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Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Average volume of blood

A

5L

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2
Q

Percentage of blood in the body weight

A

7-8%

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3
Q

Germicidal soap is rubbed in the hands for ___ secs

A

15 secs

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4
Q

Rinsing of hands during hand washing

A

Downwards

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5
Q

Used to turn off the faucet when hand washing

A

Paper towels

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6
Q

Destroys pathogenic microorganisms in inanimate objects

A

Disinfection

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7
Q

Appropriate disinfectant

A

Household bleach or sodium hypochlorite

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8
Q

Dilution in sink disinfection

A

1:5-1:10

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9
Q

Destroy all forms of microbial life including spores

A

Sterilization

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10
Q

Concentration of oxalate

A

1-2 mg/ml of blood

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11
Q

Concentration of citrate

A

3.2 - 3.8 g/dL (0.105 or 0.129M)

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12
Q

Concentration of EDTA

A

1-2 mg/ml of blood or 1.5mg/ml

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13
Q

Concentration of fluoride

A

10 mg/ml of blood

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14
Q

Concentration of heparin

A

0.2 mg/ml of blood

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15
Q

Inversions for yellow, orange, green, lander, pink, gray

A

8

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16
Q

Number of inversions for red and gold

A

5

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17
Q

Number of inversions for light blue

A

3-4

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18
Q

Tourniquet should be applied ___ above the venipuncture sure and left no longer than 1 min

A

3-4 inches (7.5-10 cm)

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19
Q

Inner material that goes a temporary change in viscosity during the centrifugation process

A

Separator gel

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20
Q

Gauge for pediatric patients

A

23-25 gauge

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21
Q

Most common needle size for adult venipuncture

A

21 gauge
Length 1 inch

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22
Q

Most common skin cleanser

A

70% isopropyl alcohol

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23
Q

Used for sample collection for blood alcohol measurements

A

Benzalkonium chloride or non alcoholic anti-septic

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24
Q

Punctures should not be more than___ deep because of the risk of bone injury or possible infection (osteomyelitis)

A

2mm

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25
Q

Hemoglobin normal values

A

15-20 g/dl at birth
12-16 g/dl adult women
13-18 g/dl men

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26
Q

Reagents used in the cyanmethemoglobin method

A

Modified Drabkin’s reagent

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27
Q

donates cyanide to hemoglobin

A

Potassium cyanide

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28
Q

Converts Fe2 to Fe3

A

Potassium ferricyanide

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29
Q

Replaced the sodium bicarbonate (in the original drabkin’s reagent), shortens the reaction time from 15 minutes to 3 minutes

A

KH2PO4

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30
Q

Decreases the amount of turbidity resulting from abnormal proteins and improves RBC lysis

A

Nonionic detergent

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31
Q

sample for cyanmethemoglobin method

A

EDTA whole blood or capillary blood

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32
Q

Wavelength measured in cyanmethemoglobinn method

A

540 nm

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33
Q

the optical density of the solution is proportional to the concentration of hemoglobin, all forms of hemoglobin are measured except

A

sulfhemoglobin

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34
Q

Remedy for high WBC count and high plt count

A

Centrifuge the mixture and use the supernatant

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35
Q

Remedy for Hgb S and Hgb C

A

Dilute mixture 1:2 with water then multiply results by 2

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36
Q

Remedy for lipemic blood

A

Add 0.01 ml of patients plasma to 5.0 ml of HiCn reagent and use this mixture as the blank

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37
Q

measure functional hgb only

A

Blood oxygen Capacity (Gasometric or Van Slyke method)

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38
Q

1 hgb carries ___ of oxygen

A

1.34 ml

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39
Q

100 g Hb = ___ of Fe2

A

0.347 g

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40
Q

Used for blood donor screening

A

Copper sulfate method (Gravimetric method)

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41
Q

specific gravity of copper sulfate solution

A

1.053

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42
Q

drop of blood should be added from a height of about ___ cm in the copper sulfate method

A

1 cm

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43
Q

Reagent for acid hematin

A

0.1 N Hcl

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44
Q

Reagent for alkali hematin

A

0.1 N NaOH

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45
Q

formed by combination of hemoglobin with carbon monoxide

A

Carboxyhemoglobin

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46
Q

affinity of carbon monoxide to hgb than for oxygen

A

200x

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47
Q

color of carboxyhemoglobin

A

cherry red

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48
Q

peak absorbance of carboxyhemoglobin

A

576 nm

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49
Q

hgb wherein the ferrous ion has been oxidized to ferric state

A

Methemoglobin

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50
Q

type of hgb wherein most cases are acquired due to exposure to certain drugs and chemicals (nitrates, nitrites, quinones, chlorates)

A

Methemoglobin

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51
Q

Color of methemoglobin

A

Brown

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52
Q

peak absorbance of methemoglobin

A

630 nm

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53
Q

type of hgb though to be formed by the action of sulfonamides and aromatic amines

