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HEMATOLOGY > HEMA PRELIMS > Flashcards

HEMA PRELIMS Flashcards

1
Q

Normal marrow cell that is morphologically
confused with plasma cell.
A. Osteoclast
B. Osteoblast
C. Mast cell
D. Macrophages

A

B. Osteoblast

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2
Q

Normal reference range of Fat and
Perivascular layer of the aspirated bone
marrow.
A. 1-3 %
B. 3-5 %
C. 6-8 %
D. 8-10 %

A

A. 1-3 %

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3
Q

Which of the following stains is used for
determining the iron store in the bone
marrow?
A. PAS stain
B. Pearl’s stain
C. TRAP
D. Chloroacetate esterase

A

B. Pearl’s stain

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4
Q

What is the ideal fixative used for bone
marrow biopsy?
A. 80% Alcohol
B. 5-10% formalin
C. Zenker’s fluid
D. B and C

A

D. B and C

5-10% formalin and Zenker’s fluid

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5
Q

What reagent is used for particle aggregates
preparation in bone marrow evaluation?
A. 0.025 M CaCl2
B. 0.015 M CaCl2
C. 0.030 M CaCl2
D. 0.035 M CaCl2

A

B. 0.015 M CaCl2

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6
Q

Which of the following will give a decrease
M:E ratio?
1. Leukemia 3. Aplastic Bone Marrow
2. Infection 4. Leukemoid reaction
A. 1,2
B. 3.4
C. 4
D. 3

A

D. 3. Aplastic Bone Marrow

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7
Q

Which of the following will give an increase
M/E layer?
1. Polycythemia vera 3. Fanconi’s
anemia
2. CML 4. Leukemoid rx
A. 1,2
B. 2,4
C. 1,2,4
D. 1,2,3

A

C. 1,2,4

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8
Q

If the fat end perivascular layer is 8% and the
M:E layer is 2% the bone marrow is said to
be:
A. Normocellular
B. Hypocellular
C. Hypercellular
D. Slightly hypercellular

A

B. Hypocellular

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9
Q

Which of the following will have a decrease
M:E ratio?
A. Normoblastic hyperplasia
B. Leukemoid reaction
C. Leukemia
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

A. Normoblastic hyperplasia

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10
Q

Which of the following will have an increase
M:E ratio?
A. Normoblastic hyperplasia
B. Leukemoid reaction
C. Aplastic anemia
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

B. Leukemoid reaction

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11
Q

Which of the following stains can
differentiate CML from leukemoid reaction
A. TRAP stain
B. NBT stain
C. Romanowsky stain
D. LAP stain
E. Esterase stain

A

D. LAP stain

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12
Q

The co-factor needed to reduce the ferric
iron to ferrous state is _______.
A. NADPH
B. NADH
C. NADP+
D. NAD+

A

B. NADH

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13
Q

Deficiency of G-6-PD enzyme will result to:
A. Methemoglobin formation
B. Heinz body formation
C. Sperocytosis
D. No ATP production

A

B. Heinz body formation

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14
Q

Which among the components of the red cell
membrane proteins create a negative cloud
around the membrane which is known as
ZETA potential?
A. Spectrin
B. Ankyrin
C. Sialic acid
D. Band 5

A

C. Sialic acid

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15
Q

Deficiency of this enzyme will eventually
result to methemoglobin formation
A. Methemoglobin reductase
B. G-6-PD
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Methemoglobin reductase

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16
Q

Which of the ff events will NOT usually
happen to reduce hypoxia (low CO2 in
tissue)?
A. Increasing 2,3 DPG labels
B. More EPO is released
C. The O2 dissociation curve shifts to the
right
D. The O2 dissociation curve shifts to the
left

A

D. The O2 dissociation curve shifts to the
left

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17
Q

Which of the following will NOT commonly
occur during Acidosis?
A. Shifting of curve to the right
B. Increase O2 uptake
C. H+ ion uptake by red cells
D. Increase oxygenation to the tissue

