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09/2016 > Here we go! > Flashcards

Here we go! Flashcards

1
Q

Which vessel is injured during the right lateral port incision at laparoscopic surgery?

A, External iliac artery
B. Internal iliac artery
C. Uterine artery
D. Aorta
F. Inferior epigastric artery
A

A. External iliac artery

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2
Q

Which structure forms the lateral walls of the ischio-rectal fossa?

A. Skin 
B. Anal canal 
C. Obturator internus fascia
D. Vagina 
E. Rectum
A

C. Obturator internus fascia

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3
Q

During a suprapubic transverse incision at a CS, which layer will not be encountered?

A. Anterior rectus sheath
B. Posterior rectus sheath
C. Rectus abdominis muscle 
D. Skin and subcutaneous tissue
E. Transversalis fascia and parietal peritoneum
A

B. Posterior rectus sheath

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4
Q
  1. At what level ovarian artery arise
    A. L2
    B. L1
    C. L4
A

B. L1

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5
Q

Which of the following muscles leaves the lesser pelvis through the greater
sciatic foramen?

A. pubococcygeus
B. Iliococcygeus
C. Puborectalis
D. Piriformis
E. Coccygeus
A

D. Piriformis

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6
Q

What is the origin nerve root of ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve for the (IINB)?

A. T12
B. T12 and L1
C. L1
D. L2
E. L1 and L2
A

C. L1

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7
Q

Following radical hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy for Stage I carcinoma of the cervix,
63-year-old woman reports weakness of hip adduction. Which nerve most likely to have been
injured during the operation?

A. Obturator nerve
B. Femoral nerve
C. Inferior gluteal nerve
D. Superior gluteal nerve
E. Sciatic nerve
A

A. Obturator nerve

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8
Q

Surgeon wantsto take blood from femoral artery. What is the relation of nerve with femoral
artery and vein from lateral to medial?

A. VAN
B. NAV
C. AVN

A

B. NAV

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9
Q

Dorsal artery of clitoris and deep artery of clitoris are a branch of?

A. External iliac artery
B. Internal pudendal artery

A

B. Internal pudendal artery

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10
Q

What is the dermatome level at suprapubic incision?

A. T10
B. L1
C. T12
D. L2

A

B. L1

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11
Q

What is the level of dermatome for epidural at umblical region?

A. L1
B. T12
C. T10
D. L3
E. L4
A

C. T10

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12
Q

What is the nerve supply of external anal sphincter ?

A. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
B. Pudendal Nerve
C. Inferior hypogastric plexus

A

B. Pudendal Nerve

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13
Q

Which structure in female is homologous to male prostate?

A. Skene gland
B. Gartner duct
C. Bartholin’s gland

A

A. Skene gland

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14
Q

Pudendal cleft is defined as?

A. Area btw labia majora and thigh
B. Area btw labia majora and hymen
C. Area between labia majora

A

C. Area between labia majora

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15
Q

What is the anatomical location of Bartholin’s gland?

A. Deep perineal pouch 
B. Ischiorectal fossa 
C. Pudendal canal
D. Superficial perineal pouch
E. Urogenital diaphragm
A

D. Superficial perineal pouch

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16
Q

Pyramidalis is supplied by which nerve?

A. Obturator n.
B. Genitofemoral nerve.
C. Subcostal nerve
D. Ilioinguinal 
E. Iliohypogastric
A

C. Subcostal nerve

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17
Q

During Laparoscopy, this structure is seen which is a remnant of Mesonephric duct.

A. Epoophoron
B. Gartner duct cyst
C. Ovarian ligament

A

A. Epoophoron (Rosenmüller or the parovarium)

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18
Q

During Sacrospinous ligament fixation which artery can be damaged?

A. Internal pudendal artery
B. Internal iliac
C. External iliac
D. Femoral artery
E. Inferior vesical artery
A

A. Internal pudendal artery

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19
Q

The superior vesical artery is a branch of?

A. Anterior division of Internal iliac
B. External iliac
C. Umbilical artery

A

A. Anterior division of Internal iliac

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20
Q

In renal transplant patients, the kidney is anastomosed to?

A. Vesical artery 
B. Aorta
C. External iliac artery 
D. Internal iliac artery 
E. Uterine artery
A

C. External iliac artery

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21
Q

Symphysis diathesis in a patient involves what type of joint?

A. Primary cartilaginous
B. Secondary cartilaginous
C. Synovial

A

B. Secondary cartilaginous

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22
Q

What is the correct relation of round ligament with its embryological origin and anatomy?