A

Sulfhemoglobin

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54
Q

color of sulfhemoglobin

A

mauve lavender

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55
Q

peak absorbance of sulfhemoglobin

A

618 nm

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56
Q

NV for HCt

A

45 - 60 % at birth
36 - 48% Females
40 - 55% Males

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57
Q

Length of microhematocrit tube

A

75 mm

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58
Q

internal bore of microhematocrit tube

A

1.2 mm

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59
Q

volume of blood microhematocrit tube can hold

A

0.05 ml

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60
Q

microhematocrit centrifuge capable of __ RCF

A

10,000 - 15,000

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61
Q

Incomplete sealing (less than ____ mm), leads to falsely low hct results

A

4-6 mm

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62
Q

inadequate centrifugation (shorter than __ mins), leads to a falsely increased result

A

5 minutes

63
Q

Allowing the tube to stand longer than __ minutes leads to a falsely increased result

A

10 minutes

64
Q

Trapped plasma causes spun hct results to be ___ higher than electronic cell counter

A

1-3%

65
Q

Increased amount of trapped plasma is found in:

A

Macrocytic anemia
Spherocytosis
Thalassemia
Hypochromic anemia
Sickle cell anemia

66
Q

length of wintrobe tube

A

115 mm

67
Q

internal bore of wintrobe tube

A

3 mm

68
Q

NV for RBC count

A

5.0 - 6.5 x 1012/L - Newborns
3.6 - 5.6 x 1012/L - Females
4.2 - 6.0 x 1012/L - Males

69
Q

RBC count diluting fluid

A

Gower
Eagle
NSS
Toison
Strong
Bethel
Hayem
Dacie

70
Q

WBC NV

A

4.0 - 11.0 x 109/L - adults
10.0 - 30.0 x 109/L - Newborns
6.0 - 17.0 x 109/L - 1 year of age

71
Q

in WBC count, allow the dilution to sit for __ minutes to ensure that the red blood cells have lysed

A

10 minutes

72
Q

leukocyte counts should be performed within __ hours of dilution

A

3 hours

73
Q

white count diluting fluids

A

2% acetic acid
1% HCl
Turk’s diluting fluid

74
Q

formed when 5 or more nRBCs are present in the PBS

A

Corrected WBC Count

75
Q

shape of the nucleus of band neutrophil

A

Elongates, curved, or sausage-shaped

76
Q

cell that increases in shift to the left

A

band

77
Q

shape of the nucleus of monocyte

A

horse-shoe shaped

78
Q

appearance of the cytoplasm of monocyte

A

ground glass

79
Q

Neutrophilia

A

Appendicitis
Myelogenous leukemia
Bacterial infection

80
Q

Neutropenia

A

Decreased neutrophil production
Increased neutrophil destruction
Immune reactions
Sequestration

81
Q

Eosinophilia

A

Allergies
Scarlet fever
Parasitic infections

82
Q

Eosinopenia

A

Decreased production
Acute bacterial infection
ACTH administration

83
Q

Monocytosis

A

Brucellosis
Tuberculosis
Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
Typhoid
Rickettsial infections
Hodgkin’s disease
Gaucher disease

84
Q

Monocytopenia

A

Glucocorticoids
Overwhelming infections that also cause neutropenia

85
Q

Lymphocytosis

A

Viral infections
Whooping cough
Infectious mononucleosis
Lymphocytic leukemia

86
Q

Lymphocytopenia

A

Long-term drug therapy
Immunodeficiency

87
Q

Basophilia

A

Immediate hypersensitivity reactions
Hypothyroidism

88
Q

Basopenia

A

Stress
Hyperthyroidism
Increased glucocorticoid levels

89
Q

NV of MCV

A

80 - 100 fL

90
Q

NV of MCHC

A

32 - 36 g/dl

91
Q

NV of MCH

A

28 - 32 pg

92
Q

NV of RDW

A

11.5% - 14.5%

93
Q

Relationship of RDW to the variation in RBC size

A

Directly proportional

94
Q

Disease associated with microcytic hypochromic

A

Anemia of chronic infection or inflammation
Thalassemia
IDA
Sideroblastic anemia
Defective iron use

“ATIS”

95
Q

Disease associated with normocytic, normochromic

A

Apastic anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Acute blood loss anemia

96
Q

Disease associated with macrocytic, normochromic

A

Liver disease
Myelodysplasias
Megaloblastic anemia

97
Q

Size of the blood drop in manual wedge technique

A

2-3 mm

98
Q

angle used in the manual wedge technique

A

30 - 45 deg or
25 - 40 deg

99
Q

One of the qualities of a properly made wedge smear is the size of the film. it must be ___ of the slide

A

2/3 or 3/4

100
Q

Factors that affect the thickness of a wedge smear

A

Pressure
Angle
Size of blood drop
Speed

101
Q

Method of examination where the slide is moved from side to side

A

Cross-sectional or crenellation

102
Q

Method of examination wherein the slide is moved from tail towards the head

A

Longitudinal method

103
Q

Method of examination where it uses a pattern of consecutive fields beginning near the tail on a horizontal edge: count three consecutive horizontal edge fields, count two fields towards the center of the smear, count two fields horizontally, count two fields vertically to the edge