A

C. H+ ion uptake by red cells

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18
Q

High levels of CO2 in blood, like in
hypoventilation, will lead to the following
event, EXCEPT:
A. The Hgb becomes a strong base
B. The curve shifts to the left
C. Haldane effect
D. More Hgb binds with H+ ions

A

D. More Hgb binds with H+ ions

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19
Q

The primary raw material needed for
protoporphyrin IX production:
A. Glycine
B. Succinyl Co-A
C. Both
D. Neither

A

C. Both
Glycine and Succinyl Co-A

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20
Q

The major protein that transports iron;
A. Ferritin
B. Transferrin
C. Transcobalamin
D. Ceroluplasmin

A

B. Transferrin

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21
Q

Production of EPO is regulated by:
A. Hb O2 saturation
B. 2,3 DPG levels
C. Metabolic rate
D. A and B
E. A,B and C

A

E. A,B and C

  • Hb O2 saturation
  • 2,3 DPG levels
  • Metabolic rate
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22
Q

True about hemoglobin Acid-Base balance
A. Nonoxygenated Hgb is a strong acid
B. Carbonic anhydrase is responsible for
carbonic acid synthesis
C. Chloride diffuses out the RBC when
bicarbonates build up within RBC
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

E. A,B,C

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23
Q

The gene that codes for alpha globin chain
formation is located at chromosome #:
A. 1
B. 11
C. 16
D. 9

A

C. 16

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24
Q

The Hgb A2 is composed of:
A. Alpha and beta chains
B. Alpha and delta
C. Alpha and gamma
D. Alpha and zeta

A

B. Alpha and delta

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25
Q

The enzyme responsible for inserting ferric
iron into the heme ring:
A. Diaphorase
B. Ferrochelatase
C. Both
D. Neither

A

B. Ferrochelatase

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26
Q

Which of the following statement is False?
A. When the hemoglobin is oxygenated it
becomes a strong acid.
B. The basic property of the Hgb causes
the conversion of carbonic acid to water
and CO2.
C. The H2CO3 formation is enhance by
carbonic anhydrase action
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

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27
Q

Which of the following statement is True?
A. Neuraminic acid contributes to the
negativity of the RBC membrane
B. About 85% of CO2 in carried in the lungs
in the form of plasma bicarbonate.
C. Nonoxygenated Hb has lesser affinity
with CO2 that ocygenated Hb.
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

B. About 85% of CO2 in carried in the lungs
in the form of plasma bicarbonate.

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28
Q

About how many % of CO2 transported by
Hb to from carbaminohemoglobin during?
A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5

A

D. 5

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29
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT
true regarding Hgb formation
A. The heme molecules bind in the crevice
between E and D helices of Hgb
molecule.
B. 2,3 DPG is inserted last in the Hgb
molecule.
C. The myoglobin has to heme molecule
attached to it
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

A. The heme molecules bind in the crevice
between E and D helices of Hgb
molecule.

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30
Q

The bone marrow assumes the
responsibility of blood cell production during
the ___ of gestation.
A. 150th day of gestation
B. 120th day
C. 110th day
D. 100th day

A

B. 120th day

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31
Q

What are the dimer protein present in the
Fetal hemoglobin (HgbF)?
A. 2į 2Ɛ
B. 2𝛂 2𝛄
C. 2β 2𝛄
D. 2𝛄 2�

A

B. 2𝛂 2y

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32
Q

The delta chain differs from the beta chain
by how many amino acids?
A. 36
B. 20
C. 10
D. 30

A

C. 10

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33
Q

Globin chain/s that is/are present during the
first 3 month of embryonic life:
A. Alpha
B. Epsilon
C. Beta
D. A and C

A

B. Epsilon

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34
Q

Stored iron is usually in the form of ferritin
which is composed of:
A. Ferrous and apoferritin
B. Ferrous and transferrin
C. Ferric and apoferritin
D. A and B

