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PARA RATIO > HEMA RATIO > Flashcards

HEMA RATIO Flashcards

1
Q
  1. There was a request for PT and PTT. What should be
    done if the patient’s hematocrit is 60%?
    A. Immediately proceed to testing
    B. Reduce the volume of citrate anticoagulant
    C. Recollect sample and dilute
    D. Use a 3.8% sodium citrate instead
A

B. Reduce the volume of citrate anticoagulant

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2
Q
  1. Compute for MCV if the following are given:
    Hematocrit = 45%
    RBC count = 7 x10^12/ L
    Hemoglobin = 13g/dl
    A. 65 femtoliters
    B. 64 femtoliters
    C. 66 femtoliters
    D. 70 femtoliters
A

B. 64 femtoliters

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3
Q
  1. True about fibrinolysis, except:
    A. Plasmin is the active form that lyse a clot
    B. Inadequate fibrinolysis will lead to thrombosis
    C. Degradation of a stabilized clot will lead to D-Dimer
    formation
    D. NONE OF THESE
A

D. NONE OF THESE

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following clotting factor is being described?
    *Large and consumed during clot process
    *Increases during inflammation
    *Not vitamin K dependent
    A. Factor II
    B. Fibrinogen
    C. Factor XII
    D. Factor VI
A

B. Fibrinogen

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5
Q
  1. What is the other name of Factor VII?
    A. Proaccelerin
    B. Proconvertin/stable factor
    C. Labile factor
    D. Laki-Lorand
A

B. Proconvertin/stable factor

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6
Q
  1. Wintrobe or RBC indices are important tests in classifying what disorder?
    A. Anemia
    B. Leukemia
    C. Platelet dysfunction
    D. AOTA
A

A. Anemia

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following does not describe a normal red blood cell?
    A. Characterized by a 1/3 central pallor
    B. Biconcave disc shape
    C. Contains reticulum of RNA
    D. Smaller than its precursors
A

C. Contains reticulum of RNA

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8
Q
  1. A non-specific test for inflammatory conditions:
    A. OFT
    B. ESR
    C. Hematocrit
    D. Acid serum test
A

B. ESR

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9
Q
  1. What is the anticoagulant used in platelet function test?
    A. EDTA
    B. Citrate
    C. Oxalate
    D. Non-anticoagulated blood
A

B. Citrate

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10
Q
  1. A blood cell that is being described as “specks of dust”
    under Wright-stained smear:
    A. RBC
    B. Agranulocyte
    C. Platelets
    D. Granulocyte
A

C. Platelets

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11
Q
  1. The blood pressure cuff should not be inflated by more
    than __mmHg if the patient is obese.
    A. 40
    B. 50
    C. 60
    D. 100
A

A. 40

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following type of anemia is correlated with
    the following lab results:
    *MCV 90fl
    *Increased Reticulocyte count
    A. Iron deficiency anemia
    B. Megaloblastic anemia
    C. Hemolytic anemia
    D. Aplastic anemia
A

C. Hemolytic anemia

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13
Q
  1. True about blood film preparation:
    I. 30-45-degree spreader angle
    II. Amount of blood used should be 0.05ml or 2-3mm
    III. Distance of the drop of blood to the end of slide should
    be 1 cm
    A. 1,2
    B.1,3
    C.2,3
    D.1,2,3
A

D.1,2,3

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14
Q

14.What is the chromatin pattern of most mature blood
cells?
A. Fine
B. Delicate
C. Clumped and condensed
D. AOTA

A

C. Clumped and condensed

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15
Q
  1. Erythropoietic stage that is characterized by a small pyknotic nucleus:
    A. Metarubricyte
    B. Reticulocyte
    C. Rubriblast
    D. Prorubricyte
A

A. Metarubricyte

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16
Q
  1. Erythropoietic stage that can be mistaken as lymphocyte:
    A. Rubriblast
    B. Prorubricyte
    C. Rubricyte
    D. Metarubricyte
A

