

292
Q

loss of body heat is called?

A

algor mortis

293
Q

what is the ratio of F and time of death.

A

1:1

or 1:1.5

294
Q

what is the start time of liver mortis?

A

20-min. to 3 hours.

295
Q

what the end time of liver mortis?

A

16 hours.

296
Q

what could indicate that the body was moved after death?

A

lividity patterns

297
Q

what occurs within the first 24 hours after death?

A

rigor

298
Q

how long does rigor lasts

A

36 hours

299
Q

how could potassium be used?

A

to determine the time of death

300
Q

where is the potassium sample located

A

vitreous humor

301
Q

NASH U

A

N: natural
A: accidental
S: suicide
H: homocide

U: undetermined

302
Q

Forensic anthropology

A

skeletel

303
Q

forensic athropology could determine?

A

size
shape
ancestry
gender

304
Q

forensic entomology?

A

insects for TOD

305
Q

could a fly determine the PMI?

A

post mortem interval;

yes

306
Q

what is the name of the fly ?

A

blowfly

307
Q

earliest stage?

A

oviposition

308
Q

latest state?

A

puparium

309
Q

eclosion?

A

adult fly emerges