A. Gubernaculum ovarii. In front of the uterine cornu to the labia majora
B. Gubernaculum ovarii. In front of the uterine cornu to the ovarian ligament
C. Paramesonephric duct. In front of the uterine cornu to the labia majora
D. Paramesonephric duct. Behind the uterine cornu to the labia majora

A

A. Gubernaculum ovarii. In front of the uterine cornu to the labia majora

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23
Q

Partial mole genotype

A. 46XX
B. 69 XXY
C. 47XX
D. 46XY

A

B. 69 XXY

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24
Q

Layer surrounding the zona pellucida?

A. Mural granulosa cell 
B. Cumulus oophorus 
C. basal lamina
D. Theca externa
E. Theca interna
A

B. Cumulus oophorus

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25
Q

What happens to decidua basalis in third trimester?

A. Remains decidua basalis
B. Become Nitabuch
C. Disappear
D. Merge with placenta

A

B. Become Nitabuch

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26
Q

The ureteric bud is derived from which of the following embryonic structures?

A. Urogenital sinus
B. Pronephros
C. Mesonephros
D. Mesonephric duct

A

D. Mesonephric duct

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27
Q

Lower part of vagina is derived from-?

A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Urogenital sinus
D. Mesonephric duct

A

C. Urogenital sinus

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28
Q

Which hernia will be the result of small defect in lateral umbilical region due to regression of the umbilical vein?

A. Congenital umbilical hernia
B. Omphalocele
C. Gastroschisis

A

C. Gastroschisis

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29
Q

The medial umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

A. Fetal paraumbilical veins
B. Fetal umbilical arteries
C. Lateralumbilical fold
D. Urachus

A

B. Fetal umbilical arteries

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30
Q

In the new non invasive prenatal diagnostic test of cell-free fetal DNA what is the source of the
cells in maternal blood?

A. Fetal WBCs
B. Fetal fibroblasts
C. Amniotic cells
D. Placental trophoblast

A

D. Placental trophoblast

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31
Q

Embryological origin of GnRH neurons?

A. Neural crest
B. Neural tube
C. Olfactory bulb
D. Hypothalamus

A

C. Olfactory bulb

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32
Q

What is gsatrulation?

A

Triple germ cell layer formation

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33
Q

Indifferent gonads arise from-?

A. Intermediate mesoderm
B. Paraxial mesoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Ectoderm

A

A. Intermediate mesoderm

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34
Q

What is the name of structure that shunts oxygenated blood from the right to the left atrium in the fetus?

A. Ductus arteriosus
B. Ductus venosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. Ligamentum venosum
E. Pulmonary trunk
A

C. Foramen ovale

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35
Q

Which of the following agents can cause premature closure of the patent ductus arteriosus?

A. Prostaglandin E1 
B. Nitric oxide 
C. Cortisone
D. Acetaminophen
E. Indomethacin
A

E. Indomethacin

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36
Q

What do the bottom and top represent on the box-and-whisker plot?

A. Mean and mode 
B. Mean and median 
C. Standard deviation and mean
D. Least and greatest value 
E. Lower and upper quartile
A

E. Lower and upper quartile

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37
Q

You wish to investigate the time it takes to perform a caesarean section on women with and without pre-eclampsia. At the end of the study you have two
groups of women with the duration of caesarean sections recorded for each. It can’t be assumed that these are normally distributed.
Which non-parametric statistic test would you use?

A. Chi-squared test
B. Linear regression analysis
C. Mann-Whitney U test
D. Pearson’s R test
E. Student’s t-test
A

C. Mann-Whitney U test

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38
Q

Data was collected from maternal records of the women having shoulder dystocia at delivery, reviewed and compared with normal deliveries along with birth weight of babies. What is the type of study?

A. Retrospective cohort
B. Case Control
C. Cross sectional
D. Randomised control

A

A. Retrospective cohort

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39
Q 
The number of hours worked per week for a sample of students is shown below:
Hours. students
1. 12
2. 9
3. 29
4. 28
5. 15 
6. 10
7. 18
8. 15

What is the mode of the above data?

A

15

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40
Q

What type of variable is BMI?

A

Ordinal, categorical variable.

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41
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes a type I statistical (α error)?

A. Rejecting a null hypothesis when there is a difference
B. Rejecting a null hypothesis when there is no difference
C. Rejecting the alternative hypothesis when there is a difference
D. Accepting a null hypothesis when there is a difference
E. Accepting the alternative hypothesis when there is a difference

A

B. Rejecting a null hypothesis when there is no difference

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42
Q

700 women were enrolled for the assessment of PPV for test preterm labour. 320 women tested positive, of which 80 had preterm labor. 380 were test negative and out of them 20 had preterm labor. What is the positive predictive value of the test?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 10%
E. 100%
A

A. 25%

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43
Q

In which phase of the cell cycle do chromosome align to the equatorial plate?

A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Interphase

A

A. Metaphase

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44
Q

Which chromosomes are capable of Robertsonian translocation?

A. 16, 17, 18, 20
B. 9, 10, 11, 12
C. 13, 14, 15, 21, 22

A

C. 13, 14, 15, 21, 22

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45
Q

In which stage does DNA replicate?

A. G1
B. G0
C. G2
D. S phase

A

D. S phase

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46
Q

What is the primary function of DNA polymerase?

A

To accurately and efficiently replicate the genome: Addition of nucleotide
DNA repair

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47
Q

Which one of the following stages of the cell cycle is cell become quiescent?

A. Synthetic phase (S) 
B. Gap phase 1 (G1) 
C. Gap phase 0 (G0) 
D. Gap phase 2 (G2) 
E. Mitotic phase (M)
A

C. Gap phase 0 (G0)

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48
Q

Mother has sickle cell disease married to sickle cell trait husband chance of baby to having disease?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

A

B. 50%

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49
Q

Father with cystic fibros, mother normal. Chance of baby to have cystic fibrosis ?

A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%

A

A. 0%

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50
Q

What role does messenger RNA play in the synthesis of proteins?

A

Translation

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51
Q

Detection of protein?

A. Southern plot
B. Northern plot
C. Western plotWhich nucleotide only present in DNA
D. PCR

A

C. Western plot

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52
Q

Which nucleotide only present in DNA?

A

Thiamine

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53
Q

Which protein coiled in DNA?

A

Histones

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54
Q

Klinefelter?

A

47 XXY

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55
Q

Which hormone prevent regression of corpus luteum?

A. HCG
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen 
D. HPL
E. FSH
A

A. HCG

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56
Q

Estradiol 20% is bound to?

A) shbg
B) albumin

A

B) albumin

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57
Q

Patient with primary hyperparathyroidism: what is the value of calcium and phosphate?

A. Inc Ca. Dec phosphate
B. Dec Ca. Inc phosphate
C. Inc Ca. Inc phosphate
D. Dec Ca. Dec phosphate

A

A. Inc Ca. Dec phosphate

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58
Q

ADH is synthesised in-?

A. Para ventricular nucleus of hypothalamus
B. Acidophillic cells of anterior pituitary
C. Neuroendocrine cells of posterior pituitary

A

A. Para ventricular nucleus of hypothalamus

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59
Q

HPL similar to?

A. FSH
B. GH

A

B. GH

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60
Q

What is the second common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

A. 17-hydroxylase deficiency
B. 21-hydroxylase deficiency
C. 11-Beta hydroxylase deficiency
D. 3 Beta- hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency
E. 17 Beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency

A

C. 11-Beta hydroxylase deficiency

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61
Q

What kind of cells produces parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A. Chief cells 
B. Parathynotic cells
C. Oxyphilic cells 
D. C cells 
E. Follicular cells
A

A. Chief cells

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62
Q

Most common cause of hyperthyroidism in young woman?

A. Graves disease
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. Iodine deficiency

A

A. Graves disease

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63
Q

Commonest cause of Cushing disease?

A) pituitary adenoma
B) adrenal adenoma

A

A) pituitary adenoma

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64
Q

What percentage (T4) is free?

A. 0.1%
B. 1%
C. 5 %
D. 15%
E. 70%
A

A. 0.1%

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65
Q

Which test you is used to check ovarian reserves in pre menopausal women?

A. Antimullerian hormone
B. FSH
C. LH

A

A. Antimullerian hormone

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66
Q

Which inhibits prolactin?

A

Dopamine

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67
Q

In obesity, which hormone decreases appetite?

A

Leptin

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68
Q

After how many hours of LH surge does ovulation occur?

A. 16 hr
B. 24 hr
C. 36 hr
D. 48 hr
E. 72 hr
A

C. 36 hr

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69
Q

Which hormone causes rupture of Graafian follicle and release of estrogen and progesterone?

A. LH
B. FSH
C. TSH
D. GnRH 
E. HCG
A

A. LH

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70
Q

Androgen secreted through which layer of adrenal?

