Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Small Animal Year 4 > Gastro Intestinal Internal Medicine > Flashcards

Gastro Intestinal Internal Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

define dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

indicates oropharyngeal or oesophagus issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define odynophagia

A

pain swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define ptyalism

A

increased saliva production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define pseudoptylasim

A

failure to swallow normal amount of saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

differentiate regurgitation and vomiting

A

regurgitation= passive event, undigested food, immediate or delayed, neutral pH

vom= abdominal muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which oesophageal disease presents with constant regurgitation, often secondary aspiration pneumonia and would show ventral displacement of trachea on radiograph

can raise water and food bowl as part of management/ tx

A

megaoesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which oesophageal disease presents with anorexia, dysphagia, odynophagia, regurgitation and hypersalivation

dx with endoscopy

A

oesophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the preferred surgical method of correcting a stricture of the oesophagus

A

balloon dilation, less risk of perforation than with bougienage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which primary cause of chronic vomiting is this?

o Aet: often unknown, sometimes IBD, dietary intolerance, parasitism, hairballs in cats, spiral bacteria helicobacter?, immune mediated
o Cx: vomiting intermittent +/- periodic early morning vomit with bile, poor appetite, gastric bleeding
o Dx: gastroscopy and biopsy. no specific lab tests.
o Tx: tx underlying cause, diet – multiple small meals, hypoallergenic diet- hydrolysed protein or low protein
 acid blocker
 corticosteroid sometimes

A

chronic gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which primary cause of chronic vomiting is this?

retention of food in stomach> 8 hours, causing delayed vomiting of food

A

gastric retention disorder

a) anatomical outflow obstruction: pyloric stenosis, neoplasia, foreign bodies etc
b) functional disorder: primary motility disorder or inflammatory disease

dx: vomit will be FOOD not fluid, as not passed beyond stomach
tx: can surgically remoe stenosis. Prokinetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which primary cause of chronic vomiting is this?

Aet: drugs- NSAIDs or corticosteroids, esp finadyne (not used anymore), head and spinal injuries (changes in blood flow), gastritis, metabolic diseases eg liver disease, mast cell tumours, bile reflux, gastrinoma (very rare), spiral bacterial eg Helicobacter

Cx: haematemesis, melaena, anaemia, weight loss, pain, peritonitis if perforated (gastric ulcer burns hole through. Prayer posture abdominal pain

Tx: tx primary cause, acid blockers antacid, h2 antagonists = cimetidine, proton pump inhibitors= omeprazole, v effective (reduces HCL in stomach)
o MAY WORSEN IF INTESTINAL ULCERATION IF GIVEN WITH NSAIDS
o Prevention: synthetic PGE best, H2 antagonists, PPis and sucralfate also less effective

A

gastric ulcers

peptic ulcer= ulcer in stomach or duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which primary cause of chronic vomiting is this?

infiltrate gastric wall with fibrosisi and ulceration, oft lesser curvature/ distal stomach

Sp/br: Belgian shepherds, collies, bull terriers

Cx: chronic vomiting, weigh loss, anaemia, drooling saliva

Dx: endoscopy, full thickness biopsy

Tx: surgical removal not recommended, mostly palliative as not good prognosis as have to reconstructive gastric outflow

A

Gastric neoplasia

Sp/br: middle aged older dogs>cats,

dogs: adenocarcinoma>lymphoma>polyps>leimyoma (fairs better with removal)

cats- lymphoma >adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which primary cause of chronic vomiting is this?

typical in dogs fed once a day.

Aet: not understood, bile fluid backs up Gi tract back into stomach and this irritates it, causes vomiting

Dx: vomiting BILE STAINED FLUID, NOT FOOD.

Tx: feed more often, at night. Add prokinetic eg ranitidine or metocloperamide

A

bilious vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ddx of haematemesis

A 
swallowed blood from nose/ pulomary, 
severe gastritis, 
gastric ulcer, 
gastric neoplasia, 
duodenal disease, generalised bleeding due to clotting condition.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are

metoclopramide
ranitidine
erythromycin

used for

A

prokinetics, increase gut motility

ranitine also H2 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the triple therapy for helicobacter?

A

2 antibiotics: amoxicillin, metronidazole, clarthromycin

1 acid blocker: omeprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SI or LI diarrhoea?

Large volume 
Watery 
Often colour change
Normal to slight increase in frequency 
\+/- weight loss
\+/- flatulence, borborygmi (abdominal sounds), halitosis
A

small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SI or LI diarrhoea?

A 
Decreased volume 
Increased frequency 
Urgency and tenesmus
Mucus and haematochezia
Dyschezia 
Constipation +/- vriable consistency 
No weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

define Melaena

A

Black colored stools that occur as a result of gastrointestinal bleeding

20
Q

define Haematochezia

A

blood passes from the rectum or anus

21
Q

define diarrhoea

A

unformed or loose stools, usually occurring in larger amounts and/or more often

22
Q

define constipation

A

inability to produce normal stools on a regular schedule,

23
Q

ddx chronic diarrhoea

A 
Systemic diseases 
-	Liver disease 
-	Renal disease
-	Pancreatic disease 
-	Endocrine disease 
o	Addison’s disease 
o	Diabetes mellitus 
o	Hyperthyroidism

Alimentary disease

  • Adverse reactions to food
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Antibiotic-responsive diarrhoea
  • Lymphangiectasia
  • Lymphoma/tumours
  • Infectious diarrhoea
  • (Partial) obstructions
24
Q

what might you check for in faecal sample in chronic diarrhoea dog or cat?