A

C. Ferric and apoferritin

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35
Q

In the formation of heme; glycine must be
acted upon by ____ to from ______.
A. 𝛂 - ALA; porphobilinogen
B. succinyl-CoA; urophorphyrinogen III
C. succinyl-CoA; 𝛂 - ALA
D. Porphobilinogen; protophorphrin IX

A

C. succinyl-CoA; 𝛂 - ALA

36
Q

The enzyme responsible for conversion of
porphobilinogen to urophorphyrinogen III
A. Urophorphyrinogen synthase
B. Urophorphyrinogen decarboxylase
C. alpha-ALA synthase
D. None of the above

A

A. Urophorphyrinogen synthase

37
Q

If the Hgb is on its T form, the affinity of O2
with Hgb is said to be _______.
A. Increased
B. Strongly increased
C. Decreased
D. In moderation

A

C. Decreased

38
Q

The immediate precursor cell of diffusely
basophilic erythtrocyte?
A. Reticulocyte
B. Metarubricyte
C. Basophilic erythroblast
D. Rubricyte

A

C. Basophilic erythroblast

39
Q

The stage of red cell maturation where the
Hgb is admixed with the basophilic property
of the cytoplasm, giving red-blue color:
A. Rubricyte
B. Prorubriblast
C. Metarubricyte
D. None

A

A. Rubricyte

40
Q

The chromatin materials are free in the
nuleoplasm usually seen on what stage of
red cell maturation?
A. Rubriblast
B. Proerythroblast
C. Metarubricyte
D. None

A

A. Rubriblast

41
Q

The reticulocyte resides for how many days
in the bone marrow before it will gain exit
and goes to the circulation?
A. 3-4 days
B. 3 days
C. 5 days
D. 2 days

A

D. 2 days

42
Q

The RBC precursor cell that usually
mistaken with Myeloblast stage:
A. Rubriblast
B. Prorubricyte
C. Metarubricyte
D. reticulocyte

A

A. Rubriblast

43
Q

How many basophilic normoblast are
formed after its immediate precursor
divides?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 8
D. 16

A

B. 2

44
Q

A red cell precursor that divides during
erythropoiesis:
A. Prorubricyte
B. Basophilic normoblast
C. metarubricyte
D. B and C

A

A. Prorubricyte

45
Q

Extrusion of nucleus happens during the
stageS same choices in #53. D
The chromatin materials show slight
compactness and the nucleoli is not
anymore present.
A. Metarubricyte
B. Late rubricyte
C. Pronormoblast
D. Basophilic erythroblast

A

D. Basophilic erythroblast

46
Q

The cytoplasm shows blue-gray-violet color:
EXCEPT:
A. Metarubricyte
B. Late rubricyte
C. Orthochromatophilic erythroblast
D. none

A

D. none

47
Q

FALSE about spectrin protein
A. It is a part of peripheral blood
B. Each segment are bound by actin
C. Also known as band 1 and 2
D. A part of integral protein

A

D. A part of integral protein

48
Q

Which of the ff contributes to the regulation
of the membrane deformability?
A. Cholesterol
B. Peripheral proteins
C. Sialic acid
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

E. A,B,C

49
Q

The site of adult erythropoiesis which is
used for Bone marrow collection:
A. Skull
B. Sternum
C. Ribs
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

B. Sternum

50
Q

How many cell division took place to
produce 16 mature red cells?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
D. Five

A

B. Four

51
Q

The nucleus occupies at least 75% of the
entire cell:
A. Prorubricyte
B. Basophilic normoblast
C. Both
D. Neither

A

C. Both

52
Q

The parachromatin is first seen on this
stage:
A. Rubriblast
B. Basophilic erythroblast
C. Metarubricyte
D. None

A

B. Basophilic erythroblast

53
Q

What is the rationale why the blue tube is
filled first with blood before the green tube?
A. To prevent hemodilution of blood
sample
B. To ensure that hemolysis will not occur
C. To prevent the possible error in
coagulation studies
D. To prevent the possible error in gas
analysis