A. Zona fasciculata
B. Zona reticularis
C. Zona glomerulosa

A

A. Zona fasciculata

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71
Q

Increase Order of potency in males:

A. DHT, Testosterone, Androstanedione A2, DHEA
B. DHT, A2, DHEA, Testosterone
C. Testosterone, DHT, A2, DHEA

A

A. DHT, Testosterone, Androstanedione A2, DHEA

72
Q

What is the most abundant carbohydrate in the breast milk?

A. Caesin
B. Galactose
C. Glucose 
D. Lactose
E. Sucrose
A

D. Lactose

73
Q

Renin is secreted from?

A

Juxtaglomerular cells

74
Q

Acid base disturbance in Conns syndrome

A

Metabolic alkalosis

75
Q

GFR is maximum at which gestation

A. 32 wk
B. 36 wk
C. 18 wk
D. 16wk

A

B. 36 wk

76
Q

A 20 year old girl goes for walking in a hill with friends and when she is on the extreme of the hill she becomes little breathless and has paraesthesia in her hands. What is the appropriate acid
base imbalance?

A. Metabolic acidosis 
B. Metabolic alkalosis 
C. Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis 
E. Respiratory acidosis
A

B. Metabolic alkalosis

77
Q

Vaginal arousal secretion are released from

A. Ectocervix.
B. Endocervix
C. Skene gland
D. Bartholin’s gland
E. Transudate from vagina
A

E. Transudate from vagina

78
Q

Iodine accumulation in thyroid cells involves symport with-?

A. Chloride
B. Potassium 
C. Hydrogen
D. Sodium
E. Calcium
A

D. Sodium

79
Q

Mg excreted:

A. Excreted Unchanged in urine
B. Metabolized in liver and excreted thru kidney
C. Conjugated in liver and excreted through kidney.

A

A. Excreted Unchanged in urine

80
Q

Which enzyme is present in granulosa cells but not in theca cells?

A. Aromatase
B. 17 B hydroxylase

A

A. Aromatase

81
Q

Cloasma in pregnancy is due to?

A. Cortisol
B. MSH

A

B. MSH

82
Q

Physiological variation of the menstrual cycle between 21-35 days due to-?

A. Aberrant LH surge
B. Estrogen fails to produce negative feedback on pituitary
C. Estrogen fails to produce positive feedback on pituitary
D. Luteal phase varies in duration by time taken for corpus luteum to degenerate
E. Loss of progesterone secretion

A

C. Estrogen fails to produce positive feedback on pituitary

83
Q

What is the change in plasma volume during pregnancy?

A. Increase 20 to 30%
B. Increase 30 to 50%
C. Increase 60 to 70%
D. Increase 50 to 70%

A

B. Increase 30 to 50%

84
Q

Transfer of free fatty acid thru placenta

A. Active
B. Passive
C. Facilitated
D. Endocytosis 
E. Pinocytosis
A

C. Facilitated

85
Q

Glucose transported across the placenta thru

A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Passive diffusion
D. Endocytosis

A

A. Facilitated diffusion

86
Q 
Which types of cells are phagocytic for residual bodies left over from the process of spermiogenesis?
A. Testicular mesenchymal cells
B. Testicular macrophages
C. Fibroblast cells
D. Interstitial cells of leydig
E. Sertoli cells
A

E. Sertoli cells

87
Q

Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) is what type of Biochemical structure?

A. Tripeptide 
B. Octapeptide 
C. Nanopeptide
D. Decapeptide
E. Polypeptide
A

D. Decapeptide

88
Q

Cristae are present in-?

A. Mitochondria
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Smooth ER

A

A. Mitochondria

89
Q

In which part of the cell does glycolysis take place?

A. Cytosol
B. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Mitochondrial cristae
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A

A. Cytosol

90
Q

Brow presentation in labor what is the head diameter

A

Mentovertical

91
Q

Labetalol

A. Non selective alpha and beta blocker
B. Selective alpha and beta blocker
C. Non selective beta blocker
D. Selective beta blocker

A

A. Non selective alpha and beta blocker

92
Q

What is the objective of phase 3 clinical trial?

A

Check effectiveness of the drug

93
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to suppress lactation postpartum in mother who suffers from stillbirth?

A. Quetiapine
B. Metoclopramide
C. Loperamide
D. Leuprolide
E. Cabergoline
A

E. Cabergoline

94
Q

Drosperinone is:

A. Antiandrogenic
B. Androgenic 
C. Estrogenic 
D. Progestogenic 
E. Anti-mineralocorticoid
A

E. Anti-mineralocorticoid

95
Q

When should the prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) be stopped before regional analgesia?

A. 6 hr
B. 12 hr
C. 24 hr
D. 48 hr
E. 72 hr
A

B. 12 hr

96
Q

Mirena secret in 24 hours

A. 20 micro gram
B. 35 micro gram
C. 75 micro gram

A

A. 20 micro gram

97
Q

Women on anti emetics came in ER with complain of involuntary muscle movements. Which drug she is using?

A

Metoclopramide

98
Q

Main action of cocps

A. Inhibit ovulation
B. Inhibit fertilization
C. Thick cervical mucus

A

A. Inhibit ovulation

99
Q

Drugs readily cross the placenta because of which quality?

A. High lipid solubility
B. High protein binding
C. ionization of molecules

A

A. High lipid solubility

100
Q

What is the term used for the anticancer agent methotrexate?

A. plant alkaloid 
B. Antimetabolite
C. Alkylating agent
D. Chain cutting agent
E. Intercalating agent
A

B. Antimetabolite

101
Q

What is the mechanism of action of hydralazine?

A. α2 agonist
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
C. α blocker
D. β2 agonist
E. Direct-action on smooth-muscle
A

E. Direct-action on smooth-muscle

102
Q

What is the mechanism of action of trimethoprim?

A. Inhibit Nucleic acid synthesis
B. Antimetabolite

A

B. Antimetabolite

103
Q

Patient on lithium me which organ anomaly occur

A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Brain

A

A. Heart

104
Q

Which organ anomaly occur with the use of ACE inhibitor?

A. Heart
B. Cranio facial
C. Kidney

A

C. Kidney

105
Q

28 year old Women on carbamazepine for epilepsy what is the suitable contraception?

A. Coc 
B. High dose coc
C. Mirena 
D. Pop
E. Implant
A

C. Mirena

106
Q

Patient on ulipristal acetate for the treatment of fibroid which contraceptive method you advice to her?

A. Barrier method
B. POP
C. COC
D. Mirena

A

A. Barrier method

107
Q

A woman experiences a postpartum hemorrhage after delivery and is administrated carboprostto promote uterine contraction. What type of drug is carboprost?

A. Oxytocin agonist 
B. Progestogen 
C. prostaglandin E1
D. prostaglandin E2
E. prostaglandin F2
A

E. prostaglandin F2

108
Q

Aspirin and indomethacin what is the difference in action?

A. Aspirin irreversibly inhibit COX 1 than ibuprofen
B. Aspirin reversibly inhibits COX 1 than ibuprofen

A

B. Aspirin reversibly inhibits COX 1 than ibuprofen

109
Q

Patient allergic to penicillin which drug is advised in labor as GBS Prophylaxis?

A

First-generation cephalosporins (i.e., cefazolin) are recommended for women whose reported penicillin allergy indicates a low risk of anaphylaxis or is of uncertain severity.

Allergic: vancomycin

110
Q

Most common side effect of misoprostol

A-vomiting
B-diarrhea
C-nausea
D-constipation

A

B-diarrhea

111
Q

Mifepristone mechanism of action?

A

Anti progesterone

112
Q

A 70-year-old lady had an ultrasound because she was feeling bloated which showed bilateral ovarian masses with no solid areas associated with abdominal ascites. She is post menopausal and otherwise well. She was sent for a CA 125 which comes back as 50 U/mL. What is her risk of malignancy index score (RMI)?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 150
D. 300
E. 450
A

E. 450

113
Q

Commonest cause of postmenopausal bleeding?

A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Endometrial cancer
C. Atrophic vaginitis
D. Endometrial polyp

A

C. Atrophic vaginitis

114
Q

Women presented in emergency with acute abdomen which woke her up at night. She has a
history of surgical management of missed miscarriage one week ago. Histopathology report showed
normal decidua no chorionic villi. What is your further actions?

A. Admit for observation and ultrasound in morning
B. Urgent CT scan
C. Call surgical team to check for bowel perforation
D. Call a consultant as you think she may have ruptured ectopic and might need intervention

A

D. Call a consultant as you think she may have ruptured ectopic and might need intervention

115
Q 
CTG image of 45 minutes
Baseline normal
Acceleration present
Variability normal
Some variable decelerations which are v shaped and going down to 20 seconds.
Good uterine contractions

G2P1+0 with previous normal delivery with labor pains and membrane ruptured showed thick
meconium she us 5cm dilated. what will be your plan?

A. Continue CTG and reassess in 30min
B. Do fetal blood sampling
C. Caesarian section category 1
D. Caesarean section category 2

A

A. Continue CTG and reassess in 30min

116
Q

Which radiotherapy need vaginal devise insertion?

A

Brachytherapy

117
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage after vaginal delivery. pharmaceutically failed to stop the
bleeding. What is the first surgical step to stop the bleeding?

A. Intrauterine balloon tamponade
B. Bilateral uterine artery ligation
C. Bilateral int. iliac ligation
D. Uterine b-lynch brace suture
E Uterine artery embolization
A

A. Intrauterine balloon tamponade

118
Q

Mother with twins diagnosed hyperthyroidism comes with vomiting TSH 0.1
FT4 29 .

A) start propylthiouracil
B) start radioactive iodine
C) bring pregancy to singleton.
D) treat hyperemesis repeat tests in a week.

A

D) treat hypermesis repeat tests in a week.

119
Q

Which vitamin is deficient in Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Thiamin aka Vitamin B1

120
Q

Most common site of vulvar cancer?

A. Labia majora
B. Labia minora
C. Vestibule
D. Vagina

A

A. Labia majora

121
Q

Women died after caesarian she had shortness of breath postpartum hemorrhage and was in DIC. Postmortem showed fetal hair and epithelial cells.

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

122
Q

42 year old with frequency, urgency & urge incontinence. No stress incontinence, bladder diary showed low compliance bladder, us normal. No improvement in symptoms with bladder drill. What is the next plan-?

A. Antimuscarinic 
B. Pelvic floor exercise
C. Post tibial nerve stimulation 
D. Urodynamic studies
E. Beta blocker
A

A. Antimuscarinic

123
Q

Women with PPROM. Which test is using in practice to diagnose preterm labor?

A. Fern test
B. Fibronectin test
C. Nitrazine test

A

B. Fibronectin test

124
Q

A male came for infertility check up who was taking Finasteride .Finasteride exert its action by
inhibition of which enzyme?

A. 21-hydroxlase
B. 5-alpha reductase
C. Aromatase 
D. Phosphodiesterase
E. Desmolase
A

B. 5-alpha reductase

125
Q

15 yrs old British Teenager Ask about having contraception . What will the Doctor do in line with
best practice?

A. Follow Fraser’s Law
B. Follow British guidelines
C. Follow non British guidelines

A

A. Follow Fraser’s Law

126
Q

A 34 week prenatal lady came in emergency with the complain of heavy painless vaginal
bleeding. She is vitally stable. What you will advice?

A. CBC
B. Perform vaginal examination
C. Caesarian section

A

A. CBC

127
Q

Treatment of hypovolemia after surgery in a patient who is vitally stable?

A. 500 ml crystalloid over 15 min
B. 500ml colloid over 15 min
C. Group specific blood
D. Gelofusin infusion in 30 min

A

A. 500 ml crystalloid over 15 min

128
Q

Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient during checking tubal patency?

A. Robin tube cannulation
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. hystero contrast salpingography
D. Hysteroscopic tube visualization
E. Laparoscopy and dye intubation
A

B. Hysterosalpingography

129
Q

Which modality you will use to check growing thyroid nodule in pregnancy?

A. Technetium scan
B. Radio isotope
C. Ultrasound 
D. CT
E. MRI
A

C. Ultrasound

130
Q

What is the SI Unit of magnetic field?

A. Tesla
B. Weber
C. Gray

A

A. Tesla

131
Q

What is the threshold for ultrasound frequency

A

20 KHz

132
Q

The difference between the peak and the base line of ultrasound wave is called?

A. Amplitude
B. Acoustic impedence
C. Frequency
D. Resolution
E. Wave length
A

A. Amplitude

133
Q

A 14-year-old girl is treated with radiotherapy. Which of following tissues is most radioresistant?

A. Intestinal epithelium 
B. Cerebral nuerons 
C. Respiratory epithelium 
D. Bone marrow 
E. Skin
A

B. Cerebral neurons

134
Q

An Asian woman books in for her third pregnancy at 12 weeks of gestation. She has recently moved to the UK from Thailand to be with her new husband. After pre -test counselling, with the aid of an interpreter, she agrees to hepatitis B virus (HBV) screening. The results return as follows. What is the significance of these results?