C. Rubricyte

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17
Q
  1. Refers to the measurement of the ratio of the volume
    occupied by the RBCs to the volume of whole blood in a
    sample of capillary or venous blood:
    A. ESR
    B. Packed cell volume
    C. Hemoglobin
    D. MCV
A

B. Packed cell volume

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18
Q
  1. A test that uses a reducing agent for detection of Hb S:
    A. Sodium metabisulfite test
    B. Sodium dithionite test/solubility test
    C. OFT
    D. Kleihauer Betke
A

B. Sodium dithionite test/solubility test

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19
Q
  1. Chronic blood loss will lead to what type of anemia?
    A. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia
    B. Macrocytic, normochromic anemia
    C. Normocytic, normochromic anemia
    D. Macrocytic, spherocytic anemia
A

A. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia

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20
Q
  1. A medical condition characterized by autoantibodies to ADAMTS-13:
    A. TTP
    B. ITP
    C. DIC
    D. HUS
A

A. TTP

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21
Q
  1. These are group of inherited disorders causing structurally abnormal globin chain synthesis due to amino acid substitution
    A. Porphyria/vampire’s disease
    B. Sideroblastic anemias
    C. Thalassemias
    D. Hemoglobinopathies
A

D. Hemoglobinopathies

22
Q
  1. What is the least predominant WBC in blood?
    A. Basophil
    B. Monocyte
    C. Lymphocyte
    D. Eosinophil
A

A. Basophil

22
Q
  1. What is the youngest cell in the granulocyte series that is
    normally present in the peripheral blood?
    A. Metamyelocyte
    B. Segmenters
    C. Band cells
    D. Myeloblast
A

C. Band cells

22
Q
  1. Which of the following WBC produces a major basic protein granule?
    A. Basophil
    B. Neutrophil
    C. Eosinophil
    D. Lymphocyte
A

C. Eosinophil

23
Q
  1. The Naegili type leukemia:
    A. AML M4
    B. AML M5
    C. AML M3
    D. AML M6
A

A. AML M4

24
Q
  1. Which of the following cytochemical stain is most useful in the diagnosis of erythroleukemia?
    A. LAP
    B. PAS
    C. Esterases
    D. MPO
A

B. PAS

25
Q
  1. Annexin-A and TRAP are useful in the diagnosis of what type of leukemia?
    A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
    B. Hairy Cell Leukemia
    C. Acute leukemia
    D. Erythroleukemia
A

B. Hairy Cell Leukemia

26
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a basic component of
    a coulter Hema analyzer?
    A. Hydraulic system
    B. Circulating system
    C. Electrical system
    D. Pneumatic system
A

B. Circulating system

27
Q
  1. In electrical impedance, a cell obtained from volume
    sizes of 2 to 20 femtoliters is categorized and counted as:
    A. Granulocytes
    B. Platelets
    C. RBCs
    D. Mononuclear cells
A

B. Platelets

28
Q
  1. Excessive lysing of RBCs will lead to what instrumental
    error?
    A. Positive error
    B. Either positive or negative error
    C. Negative error
    D. Invalid results
A

C. Negative error

29
Q
  1. A form of cancer of the plasma cells:
    A. Myoma
    B. Myeloma
    C. Lymphoma
    D. Hematoma
A

B. Myeloma

29
Q
  1. Which of the following pair is not correct:
    A. Lazy leukocyte syndrome – Neutrophil
    B. Gaucher’s disease – Monocyte/Macrophage
    C. Hairy cell leukemia – B lymphocyte
    D. Nieman pick syndrome -Eosinophil
A

D. Nieman pick syndrome -Eosinophil

30
Q
  1. Large to purple to black primary granules that are
    peroxidase positive and can mistaken as Alder reilly
    granules:
    A. Dohle bodies
    B. Toxic granulation
    C. Pappenheimer bodies
    D. Chediak-Higashi granules
A