A

Parasites: giardia, cryptosporidia, trichomonas foetus (cats)

Bacteria: salmonella, campylobacter

25
Q

what therapies can be used to treat chronic diarrhoea in dogs and cats?

A

Diet>ABs> Steroids> cytotoxics

26
Q

list some causes of constipation

A

FB, low residue diet

spinal cord disease
idiopathic megacolon

obesity, stress/ envirnomental change

colonic obstruction: stricture, palivc trau,a, neoplasia, FB

dehydration, hypokalaemia

drug induced: opiates, phenothiazines, anticholinergics

27
Q

which pancreatic disease presents as

Dogs: dehydration, anorexia, vomiting, weakness, abdominal pain- in prayer position, diarrhoea, jaundice

Cats: less obvious, lethargy, anorexia vomiting abdominal pain, diarrhoea

on US: enlarged pancreas, hyper echoic mesenteric changes

what is the pathology of this disease? what is needed for definitive diagnosis?

A

acute pancreatitis

lots of factors eg high lipid diet> early activation of trypsin in pancreas> autodigestion. some autoimmune function too

pancreatic biopsy required

28
Q

how could you manage or treat acute pancreatitis

A

if vomiting> antiemetics. tube feeding if painful, once vomiting stops

analgesia: buprenorphone- cats, paracetamol- dogs, avoid NSAIDs
tramadol, gabapentine

29
Q

what are 3 causes of exocrine pancreas insufficiency?

A

pancreatic acinar atrophy in GSH

pancreatic hypoplasia, rare

chronic pancreatitis- cats, rare

30
Q

which pancreatic disease is this indicative of

changes in faecal consistency- large vol, foul smelling, greasy, putty like

appetite changes- polyphagia, coprophagiam pica (really hungry and really skinny)

vomiting

poor coat condition

how would you diagnose

A

EPI= exocrine pancreas insufficiency

trypsin like immunoreactivity blood test >2.5 TLI» THEN DOG HAS EPI

31
Q

How should EPI be treated?

A

enzyme replacement therapy

+ cobalamin supplementation if deficient

32
Q

these clinical signs are ascociated with disease of which organ?

Icterus- jaundice 
loss of condition/ weight loss
Hypoglycaemia
hypoalbuminemia
Ascites 
Polyuria/polydipsia 
Bleeding
A

liver disease

Icterus- jaundice - too much bilirubin, cant be removed
loss of condition/ weight loss- metabolic dysfunction
Hypoglycaemia
hypoalbuminemia- liver function reduction
Ascites - hypoalbuminaemi, portal hypertension, na and water retention
Polyuria/polydipsia - cannot concentrate urine
Bleeding- reduction in clotting factors, liver function reduction

33
Q

what is portosystemic shunt and what disease does it cause?

A

congenital
acquired: cirrhosis or portal hypertension>

connection between hepatic portal vein and blood supply, bypassing liver

causes hepatic encephalopathy > increases NH3 and toxins in blood

34
Q

which liver condition has cx of

anorexia, V and D, PUPD, dullness, aggression, staggering, blindness, head pressing, seizures, increase sensitivity to anaesthetics, copper coloured irises

Gets worse if high protein meal, GI bleed, dehydrated, acid base imbalance

A

portsystemic shunt creating hepatic encephalopathy signs

35
Q

a cat with anorexia and weightloss, icterus, PUPD, hepatoencephalopathy, increased hypersalivation, pyrexia, chorioretinitis or uveitis microhepatica and cirrhosis rare

is showing what disease

A

general feline liver disease

36
Q

how would you diagnose portosystemic shunt

A

portovenogrpahy- contrast radiogrpah

37
Q

what should you always do before liver biopsy

A

check clotting profile

38
Q

how to tx hepatic encephalopathy with

a) dietary modification
b) drugs

A

a) Restrict protein, high dairy, and high vegetables

minimises ammonia production

b) Ampicillin or metronidazole

Need to reduce bacteria producing ammonia anaerobes

39
Q

how to tx chronic active inflammation in liver with dietry modification

A

low copper high zinc (competes for absorption with copper in SI, need to prevent copper accumulation),

fat soluble vitamins, taurine and L-carnitine for cats.

Protein restriction rarely required

40
Q

how does UDCA help treat hepatobillary disease

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)

beneficial bile salt.
Makes bile more watery, stimulates bile flow and modulates inflammatory/ immune response

41
Q

how does SAMe help treat hepatobillary disease

A

helps combat toxicites

42
Q

how does milk thistle help treat hepatobillary disease

A

silymarin

inhibits inflammation, lipid peroxidase, collagen deposition and increases glutathionine

43
Q

why is prednisolone used to treat hepatic disease

A

if immune mediated process or fibrosis present

44
Q

when are :
a) Penicillamine

b) oral zinc

used in controlling hepatic disease

A

penicillamine= copper chelator, decoppers liver

oral zinc reduces copper absoption from GI tract

45
Q

what sound be done is a bacterial cholangitis is present

A

C+S ABs

46
Q

what should be done in the event of the following liver disease complications
- hepatic encephalopathy and coma

ascites and oedema

haemorrhage and anaemia

A

Complications of liver disease

Hepatic encephalopathy and coma rehydrate, diuretics, reduce ammonia concs low protein diet, lactulose (enema if coma), antiobiotics

Ascites and oedema low sodium diet, diuretics, paracentesis

Haemorrhage and anaemia  vit K injections, fresh blood transfusions, Vit B injection, H2 blockers if GI haemorrhage

Small Animal Year 4 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions