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From Flashcardlet > Hawker 900 XP > Flashcards

Hawker 900 XP Flashcards

Study Material and random questions pertaining to the Hawker XP.

0
Q

ENGINE FIRE, FAILURE OR
INADVERTENT THRUST REVERSER
DEPLOYMENT DURING TAKEOFF
Below V1—Takeoff Aborte

A
  1. Thrust Levers …………………………. CLOSE
  2. Brakes …………………………………… APPLY
  3. AIR BRAKEs……………………………….DEPLOY
  4. THRUST REVERSERs…………………… DEPLOY
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1
Q

ENGINE FIRE, FAILURE OR
INADVERTENT THRUST REVERSER
DEPLOYMENT DURING TAKEOFF
After V1—Takeoff Continued

A
  1. LANDING GEAR (When Positive Climb Established)….. UP
  2. MAIN AIR VLVs 1 & 2……………… CLOSE
  3. F/DK VALVE…………………………. CLOSE
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2
Q

ENGINE FIRE IN FLIGHT

A
  1. Thrust Lever (Affected Engine)……… CLOSE
    If fire warning persists:
  2. HP COCK (Affected Engine)………….. CLOSE
  3. LP COCK (Affected Engine) ………….. CLOSE
  4. ENG EXT……………………………………. SHOT 1
    If engine shutdown occurs during initial climb:
  5. MAIN AIR VLVs 1 & 2 ………………….. CLOSE
  6. F/DK VLV …………………………………. CLOSE
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3
Q

ENGINE FIRE ON GROUND

A
  1. START PWR Switch (Starting Only). PUSH ABORT
  2. HP COCK (Affected Engine)……… CLOSE
  3. LP COCK (Affected Engine) ……… CLOSE
  4. ENG EXT (Affected Engine)……….. SHOT 1
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4
Q

ENGINE COMPUTER FAILURE

A

ENG CMPTR……………………………….OFF

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5
Q

OIL LOW PRESSURE

A
  1. OIL PRESSURE ……..CHECK GAUGE READING
    If below 49 PSI:
  2. HP COCK (Affected Engine)…………… CLOSE
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6
Q

INADVERTENT THRUST REVERSER

DEPLOYMENT IN FLIGHT

A
  1. HP COCK (Affected Engine)………….. CLOSE
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7
Q

DOUBLE ENGINE FAILURE

A
  1. Thrust Levers………………………CLOSE
  2. Crew Oxygen ….DON MASKS IF ABOVE 15,000 FT
  3. MIC Selector ….OXY-MIC IF ABOVE 15,000 FT
  4. Engine Indications……………….MONITOR
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8
Q

DEPRESSURIZATION

Horn Sounds

A
  1. Crew Oxygen…………………… DON MASKS

2. Mic Selector ……………………. OXY-MIC

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9
Q

REAR EQUIPMENT BAY OVERHEAT

A
  1. MAIN AIR VLVs 1 & 2 ………. CLOSE

2. F/DK VLV ……………………… OPEN FULLY

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10
Q

HIGH PRESSURE AIR OVERHEAT

A
  1. MAIN AIR VLV (Affected Engine) .. CLOSE

2. F/DK VLV …………………………….. CLOSE

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11
Q

EMERGENCY DESCENT

A
  1. Thrust Levers …………………….. CLOSE
  2. Speed … MMO/VMO UNLESS STRUCTURAL
    DAMAGE IS SUSPECTED
  3. AIR BRAKEs ………………………… OPEN
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12
Q

ELECTRICAL FIRE OR SMOKE

A
  1. Crew Oxygen … DON MASKS—100% EMERG
  2. Mic Selector ……………………… OXY-MIC
  3. Cabin Notices ……………………. ON
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13
Q

FUSELAGE FIRE OR SMOKE

A
  1. Crew Oxygen ….. DON MASKS—100% EMERG
  2. Mic Selector ……………………….. OXY-MIC
  3. Cabin Notices …………………….. ON
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14
Q

SMOKE FROM AIR CONDITIONING DUCTS

A
  1. Crew Oxygen … DON MASKS—100% EMERG
  2. Mic Selector ………………………. OXY-MIC
  3. Cabin Notices …………………….. ON
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15
Q

BRAKE FAILURE

A
  1. Brake Pedals ……………………… RELEASE
  2. WHEEL BRAKE Lever…………….. EMERGY
  3. Brake Pedals …. APPLY GENTLY—USE ONE
    CONTINUOUS APPLICATION IF POSSIBLE
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16
Q

EGPWS WARNING

A
  1. Go-Around Button ……………. PUSH
  2. Thrust……………………TAKE-OFF N1
  3. Pitch Attitude …… INCREASE AND CLIMB AS
    REQUIREDTO AVOID TERRAIN/OBSTACLE
  4. APR………………………………….OVRD
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17
Q

WINDSHEAR WARNING

A
  1. Go-Around Button ………….. PUSH
  2. Thrust……………………………TAKE-OFF N1
  3. Pitch Attitude .. INCREASE AS REQUIRED TO
    ARREST DESCENT, ALLOWING AIRSPEED TO DECREASE
    TO INTERMITTENT STICK SHAKER ACTIVATION
  4. APR………………………………..OVRD
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18
Q

EMERGENCY EVACUATION

A
  1. Airplane…………………… STOP
  2. WHEEL BRAKE Lever……. PARK
  3. HP COCKS ……………………… CLOSE
  4. LP COCKS……………………….. CLOSE
  5. EMERG LIGHTS (If Required)…….. MAN
  6. PA………………… ORDER EVACUATION
  7. DUMP VALVE…………………… OPEN
  8. BATT ……………………. OFF
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19
Q

VMO—VENTRAL FUEL TANK EMPTY,

FLAPS 0

A

335 KIAS (Sea Level—12,000 Feet)

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20
Q

VMO—VENTRAL FUEL TANK NOT EMPTY

FLAPS 0°

A

280 KIAS

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21
Q

MMO

A

Mach .80

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22
Q

MMO
(MACH TRIM SYSTEM FAIL/INOPERATIVE
AND AUTOPILOT DISENGAGED)

A

Mach .73

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23
Q

VA

A

196 KIAS

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24
Q

VFE/VFO—FLAPS 15°

A

220 KIAS

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25
Q

VFE/VFO—FLAPS 25°

A

175 KIAS

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26
Q

VFE/VFO—FLAPS 45°

A

165 KIAS

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27
Q

AIR BRAKES (FLAPS 0° ONLY)

A

No Limit

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28
Q

VLO/VLE

A

220 KIAS

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29
Q

BIRD STRIKE

NORMAL CONDITIONS

A

280 KIAS to 8,000 Feet

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30
Q

BIRD STRIKE

Cold ground soak, heat is on for required time limit

A

280 KIAS to 8,000 Feet

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31
Q

BIRD STRIKE

HEAT IS OFF <-10°C

A

257 KIAS to 8,000 Feet

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32
Q

MAXIMUM TAILWIND

TAKEOFF AND LANDING

A

10 KIAS

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33
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS

A

Max. Ramp Weight ……..28,120 lbs.
Max. T/O Weight ………..28,000 lbs.
Max. LDG Weight ………..23,350 lbs.
Min. Operating Weight………16,100 lbs.
Max. Zero Fuel Weight………18,450 lbs.
Min. Zero Fuel Weight……….14,120 lbs.
Max. Wing Fuel Out Of Balance …..500 lbs.
Wing Fuel Contents for Ventral Fuel Transfer
…3,300 lbs./side

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34
Q

MAXIMUM OPERATING ALTITUDE

A

41,000 Feet

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35
Q

MAXIMUM ALTITUDE FLAPS LOWERED
OR
GEAR EXTENDED

A

20,000 Feet

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36
Q

MAXIMUM ALTITUDE—FLAPS 15°

DESCENT AND HOLDING

A

15,000 Feet

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37
Q

MINIMUM FIELD PRESSURE ALTITUDE

FOR TAKEOFF OR LANDING

A

-2,000 Feet

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38
Q

MAXIMUM FIELD PRESSURE ALTITUDE

FOR TAKEOFF OR LANDING

A

13,000 Feet

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39
Q

MAXIMUM RAMP WEIGHT

A

28,120 Pounds

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40
Q

MAXIMUM TAKEOFF WEIGHT

A

MAXIMUM TAKEOFF WEIGHT

28,000 Pounds

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41
Q

MAXIMUM LANDING WEIGHT

A

23,350 Pounds

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42
Q

MINIMUM OPERATING WEIGHT

A

16,100 Pounds

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43
Q

MAXIMUM ZERO FUEL WEIGHT

A

18,450 Pounds

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44
Q

MINIMUM ZERO FUEL WEIGHT

A

14,120 Pounds

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45
Q

MAXIMUM BATTERY AMPS BEFORE

TAKEOFF (B1 AND B2)

A

20 AMPS

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46
Q

MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS GENERATOR

LOAD

A

300 AMPS

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47
Q

MAXIMUM TRANSIENT GENERATOR

LOAD

A

400 AMPS (2 min)

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48
Q

STARTER LIMITS

A

30 sec / 1 min-30 sec / 1 min-30 sec / 30 min

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49
Q

TAKEOFF—N1

A

100% RPM

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50
Q

TAKEOFF—N2

A

100% RPM

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51
Q

TAKEOFF—ITT

APR NOT OPERATING

A

999°C (5 min)

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52
Q

TAKEOFF (APR OPERATING)—N1

A

100% RPM

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53
Q

TAKEOFF (APR OPERATING)—N2

A

101% RPM

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54
Q

TAKEOFF (APR OPERATING)—ITT

A

1022°C (5 min)

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55
Q

MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS N1

A

100% RPM

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56
Q

MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS N2

A

100% RPM

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57
Q

MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS ITT

A

991°C

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58
Q

MAXIMUM CRUISE ITT

A

974°C
This is not a limitation, but engine life will be extended if
974°C is not exceeded during cruise operation.

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59
Q

MAXIMUM OVERSPEED N1

MAXIMUM OVERSPEED N2

A
  1. 5% N1 (10 sec)

102. 5% N2 (10 sec)

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60
Q

STARTING ITT

A

994°C

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61
Q

MAXIMUM OIL TEMPERATURE

SEA LEVEL TO 30,500 FEET

A

127°C

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62
Q

MAXIMUM OIL TEMPERATURE

ABOVE 30,500 FEET

A

140°C

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63
Q

MAXIMUM TRANSIENT OIL

TEMPERATURE

A

149°C (2 min)

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64
Q

MINIMUM OIL TEMPERATURE

STARTING

A

-40°C

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65
Q

MINIMUM OIL TEMPERATURE

TAKEOFF

A

30°C

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66
Q

OIL PRESSURE LIMIT
(TAKEOFF, MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS,
AND CLIMB)

A

65-80 PSI

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67
Q

OIL PRESSURE LIMIT

MINIMUM IDLE

A

49 PSI

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68
Q

OIL PRESSURE TRANSIENT MAXIMUM

A

100 PSI

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69
Q

OIL CONSUMPTION RATE

A

0.01 Gal Per Hour/15 Hour

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70
Q 
DIGITAL ELECTRONIC
ENGINE COMPUTER (DEEC)
A

Required for Flight

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71
Q

ENGINE SYNCHRONIZER SWITCH

A

OFF for Takeoff

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72
Q

AUTOMATIC PERFORMANCE RESERVE

APR

A

Must be armed for takeoff and landing

except for crew training only

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73
Q

WING FUEL QUANTITY

A

1,268 gal / 8,500 lb

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74
Q

VENTRAL FUEL QUANTITY

A

233 gal / 1,500 lb

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75
Q

TOTAL FUEL QUANTITY

A

1,501 gal / 10,000 lb

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76
Q

MINIMUM WING FUEL REQUIRED

WITH FUEL IN THE VENTRAL TANK

A

3450 lb / Side

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77
Q

VENTRAL TANK FUEL RESTRICTION

BEFORE FLIGHT

A

Completely Full or Empty

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78
Q

WING FUEL CONTENTS FOR

VENTRAL TANK FUEL TRANSFER

A

3300 lb / Side

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79
Q

MAXIMUM WING FUEL IMBALANCE

FLIGHT, TAKEOFF, AND LANDING

A

500 Pounds

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80
Q

MAXIMUM FUEL TEMPERATURE

A

57°C

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81
Q

AIRFRAME ICING REQUIREMENTS

A

Must be Clear of Snow, Ice,

Frost and Slush Before Takeoff

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82
Q

APPROVED DE-ICE FLUIDS

A

TKS80, R328, to Fluid Specification DTD 406B

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83
Q

ICING DETECTION LIGHT

REQUIREMENTS

A

Must be Operative Prior to Flight

Into Icing Conditions at Night

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84
Q

MAXIMUM TEMPERATURE FOR

ALL FLIGHT REGIMES

A

ISA +35°C to 25,000 ft
ISA +30°C 25,000 ft to 35,000 ft
ISA +25°C 35,000 ft to 41,000 ft

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85
Q

MINIMUM TEMPERATURE

TAKEOFF AND LANDING

A

-40°C

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86
Q

MINIMUM TEMPERATURE

ENROUTE

A

-75°C

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87
Q

MAXIMUM RUNWAY SLOPE FOR

TAKEOFF

A

2% Uphill/Downhill

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88
Q

AIR BRAKE USAGE

A

Restricted to Flaps 0°

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89
Q

CABIN HIGH DATUM SELECTION

A

Limited to Airfields Greater Than 9,000 Feet

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90
Q

INTER-COMPARTMENT DOOR POSITION

A

Open During Takeoff and Landing

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91
Q

LIFT DUMP USE

A

Only When Aircraft is on Ground

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92
Q

MAXIMUM LOAD FACTOR

FLAPS EXTENDED

A

2.0 g

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93
Q

MAXIMUM LOAD FACTOR

FLAPS RETRACTED

A

2.73 g

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94
Q

MAXIMUM PRESSURE

DIFFERENTIAL

A

8.55 PSI

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95
Q

REJECTED TAKEOFF = OR < 90 KIAS

SINGLE REJECTION WAITING PERIOD

A

25 minutes

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96
Q

REJECTED TAKEOFF = OR < 90 KIAS
(TWO OR MORE REJECTIONS
WAITING PERIOD)

A

45 minutes

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97
Q

REJECTED TAKEOFF

> 90 KIAS REQUIREMENT

A

Brake Inspection

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98
Q

APU

NORMAL OPERATION

A

100%

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99
Q

APU

Max EGT

A

1350°F

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100
Q

APU

Max Operating Altitude

A

0-30,000 ft Pressure Altitude

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101
Q

APU

Max Starting Altitude

A

0-20,000 ft Pressure Altitude

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102
Q

APU
STARTER LIMITS
Maximum Transient EGT

A

15 Seconds Maximum Duration…. 1400°F to 1500°F

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103
Q

APU
STARTING CYCLE LIMITS
Hung Start Duration

A

Hung Start Duration
Above 50% and below 95% RPM…. 10 Second Maximum
Shutdown the APU if the READY TO LOAD light does not
illuminate within 60 seconds of start.

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104
Q

APU

STARTER CYCLE LIMITS

A

1st Start Attempt …………. 30 Seconds ON/3 Minutes OFF
2nd Start Attempt ………… 30 Seconds ON/3 Minutes OFF
3rd Start Attempt……….. 30 Seconds ON/30 Minutes OFF

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105
Q

APU

MAX GENERATOR LOAD

A

The Maximum Transient Generator Load May Exceed
Maximum Continuous Load:
Maximum Continuous Operation ……………………………. 0.80
Transient Operation ………………………….. 1.2 < 10 Seconds

106
Q

APU

COMBINED BLEED AIR OPERATIONS

A

Simultaneous operation of APU bleed air and
main engine bleed air is not permitted. Both systems may
be operated briefly (1 minute maximum) during change over
from one system to the other.

107
Q

APU
OPERATION IN KNOWN ICING
CONDITIONS

A

Operation in Known Icing Conditions:
Flight operations of the APU are not approved when the
airplane is in icing conditions.
Ground De-Icing Procedures:
The APU must be shut down during ground de-icing
operations of the airplane.

108
Q

APU OPERATION DURING AIRPLANE

REFUELING

A

Airplane refueling with the APU running is limited to center point refuelonly. Gravity wing refueling is prohibited with the APU running. Starting of the APU while refueling is in progress is prohibited. Airplane refueling with the APU running is prohibited if the ambient temperature is above 40° C or when the airplane contains JP4 or is being refueled with JP4. Airplane boost pumps must be OFF prior to commencing refueling operations.

109
Q

When the airplane is static on a standard day at sea level, each engine develops

A

4,660 Lbs of thrust

110
Q

To facilitate an accurate setting of climb power

A

APR light goes out

111
Q

The powerplant clasification of the Hawker 900XP series airplane is

A

Two-Spool turbo-fan

112
Q

Do not operate APU bleed air and main engine bleed air simultaneously for more then:

A

one minute

113
Q

Normal APU shut-down is accomplished by:

A

Depressing the stop switch

114
Q

With both boost pumps inop. will fuel gravity transfer?

A

Yes

115
Q

The aircraft fuel system accepts a maximum refueling supply pressure of:

A

50 PSI

116
Q

Whenever the ventral tank contains fuel, a low VMO horn will sound whenever aircraft speed exceeds

A

280 KIAS

117
Q

The number of fuel drains in the fuel system is:

A

5

118
Q

All fuel annunciators and contents indicators are supplied by what bus bars:

A

PE, Batt 1, and or PS2

119
Q

With the airplane on the ground and the air-conditioning system on, the PRESSN switch prevents cabin pressurization when in the:

A

a. ON position

120
Q

If the pressuization system fails, excessive cabin pressure is prevented by the:

A

a. Outflow Safety Vavle

121
Q

The Maximum allowable negative cabin Differential pressure is:

A

a. 0.5

122
Q

The TKS Fluid is stored in a tank that holds

A

c. 10 Gal

123
Q

How many minuets does the TKS Fluid provide protection from ice:

A

b. 108 min

124
Q

The full and empty indicator located on the co-pilots side console for the TKS system reads full at 8.25 Gal and empty when there is still how many min remaining for icing protection:

A

c. 12 min

125
Q

The following components is are anti iced by the use of hot bleed air;

c. Engine inlet cowling

A

c. Engine Inlet cowling

126
Q

What component my fail to operate correctly when the left Pitot-Heat is INOP

A

ADC No.1

127
Q

The ENG 1 (or 2) A/ICE annunciator (when illuminated) indicates;

A

That anti-icing pressure is not available at sufficient pressure.

128
Q

The PITOT AMPS ammeter checks amperage of?

A

The left or right pitot and vane heat elements (as selected)

129
Q

What is the the total oil capacity of the system?

A

25 US Pints

130
Q

What is the total oil capacity of the oil tank

A

13.2 US Pints

131
Q

When should the oil level of the engine be checked by?

A

Within 15 Min of engine shutdown

132
Q

Reverse Thrust must be reduced to idle by how may KTS?

A

50 Kts

133
Q

The arm light will illuminate for the thrust reverser’s provided the 3 following item are met:

A
  1. Weight on wheels
  2. Throttle lever is in the idle position
  3. Hydralic pressure is available (minimum 400 PSI)
134
Q

The maximum oil pressure for power at or above idle without a time limit is:

A

80 PSI

135
Q

The maximum inter-turbine temperature for engine starting is

A

994 c

136
Q

The aircraft fuel system excepts a maximum refueling supply pressure of:

A

50 psi

137
Q

Should both electric fuel boost pumps fail - fuel cannot be tranferred from the ventral tank. Should one fuel boost pump fail - fuel transfer time to the wing tank containing the fuel pump my increase to more then how many min?

A

18 Min

138
Q

The elevator trim tabs can be actuated:

A

Mechanically and electrically

139
Q

The purpose of the rudder bias system is

A

To automatically counteract asymetrical thrust due to engine failure

140
Q

If takeoff is attempted with the aileron/elevator gust lock engaged

A

only one throttle can be advanced to full thrust

141
Q

The guard is removed from the pitch trim switch

A

During testing, to ascertain that trimming cannot be accomplished with one element of the switch

142
Q

The flight control surfaces that are hydraulically actuated are:

A

Flaps and Airbrake’s

143
Q

Asymmetrical flap operation is prevented by:

A

A synchronizing cable arrangement that shut off the flap unit cutoff valve, stopping the flaps

144
Q

The purpose of the lift dump is:

A

To increase drag and decrease lift on the ground

145
Q

The stick shaker system is a warning system or a identification system:

A

Warning system

146
Q

The stick pusher system is a warning system or a identification system:

A

Identification system

147
Q

Is it possible for the stick pusher to activate prior to the stick shaker:

A

No

148
Q

When the elevator is out of trim prior to takeoff a warning is given by:

A

illuminating the “ELEV/AIL TRIM” annunciator on the MWS panel.