B. Toxic granulation

30
Q
  1. Heterozygous Pelger Huet are usually:
    A. Unilobed
    B. Bilobed
    C. Multilobed
    D. Poly-lobed
A

B. Bilobed

31
Q
  1. Mesanglial, Microglial, and Dust cells are examples of
    what cells?
    A. Lymphocytes
    B. Monocytes
    C. Macrophages
    D. Tissue neutrophils
A

C. Macrophages

32
Q
  1. A special stain for the demonstration of reticulum of reticulocytes:
    A. Wright’s stain
    B. Fuelgen stain
    C. New methylene blue
    D. Crystal violet
A

C. New methylene blue

33
Q
  1. True about Protein C:
    I. Major inhibitor of coagulation
    II. Inhibits Factor Va and VIIIa
    III. Vitamin K dependent
    A. 1,3
    B. 1,2,3
    C. 2,3
    D. 1,3
A

B. 1,2,3

34
Q
  1. Which of the following pro-coagulant is stored in the Weibel Palade of the endothelial cells?
    A. Factor XIII
    B. Platelet
    C. Von Wille Brand factor
    D. Factor VIII
A

C. Von Wille Brand factor

35
Q
  1. Thrombin clotting time (TCT) is a test for:
    A. Thrombin
    B. Fibrinogen
    C. Fibrin
    D. Common pathway
A

B. Fibrinogen

36
Q
  1. Bleeding time is a test for:
    A. Primary hemostasis
    B. Secondary hemostasis
    C. Primary fibrinolysis
    D. Secondary fibrinolysis
A

A. Primary hemostasis

37
Q
  1. A platelet dysfunction characterized by abnormality with gpIIb-IIIa:
    A. VwD
    B. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
    C. Bernard soulier syndrome
    D. Afibrinogenemia
A

B. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

38
Q
  1. Which of the following condition is not associated with deficiency of platelet dense granules?
    A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
    B. Hermansky pudlak
    C. Quebec platelet disorder
    D. Chediak Higashi
A

C. Quebec platelet disorder

39
Q
  1. Which of the following vitamin is necessary for blood vessel formation and important for vascular integrity?
    A. Vitamin K
    B. Ascorbic acid/vit c
    C. Vitamin B
    D. Vitamin D
A

B. Ascorbic acid/vit c

40
Q
  1. Owren’s disease:
    A. Factor V deficiency
    B. Factor VIII deficiency
    C. Factor IX deficiency
    D. Factor XI deficiency
A

A. Factor V deficiency

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a vitamin K dependent molecule?
    A. Stuart-Prower factor
    B. Protein C
    C. Stable factor
    D. Von Wille Brand Factor
A

D. Von Wille Brand Factor

41
Q
  1. Clauss Assay is used for measurement of:
    A. Fibrinogen
    B. Factor XIII
    C. Factor VIII
    D. Tissue factor
A

A. Fibrinogen

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a test for fibrinolytic system?
    A. Euglobulin
    B. Ethanol gelation
    C. Duckert’s
    D. D-Dimer
A

C. Duckert’s

43
Q
  1. Compute for the RBC count
    *250 cells counted in the 5 small RBC squares
    *1:200 dilution was used
    A. 2,500,000 cells/ml
    B. 2,500,000 cells/ul
    C. 1,250,000 cells/ul
    D. 100,000 cells/ul
A

B. 2,500,000 cells/ul

44
Q
  1. SD/Mean x100 is a formula implicated for the computation of what parameter?
    A. MCV
    B. RDW
    C. Reticulocyte count
    D. Hematocrit
A

B. RDW

45
Q
  1. A differential count was performed on a sample with 5x10^9/L WBC. There are 60% neutrophils. If we multiply these two given data and numbers, which of the following will be obtained?
    A. Absolute WBC count
    B. Corrected WBC count
    C. Relative WBC count
    D. Differential count
A

A. Absolute WBC count

PARA RATIO (2 decks)

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