HBsAg POSITIVE
Anti-HBc POSITIVE
Anti-HBc IgM NEGATIVE
AntiHBs NEGATIVE

A.Post vaccination
B Resolved infection
C.Natural HBV immunity 
D.Chronic infection 
E.Acute HBV infection
A

D. Chronic infection

135
Q 
Women has PPROM at 29 weeks clear liquor managed conservatively as an outpatient, coticosteroids given. She came in labor at 32 weeks and delivered normally, complicated with pph after delivery. She was asses (on next day or after 2 days ) in ward round 
Pulse 120
RR 22
Temp 38.2
BP 110/50
Urine output 100ml in last 4 hours
Labs:
normal Hb
Tlc 18000
Plt normal 
Lactate 3
CRP >250
What is your diagnosis?

A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Sepsis
C. Internal bleeding

A

B. Sepsis

136
Q 
A pregnant woman got screening test for down's syndrome and the following report is obtained
Age related risk; 1:1000MoM 
AFP; 1.05MoM
β-hCG; 1.7 mom
NT : 0.85MoM
Test risk; 1:100000
What will you counsel this woman?
A. The fetus has down's syndrome
B. The fetus does not have down's syndrome
C. It is high risk for down's
D. It is low risk for down's
E. Ask the patient to go home
A

D. It is low risk for down’s

137
Q

Young girl secondary amenorrhea for 5 months

FSH 4
LH 3
Prolactin normal
TSH normal 
Diagnosis

A. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
B. Premature ovarian failure
C. Hyperthyroidism

A

A. Hypothalamic amenorrhea

138
Q

According to WHO definition of perinatal mortality

A

No. Of stillbirth after 22 week and early neonatal deaths

139
Q

*****A 28 y.o tall man, normally virialized and has regular daily exercise came for infertility check up

FSH <0.1iu/L
Testosterone 42
Prolactin 300

What is the diagnosis?

A Kallman
B steroid use
C retrograde ejaculation 
D pituitary adenoma 
E adrogen tumor
A

B steroid use

140
Q

Peripartum cardiomyopathy resembles to which type?

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy

141
Q

SIADH is associated with which cancer?

A

Small cell lung cancer

142
Q

23-year-old woman presents with fishy foul smelling vaginal odour. ‘Clue cells’are found in the smear. Which of the following cell types is belong to ‘Clue cells’?

A. Neutrophils
B. Natural killer cells
C. Lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
E. Vaginal Epithelial cells
A

E. Vaginal Epithelial cells

143
Q

Most common site of endometriosis?

A. Fallopian tube
B. Ovaries
C. Uterosacral
D. Pouch of douglas 
E. Peritoneum
A

B. Ovaries

144
Q

An 18 year-old woman is found to have a largely solid ovarian neoplasm. Tumor markers were obtained and demonstrated a markedly elevated LDH value.
Which of the following tumors is the most likely histology for this neoplasm?

A. Theca cell tumour
B. Dysgerminoma 
C. Immature teratoma 
D. Brenner cell tumour
E. Endodermal sinus tumour
A

B. Dysgerminoma

145
Q

Psammoma bodies are a histologic feature of ovarian papillary serous cystadenoma. ‘ Psammoma bodies’ are composed of

A. calcium 
B. iron
C. Fibrin 
D. Mucin
E. Lipid
A

A. calcium

146
Q

Two months postoperatively, a 55-year-old woman who is being treated with a diagnosis of small lung cancer presents with excessive polyuria and depression and urine showed
red cells +++ What is the electrolyte imbalance?

A. Hypernetremia 
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
E. Hypercalcemia
A

B. Hyponatremia

147
Q

Which cancer is most commonly diagnosed in pregnancy and postpartum

A. Breast cancer
B. Cervical cancer
C. Melanoma

A

A. Breast cancer

148
Q

Kleihauer test is a test to quantify the amount of fetal blood in maternal circulation, following a fetomaternal hemorrhage. What is the basis behind Kleihauer test?

A

HbF is resistant to denaturation by acids

149
Q

Commonest type of vulval Cancer:

A. Melanoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma

A

B. Squamous cell carcinoma

150
Q

In pre eclampsia what changes occur in kidney

A. Vascular enditheliosis
B. Acute renal failure
C. Glomerulonephritis

A

A. Vascular enditheliosis

151
Q

Most common type of degeneration in fibroid

A. red degeneration
B. Hyaline degeneration
C. sarcomatous changes

A

B. Hyaline degeneration

152
Q

What is the single best description for the histological appearance of the secretory endometrium?