149
Q

Annunciator: “APU FIRE” cause

A

Fire in APU

150
Q

Annunciator: REVERSER

A

Ground-Rudder bias is not inhibited Flight- auto stow is activated

151
Q

Annunciator: MACH TRIM FAIL

A

Restrict speed to 0.73

152
Q

Annunciator: ENG 1 FIRE

A

A fire or overheat condition is detected for indicated engine

153
Q

Annunciator: HP AIR 1 OVHT

A

Engine bleed air is excessive

154
Q

Annunciator: CABIN ALTITUDE

A

Cabin altitude has reached 9,300 +/- 300 ft or 14,000 feet +/- 300 if high datum is selected

155
Q

Annunciator: ELEV/AIL TRIM

A

mistrimmed prior to takoff

156
Q

Annunciator: HYD/1 LO PRESS

A

Hydraulic pump pressure is less then 1500 psi or less

157
Q

Annunciator: MAIN AIR VALVE 1

A

The indicated main bleed air vavle is not in the selected position(time delay of 50 sec) or the valve is open while the plan is on the ground

158
Q

Annunciator: AUX HYD LO LEVEL

A

The aux hydraulic tank is not full

159
Q

Annunciator: ENG 1 CMPTER

A

Steady light indicates the associated fuel computer has failed

160
Q

Annunciator: EMER BRK LO PRESS

A

The emergency brake accumulator pressure is 2,250 or less

161
Q

Annunciator: ENG 1 A/ICE

A

The indicated engine’s air is not available for anti-icing

162
Q

Annunciator: DUCT OVHT

A

An overheat condition exists in the air conditioning ducts (116 c)

163
Q

Annunciator: RUDDER BIAS

A

one or both rudder bais switches are in the off position

164
Q

Annunciator: ENG 2 CMPTER MM

A

Manual mode failure or switch off or over speed protection selected

165
Q

The bus bar that powers the master warning system is?

A

The “PE” bus

166
Q

The MWS annunciators can be dimmed by:

A

Pressing the face of either red MWS glareshield annunciator

167
Q

To bypass the DIM circuit:

A

Position the DIM OVRD switch to NORM

168
Q

The DC system consists of:

A

2 28-volt 300 amp continuous, 400-amp for 2 min brush type starters.

169
Q

List the 5 DC buses:

A

PS1, PS2, PE, PE2, & Starter Bus

170
Q

Windshield and side window heat are supplied by:

A

Two wild frequency alternators

171
Q

How many inverters are there and what are there specification:

A

2 Single-phase, 115-volt, 400-hz installed in rear equipment bay.

172
Q

AC buses are prefixed with an “X” what are they and will one inverter cover both buses?

A

N1 inverter feeds XS1, N2 inverter feeds XS2, either enverted can feed either buss and will automatically changeover if one inverter fails.

173
Q

What is the load shed side during a duel Gen failure?

A

The right side…PS2

174
Q

When do the upper static port receive PWR?

A

When the aircraft is off the deck

175
Q

What do white backed circuit breakers indicate:

A

That they have no other way to be shut-off

176
Q

What is the number of the circuit breaker to cancel a runaway trim after you have turned over control of aircraft.

A

B-10

177
Q

How many pints of hydraulic fluid is held in the Emer. Hydraulic reservoir?

A

6 Pints

178
Q

What system does the rudder boost system utilize:

A

Pneumatic system.

179
Q

List the 5 functions of the HP Cock

A
  1. Sets idle start
  2. Opens the hydraulic valve
  3. Opens Fuel
  4. Initiates the start sequence
  5. Release the PWR lever

SOSIR

180
Q

What is the 10 sec. 10 degrees C rule for engine anti-ice?

A

If the OAT is greater then 10 Degrees C do not test engine anti-ice for longer then 10 sec.

181
Q

Do not turn of the “DEEC” before N2 reaches;

A

Zero

182
Q

The utilize the GPU for all functions requiring power on the Hawker the GPU must provide what 3 settings?

A
  1. 28 volts
  2. 1500 amps
  3. with the current limiter set to 1100 amps
183
Q

What is the maximum suction pressure for de-fueling?