A

C. To prevent the possible error in
coagulation studies

54
Q

The reason why should a phlebotomist not
to prolong the application of the tourniquet:
A. To prevent possible increase WBC count
B. To prevent RBC lysis
C. To ensure blood will be free from
possible tissue fluid contamination
D. All of them

A

D. All of them

55
Q

Anticoagulant with anti-thrombin activity:
A. EDTA
B. Sodium citrate
C. Heparin
D. Double oxalate

A

C. Heparin

56
Q

Blood capillary is a mixture of:
A. Arterial venous blood and tissue fluid
B. Arterial blood and tissue fluid only
C. Venous blood and tissue fluid only
D. Arterial and venous blood only

A

A. Arterial venous blood and tissue fluid

57
Q

The following statements are TRUE
regarding venipuncture EXCEPT:
A. Avoid areas with hematomas, burns,
scars, and edema
B. Cephalic vein is the ideal site for
puncture
C. If both arms are with IV line, draw blood
below the IV site after infusion was
stopped for 120 secs
D. Tourniquet application should be applied
no longer than 2mins

A

B. Cephalic vein is the ideal site for
puncture

58
Q

Rearrange the manner of draw if multiple
test such as CBC, FBS, PTT and serum
enzyme test should be done:
A. Red,gray,lavender,blue,green
B. Red,blue,lavender,gray
C. Blue,red,green,lavender,gray
D. Red,blue,green,gray

A

B. Red,blue,lavender,gray

59
Q

What method of blood collection is used for small, fragile or damaged veins that easily collapse?
A. Evacuated tube system
B. Syringe method
C. Butterfly infusion set
D. All

A

C. Butterfly infusion set

60
Q

TRUE regarding EDTA as anticoagulant
1. The optimal concentration is 1.25 mg/ml
2. Preserves cellular morphology when
blood smears are made 24 within 2
hours
3. Inhibits coagulation by chelation
4. Prevents platelet aggregation, thus is
preferred for platelet count
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2 and 4

A

B. 2,3,4

61
Q

TRUE about Mesoblastic period:
A. It begins as early as 9-10 days of
gestation
B. The primitive erythroblast are large and
cannot extrude the nucleus
C. Globin chains produces are beta,alpha
and epsilon
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

B. The primitive erythroblast are large and
cannot extrude the nucleus

62
Q

The hepatic period of hematopoiesis begins at
A. 5th and 6th week of gestation
B. 3rd week of gestation
C. Before 120 days of gestation
D. A and C
E. None of them

A

A. 5th and 6th week of gestation

63
Q

Which of the following statements pertaining to medullary period of hematopoiesis?
A. Liver and spleen contributes to blood
cell production
B. It usually starts 5th month of gestation
C. The bone marrow becomes the normal
site of blood production after 3 weeks
postpartum
D. A and C
E. A,B,C

A

B. It usually starts 5th month of gestation

64
Q

What globin chains do the Gower I
haemoglobin is made of?
A. Gamma and epsilon
B. Alpha and epsilon
C. Alpha and beta
D. None of them

A

D. None of them

65
Q

False about myeloid period of
hematopoiesis:
A. It begins at 5th and 6th week of gestation
B. Liver is the major site of blood cell
production
C. Hgb A1 gradually increases in
concentration during this period
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

D. A and B

66
Q

Which of the following stimulates the CFUE?
A. EPO
B. IL-4
C. IL-9
D. CFU-Meg
E. A and C

A

A. EPO

67
Q

Which of the following is true regarding
erythrocyte maturation?
A. There are four cell division takes place
from blast to mature RBC
B. RBC maturation takes place
approximately 72 hrs
C. Multiple nuclei are present in rubriblast
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

C. Multiple nuclei are present in rubriblast

68
Q

High levels of CO2 in blood, like in
hypoventilation, will lead to the following
events EXCEPT,
A. The high Hgb becomes a strong base
B. The curve shifts to the left
C. Haldene effect
D. More Hgb binds with H+ ions

A

B. The curve shifts to the left

69
Q

Which of the following will make the oxygen curve to shift towards left?
A. Presence of Hgb M
B. Methmoglobin formation
C. Hyperthermia
D. A and B
E. None

A

D. A and B

70
Q

Which of the following will make the oxygen curve shift to the right?
A. The production of 2,3,DPG is dictated or
influenced by tissue hypoxia
B. The T-form of Hgb mean that the Hgb is
fully oxygenated
C. 50% oxygen saturation happens if the
pO2 mmHg is at 26.6
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

C. 50% oxygen saturation happens if the
pO2 mmHg is at 26.6

71
Q

Which of the following is acceptable in
handling the specimen for Hematology
tests?
A. Citrated tube is used for PTT studies and EOFT
B. Blood with EDTA stored >3 hrs at room
temp prior testing
C. 3-5 tubes inversion is done on blue tube for complete mixing of blood and
anticoagulant
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

72
Q

The reason why we should use 3.2% sodium citrate for coagulation studies in case the patient has polycythemia?
A. Prevent excess Calcium in the blood
sample
B. Prevent excess citrate in the blood
sample
C. Prevent excess plasma in the blood
sample
D. A and C
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

73
Q

Which of the following action needs
correction during blood collection
procedure?
A. The IV fluid infusion was stopped for 3
mins before collecting blood specimen
B. The EDTA was filled first with blood
followed by the red tube during capillary
blood collection
C. The standard skin wound depth created
was approximately 2 mm x 2.3 in heel
puncture
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

74
Q

Which of the following cells are found in the
marginal zone of the white pulp of the
spleen?
A. B cells
B. Macrophage
C. Metamyelocyte
D. B and C
E. A,B,C

A

D. B and C
Macrophage and Metamyelocyte

75
Q

Which of the following statement/s is/are
TRUE?
A. Pormegakaryocte doesn’t have
cytoplasmic granules
B. EDTA anticoagulant may cause platelet
satellitism on some blood specimen
C. Heinz bodies formation is usually caused
by enzyme defect on EMp pathway
D. A and B
E. A,B,C

A

E. A,B,C

76
Q

What is the ideal concentration of citrate
used for clotting time tests?
A. 0.109M
B. 0.110M
C. 0.129M
D. 0.139M

A

A. 0.109M

77
Q

The following drugs can influence the
formation of Heinz bodies in the RBC ,
EXCEPT?
A. Streptomycin
B. Aspirin
C. Sulfonamides
D. Nitrofuran

A

B. Aspirin

78
Q

T OR F
In heme synthesis, the ferric iron is inserted to the ring by ferrochelatase AND it usually happen outside the mitochondria

A

TRUE

79
Q

T OR F
The particle aggregates can be used for the study of bone marrow architecture AND its preparation is done by adding 0.15 CaCl2 to the aspirated BM liquid

A

FALSE

80
Q

T OR F
Promyelocyte has bluish red cytoplasm
AND it has red blue granules.

A

TRUE

81
Q

T OR F
Monocyte has a grayish color of the
cytoplasm WHILE neutrophil has pinkish tan cytoplasm due to its granules.

A

TRUE

82
Q

T OR F
The fetal Hgb is composed of an alpha and a beta chain AND it is usually produced after 3rd month of gestation

A

FALSE

83
Q

T OR F
The anticoagulant used for platelet count is EDTA
BUT
this cannot be used for blood smear
preparation.

A

first statement is true second is false

83
Q

T OR F
A LAP stain is used to differentiate kinds of leukemia
AND
it is used to differentiate
leukemia from leukemoid reaction

A

First is false and second is true

84
Q

T OR F
In EMP, the production of 2,3 DPG will
result to produce efficient ATP production
WHILE a decrease of 2,3 DPG will allow the
shifting of the dissociation curve to the left

A

TRUE

85
Q

T OR F
The RES destroy senile Red cell by
intravascular hemolysis
AND
the major sire of red cell killing is the liverM 100. About 1-3% of iron in hemoglobin is on its ferric state AND non-reduction of this will lead
to HEINZ bodies formation

A

First statement is true and second is false

HEMATOLOGY (5 decks)

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