A. Simple columnar 
B. Simple columnar with sub nuclear vacuolation 
C. Stratified columnar
D. Stratified cuboidal
E. Simple cuboidal epithelium
A

B. Simple columnar with sub nuclear vacuolation

153
Q

Which pattern of endometrim do simple endometrial hyperplasia most likely resemble?

A. Proliferative endometrium
B. Secretory endometrim
C. Endometritis
D. Endometrial polyp 
E. Endometrial carcinoma
A

A. Proliferative endometrim

154
Q

From which organ / system does the Krukenberg tumor of the ovaries originate from?

A. Lung
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Uterus
E. GIT
A

E. GIT

155
Q

Most common cancer type in fallopian tube?

A

Epithelial

156
Q

Patient presented in emergency with complain of shortness of breath and hemoptysis she has
history of miscarriage and histopathology showed molar pregnancy. Chest x ray showed above
pocture.which tumor marker is raised in this condition?

A

bHCG

157
Q

Patient with complete molar pregnancy with ultrasound showing bilateral cyst with thin septa?

A. Theca lutein cysts
B. PCOS
C. Corpus luteal cysts
D. Follicular cysts

A

A. Theca lutein cysts

158
Q

Ovarian solid mass on ultrasound Benign histopathology with spindle shaped cells, chest X ray
showing pleural effusion diagnosis?

A. Fibroma
B. Leiomyoma
C. Endomerioma
D. Dermoid

A

A. Fibroma (Meig’s)

159
Q

Most commonly seen female urethral cancer?

A. Transitional cell
B. Squamous cell
C. Adenocarcinoma

A

B. Squamous cell

160
Q

What is the most common congenital solid tumor of the newborn?

A. astrocyte
B. wilms tumor
C. Sacrococcygeal teratoma
D. hepatic Hemangioma

A

C. Sacrococcygeal teratoma

161
Q

Cystoscopy which showed papillary bladder cancer which is the commonest type of cancer in bladder.

A

Urothelial

162
Q

A women got infection in first trimester rash and joint pain later on ultrasound showed only fetal
ascites with no other structural defect

A

Parvovirus b19

163
Q

A patient is diagnosed as having Trichomonas vaginalis. What is the treatment?

A. 1gm metronidazole stat
B. Metronidazole 400 mg BD for 5 days
C. 1 gm Azithromycin

A

A. 1gm metronidazole stat

164
Q

Which group of viruses causes molluscum contagiosum?

A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes virus
C. Poxvirus
D. Parovirus

A

C. Poxvirus

165
Q

Bacteria causing sepsis in pregnancy

A. Group A streptococcus
B. Group Bstreptococcus

A

A. Group A streptococcus

166
Q

Bacteria causing toxic shock syndrome?

A. Staph aureus
B. Group B streptococcus

A

A. Staph aureus

167
Q

Condylomata lata seen in which stage of syphilis

A. Second stage syphilis
B. Third stage syphilis

A

A. Second stage syphilis

168
Q

Which HPV virus is high risk for cervical cancer

A. 33
B. 11
C. 6

A

A. 33

169
Q

Patient with IUCD came for a routine check up and high vaginal sab showed gonorrhoea. What will be your management?

A. Only remove iucd
B. Treat the patient with antibiotics and remove iucd
C. Treat with antibiotics and keep iucd in situ

A

C. Treat with antibiotics and keep iucd in situ

170
Q

Patient presented with thin yellow fishy smelling discharge. Vaginal ph 5What is the most likely causative organism?

A. Trichomonas
B. Gardenela vaginalis
C. Chlamydia
D. Gonorrhoea

A

B. Gardenela vaginalis

171
Q

Patient came out to be chlamydia positive. She is 12 weeks pregnant. what is the management plan?

A. Treat the partner
B. Do not treat the patient till delivery
C. Treat the patient and screen the partner
D. Answer treat the patient and screen the partner
E. Ask to use barrier method in pregnancy

A

C. Treat the patient (Azithromycin) and screen the partner

172
Q

Origin of macrophage

A- lymphocyte
B- neutrophil
C Monocytes

A

C. Monocytes

173
Q

Most important complement in opsonization

A. C3a
B. C3b

A

B. C3b

174
Q

Which of the following is the main immunoglobulin in mucosa?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
A

A. IgA

175
Q

Which antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are mainly found in the cervix?

A. Plasma cells
B. Hofbauer cells
C. Langerhans cells
D. B cells
E. T cells
A

C. Langerhans cells

176
Q

Rubella vaccine is which type of vaccine

A

Live attenuated vaccine

09/2016 (1 decks)

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