A

11 PSI

184
Q

With both boost pumps inoperative:

A

Ventral Tank fuel cannot be tranferred

185
Q

When the ventral tank is full a lox VMO horn will sound whenever aircraft speed exceeds:

A

280 KTS

186
Q

How is the P2 T2 prob heated?

A

Electrically heated with engine anti-ice selected on.

187
Q

How is the oil filter bypass checked?

A

In the rear equipment bay by looking for a change from a dark color to a lighter colored disk indication on the white maintenance box.

188
Q

How many pounds of thrust does the engine develop

A

4,660 lbs of thrust

189
Q

The primary over-speed protection device is:

A

The mechanical governor in the FCU

190
Q

The maximum HP rotor (N2) over-speed is:

A

102.5% for 10 sec

191
Q

Max oil pressure without time limit:

A

80 PSI

192
Q

If the MWS “Reverser” light illuminates during the deploy cycle it indicates:

A

The the rudder bias system is not inhibited

193
Q

At what time does the ultimate over-speed - controlled by the DEEC’s kick in:

A

at 107 of N1, and 109 of N2

194
Q

When should you turn off the DEEC’s Computer SW (N1 speed rotation)

A

Zero

195
Q

The APR systen is available:

A

To the engine with an operative computer.

196
Q

There are two Cruise ITT’s what are they:

A
  1. 991 and

2. 974

197
Q

Max ITT for engine start is:

A

994

198
Q

Fire squib is always powered by bus:

A

PE Bus

199
Q

Fire squib No 2 is always powered by:

A

PS2 Bus

200
Q

How many lights will you see on a fire panel check and when should you check the fire bell?

A

Six lights and always check the bell last.

201
Q

engine fire extinguisher bottles are located:

A

In the rear equipment bay

202
Q

For a fire in the APU

A

a switch on the APU control panel controls the firing of a separate fire extinguisher

203
Q

An exterior must also include checking the:

A

Discharge indicators

204
Q

The engine fire bottles are discharged as follows:

A

When a visual fire warning appears, discharge shot one first. If necessary discharge shot 2

205
Q

What fire Zone does all the agent discharge to from either no 1 or no 2 fire bottle

A

Zone 1

206
Q

The APU fire test switch listed “APU Fire” tests:

A

The light and the bells and four overheat detector switches.

207
Q

How many thermal switches are located in the rear equipment bay?

A

Six thermal sensors.

208
Q

“Cabin Altitude” light come on at:

A

9,300, or 14,000 if high datum is selected

209
Q

The Main Air Valve” 1 annunciator comes on in flight when the valve takes more then:

A

50 seconds to open.

210
Q

What is the position of the switch on the Main air valves when selected to (what power is applied to the pressure switch and position)

A

Open position

211
Q

The TKS fluid supply last for approximately:

A

108 Min.

212
Q

The airframe inti-iceing system should:

A

Be primed before each flight

213
Q

The following Ice Protection switches shall always be switched on before takeoff and remain on throughout the flight:

A

Pitot/Vane Heat and Screen Heat.

214
Q

The Rudder Bias annunciator goes out when:

A

The rudder bias switches are on

215
Q

Stick pusher can be canceled by depressing:

A

Both channel one and channel two at the same time

216
Q

In the stall warning and identification system

A

Flap position is integrated with the angle of attack signals to determine critical angle of attack of the wing

217
Q

Stall identification is provided by the:

A

Stick Pusher

218
Q

Stall warning is provided by the

A

Stick Shaker

219
Q

The servo tab on the left aileron provide two functions:

A
  1. Aid the aileron in moving in the desired direction

2. Functions as a trim tab

220
Q

What does the caution note mean on the checklist?

A

That if ignored potential damage my occur

221
Q

What action is required when a Red Light is seen in the cockpit

A

Immediate Pilot Action

222
Q

When the Pin is removed from the nose wheel what is it’s castering range?

