General Review Flashcards

1
Q

A patient presents with a history of fatigue and dyspnea. He is found to have hepatomegaly, ascites, and an elevated jugular venous pulse. Heart sounds are normal, no murmurs are present, and the heart is of normal size. The pulse pressure is decreased by palpation. ECG is normal except for low voltage. The most likely diagnosis is:

A) Right Atrial Myxoma
B) Valvular Disease
C) Constrictive Pericarditis
D) Primary Pulmonary Artery Hypertension

A

C) Constrictive Pericarditis

Classic PE findings of Constrictive Pericarditis include JV distention with Kussmaul sign, diminished cardiac apical impulses, peripheral edema ascites, pulsatile liver, a pericardial knock, and, in advanced disease, signs of liver dysfunction such as jaundice and cachexia.

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2
Q

You are assisting a surgeon in an important procedure. The procedure is going well until you hear the anesthesiologist refer that the patient has an arrhythmia. What is the most common arrhythmia seen during laparoscopy.

A) Atrial Fibrillation
B) Sinus Tachycardia
C) PVCs
D) Sinus Bradycardia

A

D) Sinus Bradycardia

A rapid stretch of the peritoneal membrane often causes a vagovagal response with bradycardia and occasionally hypotension. The appropriate management is desuflation of the abdomen, administration of vagolytic agents (atropine), and adequate volume replacement.

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3
Q

While reviewing the pathology of a recent laparoscopic appendectomy, you note that in addition to acute appendicitis, the patient had a 1.5 cm carcinoid tumor located at the base of the appendix. The patient is otherwise healthy and recovering well from surgery. What would you recommend?

A) No additional therapy
B) Right Hemicolectomy
C) Right Hemicolectomy + Ileoectomy (removal of ileus)
D) Adjuvant chemotherapy

A

B) Right Hemicolectomy

Appendiceal carcinoid is one the most common neoplasms identified in the appendectomy specimen. Lesions that are <1 cm generally do not require additional therapy. Lesions larger than 1 or 2 cm, involving the appendiceal base or with lymph node metastasis of mesenteric invasion warrant right hemicolectomy. Adjuvant chemotherapy is only recommended after definitive surgical care

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4
Q

A 67 year old male was diagnosed with nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Which cervical lymph node level is his cancer most likely to spread to?

A) Level I, II, III
B) Level II, III, IV
C) Level I
D) Level V

A

D) Level V

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma - level V
Oral cavity - level I, II, III (Buccal mucosa - level I)
Oropharyngeal - Level II, III, IV
Hypopharynx - level III, IV

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5
Q

Accompanying desmoplastic response and fibrosis of tumor enlargement and invasion entrap and shorten which structure resulting to peau d’ orange?

A) Suspensory ligament of Belle
B) Cooper’s ligament
C) Murray’s ligament
D) Dermal ligament

A

B) Cooper’s ligament
Rationale: The suspensory ligaments of Cooper play an important role in the change in appearance of the breast that often accompanies the development of inflammatory carcinoma of the breast in which blockage of the local lymphatic ducts causes swelling of the breast.
Because the skin remains tethered by the suspensory ligaments of Cooper, it takes on a dimpled appearance reminiscent of the peel of an orange (peau d’orange). Carcinomas can also decrease the length of Cooper’s ligaments leading to a dimpling.

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6
Q

A 25 year old, 28 weeks AOG primigravid, came for consult because of anterior neck mass that she wished to be removed. What in the history will make the surgeon remove the anterior neck mass?

A) Family history of goiter
B) Patient is complaining of tachycardia
C) Patient has dyspnea and dysphagia
D) Recent history of very low TSH

A

C) Patient has dyspnea and dysphagia

Rationale: Indication for surgical treatment (sub-total thyroidectomy within the second trimester of gestation, soon after the euthyroid state following short medication is reached) - an elective approach:

1) allergy to antithyroid drugs
2) large compressive goiter
3) suspicion of thyroid cancer
4) patients who require large doses of antithyroid drugs to reach and sustain euthyroid state
5) poor patient compliance
6) extremely rare resistance to antithyroid drugs.

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7
Q

After an ordinary surgery, an infection in the operative wound is still considered secondary to the initial surgery when it falls within:

A) 2-3 days
B) 7-8 days
C) 30-31 days
D) 1 year

A

C) 30-31 days

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8
Q

What is the best imaging modality to request for a patient suspected to have multiple facial fractures from a motor vehicular accident?

A) Plain radiographs
B) Ultrasound
C) CT Scan
D) MRI

A

C) CT Scan
Rationale: Computer tomography (CT) is the imaging modality of choice when assessing a traumatic mandibular injury and can demonstrate a 100% sensitivity in detecting a fracture.

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9
Q

Which of the following is well-defined freely movable dominant mass on the left breast of an 18-year old girl?