A

Battlement method

104
Q

important in helping to diagnose bleeding disorders

A

Platelet count

105
Q

NR of Plt count

A

150,000 - 450,000 /uL

106
Q

Thrombocytosis

A

Polycythemia vera
Idiopathic thrombocythemia
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Splenectomy

107
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Thrombocytopenia purpura
Aplastic anemia
Acute leukemia
Gaucher’s disease
Pernicious anemia

108
Q

Smear sequesters ___ of platelets

A

20 - 30%

109
Q

Mean platelet volume determination type of specimen

A

< 4 hours old specimen

110
Q

reference method for platelet determination

A

Brecher-Cronkite method

111
Q

Microscope used in the reference method of platelet determination

A

Phase microscopy

112
Q

Dilution used for whole blood in the Brecher-Cronkite method

A

1% ammonium oxalate

113
Q

Anticoagulant used to correct platelet satellitosis

A

Sodium citrate

114
Q

Factor to multiply in using sodium citrate as the anticoagulant in platelet determination

A

1.1

115
Q

Result of WBC and platelets in the Brecher-Cronkite method

A

Increased WBC, Decreased platelet

116
Q

Method that uses a light microscope in plt determination

A

Tonkantin method

117
Q

Diluent used in the Tonkantin method

A

Rees and Ecker diluent

118
Q

Place charged hemocytometer in a moist chamber for __ minutes to allow the platelets to settle

A

15 minutes

119
Q

Stain in the Rees and Ecker diluent

A

Brilliant Cresyl Blue

120
Q

anticoagulant in the Rees and Ecker diluent

A

Sodium citrate

121
Q

Preservative in the Rees and Ecker diluent

A

Formaldehyde

122
Q

Normally, a reticulocyte spends __ days in the bone marrow, and 1 day in the peripheral blood

A

2-3 days

123
Q

Supravital stain used in the reticulocyte count

A

New Methylene Blue

124
Q

Used to assess the erythropoietic activity of the bone marrow

A

Reticulocyte count

125
Q

NV of reticulocyte count

A

0.5 - 1.5%

126
Q

time of incubation in the reticulocyte count method

A

3-10 minutes

127
Q

How many RBCs are counted in the Retic count procedure

A

1000 RBCs

128
Q

to improve accuracy, have another laboratorian count the other smear; values should agree within ___

A

20%

129
Q

sources of error for retic count

A

Heinz bodies
Howell-Jolly bodies
Hgb H

130
Q

Patients with a hematocrit of 35% are expected to have a corrected retic count of __

A

2-3%

131
Q

In patients with a hematocrit of less than 25%, the count should increase to ___ to compensate for anemia

A

3-5%

132
Q

Retics that are released from the bone marrow prematurely are called

A

shift reticulocytes

133
Q

Reference range of adequate bone marrow response

A

> 3

134
Q

Reference range of inadeqaute bone marrow response

A

<2

135
Q

nonspecific measurement used to detect and monitor an inflammatory response

A

ESR

136
Q

caused by an alteration in plasma protein concentration, this leads to a larger RBC mass and faster sedimentation velocity

A

Rouleaux formation

137
Q

the single most important factor in determining ESR

A

Plasma composition

138
Q

rouleaux and aggregation of the red blood cells are controlled primarily by the levels of __

A

Acute phase proteins

139
Q

ESR is directly proportional to RBC mass and inversely proportional to ___

A

plasma viscosity

140
Q

increased concentration of albumin will tend to __ ESR

A

lower

141
Q

a tilt of 3 deg can cause ESR errors up to ___

A

30%

142
Q

the use of refrigerated blood for ESR would __ ESR

A

Increase

143
Q

__ ESR result due to lower temperature from air rushing out on opening the ref or freezer

A

falsely decreased

144
Q

A __ ESR is attributable to vibrations from opening and closing the refrigerator doors

A

falsely increased

145
Q

A ___ ESR because of the heat released from the refrigerator motor

A

falsely increased

146
Q

Length of the Westergren tube

A

300 mm

147
Q

Bore of the Westergren tube

A

2.55 mm

148
Q

Calibration of the Westergren tube

A

0 - 200

149
Q

NV of the Westergren tube

A

0 - 15 mm women
0 - 10 men
0 - 10 children

150
Q

TUbe used in ESR that is more sensitive for patients with high ESR

A

Westergren

151
Q

Length of the Wintrobe tube

A

115 mm

152
Q

Bore of the Wintrobe tube

A

3 mm

153
Q

Calibration of the Wintrobe tube

A

Left: ESR (0 - 100)
Right: Macrohematocrit (100- 0)

154
Q
A

Reviewers (14 decks)

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