A

360 Degrees

223
Q

What do the two engine driven 208 Volt Alternators PWR

A

Both A & B screens, and stall vane heating. “Frequency Wild” Three Phase

224
Q

The GCU stabilizes the Bus bar at what voltage:

A

28.5 volts

225
Q

What would it mean if you see both the “Main Batt Bus” light illuminate:

A

That you where starting an engine

226
Q

What are the two types of engine starts

A

External and Internal

227
Q

At what voltage does the GCU open the bus tie;

A

24 1/2 low, and 29 1/2 high

228
Q

Which lights are hot wired

A

Entrance Light, and Bear Bay light

229
Q

Boost pumps derive normal PWR from PS1 & PS2 and emergency PWR from;

A

PE Bus

230
Q

The pressure Refueling Port is located;

A

Right rear fuselage

231
Q

How many water drains are located in the fuel tank

A

5

232
Q

The PWR source for the inverters are from PS1 & PS2 so if you lose a bus you lose a:

A

Inverter

233
Q

What is the Max Tire Speed on most tires (check this on the tire itself):

A

210 KTS

234
Q

Where is the escape hatch located?

A

Right side of aircraft four windows back

235
Q

The “Batt Isolate switch” does what:

A

Removes Batt from Charge

236
Q

Emergency light is always kept in what position:

A

Armed

237
Q

Loss of power to the PE Bus turns on the

A

Emergency Lights

238
Q

What Batt powers the emergency bus

A

Batt No. 5

239
Q

What Batt powers the ESIS

A

Batt No. 6

240
Q

What Batt powers the Communication and Navigation equipment

A

Batt No. 3 & 4

241
Q

Master Lt switch turns on;

A

All Lights

242
Q

Primary Overspeed is accomplished by the:

A

FCU

243
Q

“Ultimate Over-speed” Protection is accomplished by the:

A

“DEEC’s”

244
Q

Landing with light breaking my be repeated at interval of not less then:

A

15 Min

245
Q

When conducting training in the aircraft the landing gear should be extended as long as possible, and nevr less then;

A

5 Min

246
Q

The flight control surfaces that are hydraulically actuated are:

A

Flaps and Airbrakes

247
Q

Nosewheel steering with the gear retracted is prevented by:

A

A mechanically actuated hydraulic shutoff valve

248
Q

How much Hydraulic fluid is stored in the main HYD reservoir:

A

2 1/2 Gal.

249
Q

The Wing Anti-Ice system should be used during every flight, what is the rule to follow?

A

2 Min prior to taxi, 30 sec in the climb, and 2 min proir to top of decent = 4 1/2 min every flight!

250
Q

List the five functions of the start switch

A
  1. Sets the idle speed
  2. Unlocks the PWR lever.
  3. Opens fuel VLV
  4. Open Hydraulic VLV
  5. Initiates the start sequence
251
Q

List the seven hydraulic systems

A
  1. Landing Gear
  2. Air brakes
  3. Stick Shaker
  4. Thrust reversers
  5. Normal Brakes
  6. Nosewheel Steering
  7. Flaps

Memory Aid: LAST- NNF

252
Q

Airframe Deice Pump & Chime are powered by what bus?

A
  1. The PS2 Bus Bar
253
Q

The Anti-Ice LO QTY light comes on with how much TKS fluid remaining?

A

30 Min remaining

254
Q

What position does the anti-ice switch de-energize to?

A

The open position

255
Q

The safety valve on the outflow valve system prevents pressure build up in excess of ?

A

8.6 to 8.8 PSI

256
Q

If both HYD pumps fail or system fluid is lost both pressure lights will come on, but the pressure indicator will show? Why?

A

2300 PSI, because of trapped pressure from the pressure maintaining valve. The landing gear and flaps will be lowered by the aux. hydraulic system.

257
Q

How much fuel is required in each wing tank if the ventral tank is full?

A

1000 lbs each wing.

258
Q

Name the 4 things on the No. 1 Batt.

A
  1. Entry Light
  2. Fuel Panel
  3. Rear Bay Light
  4. Volt Meter
259
Q

The Anti-Ice Pump for the TKS fluid pumps at in increased for the first Min. How much more?

A

150% More

260
Q

What are the 4 things the Pitot-Vane Heat switches Power.

A
  1. Vanes
  2. Pitot Tubes
  3. Muffs
  4. Upper Static Ports
  5. Rosemont Prob
261
Q

How do you check the Fire Extinguisher Disks?

A

It should be missing or have a hole in it from a discharge of the Haylon.

262
Q

How do the main air valves close

A

The No 1 takes 20 sec to close, and the No 2 doesn’t do anything for 30 sec. then closes in 1 sec.

263
Q

The full flow relief valve on the hydraulic system will relieve pressure when?

A

At 40000 PSI

From Flashcardlet (2 decks)

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