A) Fibroadenoma
B) Papilloma
C) Fibrocystic disease
D) “Blue Dome” cyst

A

A) Fibroadenoma

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10
Q

The following is true regarding polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) EXCEPT

A) Is predominantly treated with steroid and cytotoxic agent therapy.
B) Predominantly affects women over men by a 2:1 ratio.
C) Presenting symptoms include low-grade fever, malaise, and myalgias.
D) May be sufficiently diagnosed by skin biopsy.

A

B) Predominantly affects women over men by a 2:1 ratio

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11
Q
What is the largest organ in the body? *
A. Skin
B. Brain
C. Bone
D. Liver
E. Gluteus maximus
A

A. Skin

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12
Q
How many bones are in the adult body? *
A. 270
B. 246
C. 214
D. 216
E. 198
A

D. 216

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13
Q
What is medical term for vomiting? *
A. emesis
B. halitosis
C. flatus
D. tenesmus
E. Intussusception
A

A. emesis

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14
Q
This organ is triangular in shape and is connected to the thymus inferiorly and the crux of the diaphragm superiorly? *
A. Lungs
B. Heart
C. Trachea
D. Stomach
E. Liver
A

B. Heart

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15
Q
What is the most common cause of ectopic hypercortisolism? *
A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Cushing's disease
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Neuroblastoma
E. Small Cell Lung Carcinoma
A

E. Small Cell Lung Carcinoma

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16
Q
The most common cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia produces which symptoms? I. Increase androgen II. Hypertension III. Increased steroids *
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II, III
D. I and III
E. NOTA
A

B. I and II

17
Q
To cut the venous drainage of the adrenal gland in adrenalectomy, which vessels should be traced? I. Left renal vein II. IVC III. Portal vein *
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II, III
D. I and III
E. NOTA
A

B. I and II

18
Q
Which of the following criteria should be satisfied to proceed with repair of cleft lip? I. 10 weeks II. 10mg/dl hemoglobin III. 10kg *
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II, III
D. I and III
E. NOTA
A

B. I and II

19
Q
The second most common cause of malignant parotid tumor is described by the following characteristics, except? *
A. indolent
B. submucosal
C. radiosensitive
D. Metastasize to the lungs
E. NOTA
A

E. NOTA

20
Q
The most common location of oral cavity carcinoma? *
A. Upper lip
B. Lower lip
C. frenulum
D. Upper alveolar
E. Tongue
A

B. Lower lip

21
Q
What is the most aggressive subtype of Basal Cell Carcinoma? *
A. Superficial
B. Nodular
C. Pigmented
D. Morpheaform
E. Basosquamous
A

D. Morpheaform

22
Q
What melanoma subtype is the least aggressive? *
A. superficial spreading
B. nodular
C. lentigo maligna	
D. acral lentiginous
E. All have the same aggressiveness
A

C. lentigo maligna

23
Q
Most common germ cell tumor in mediastinum? *
A. seminoma
B. teratoma	
C. lymphoma
D. Bronchogenic cyst
E. Fibroma
A

A. seminoma

24
Q
Which is not true of Thymoma? *
A. 50% malignant
B. 50% with symptoms
C. 50% with myasthenia gravis
D. 10% of Myasthenia gravis patients have thymoma
E. NOTA
A

E. NOTA

25
Q
Where is the most common location for aortic dissection? *
A. Stanford A
B. Stanford B
C. Stanford C
D. abominal
E. Beyond iliac
A

A. Stanford A

26
Q
A pediatric patient came in for consult because of hematochezia and pain and difficulty in defecation. He was diagnosed with having chronic anal fissure. Which of the following is seen in this disease? I. Hypertrophied pappila II. Sentinel Skin tag III. Anal ulcer *
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II, III
D. I and III
E. NOTA
A

C. I, II, III

27
Q
Which of the following is the best treatment for the patient above? *
A. Lateral Internal Fistulotomy
B. Lateral Internal Sphincterotomy
C. Low fiber diet
D. Lactulose
E. Increased fluid intake
A

B. Lateral Internal Sphincterotomy

28
Q
The Amsterdam criteria for Lynch syndrome or hereditary non-polyposis colorectal is as follows. I. 3 first degree relative II. 2 relatives under 50 years old III. 2 succeeding generations *
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II, III
D. I and III
E. NOTA
A

D. I and III

29
Q
A 70 yo man was brought to the ER because of ischemia to the Griffith flexure. Which of the following vessels are affected? *
A. Splenic vessel
B. Ileocolic
C. Right colic
D. Middle colic
E. Left colic
A

D. Middle colic

30
Q
Which of the following will not cause a false positive Fecal Occult Blood test? *
A. Vit C
B. Iron
C. Beef
D. Cimetidine
E. NOTA
A

E. NOTA