HGST, Carson 2017 Flashcards
1
Q
The purpose of the gun system is to provide the crew with an accurate, quick responsive weapon for close in, medium and long range suppressive fire on —— or —– type targets.
A
soft
medium
2
Q
- The AWS can be controlled by either crewmember in the normal mode when the active sight is ________ ____________ __________
A
HMD, TADS or FCR/UAV.
3
Q
- The system can also be employed in the FIXED (___ in elevation) mode which aligns the gun forward in azimuth to the helicopter __________
A
(+0.87° ; Armament Datum Line (ADL).
4
Q
- The software ballistic range limit is —– meters.
A
4200
5
Q
- The AWS will continue to follow_____ when operating in NVS —-mode.
A
FIXED
6
Q
- The Gun system consists of the following components:
A
- 30 mm M230E1 Chain Gun
- Gun turret assembly
- Gun System Controller (GSC)
- Ammunition handling system with Sideloader/Magazine Controller (S/MC)
- Gun Laser Pointer
7
Q
- In the event of power loss, the gun is spring driven to —– elevation to prevent ——- during landing.
A
+11° , dig-in
8
Q
- The rate of fire is _______ rounds per minute.
A
625 ±25
9
Q
- The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of ______ left or right of the helicopter centerline
A
86°
10
Q
- Elevation travel is ________ ____ ____ ____depression.
A
+11° (+9° elevation within ±10° of centerline), and -60°
11
Q
- The GSC controls all AWS functions to include _____ turret movement and _____
A
burst limits, rounds count
12
Q
- The maximum capacity of the ammunition handling system is ____ rounds.
A
1200
13
Q
- The S/MC performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions:
- __________
- Control of the Carrier Drive Assembly
- Control the Loader Assembly for uploading and downloading 30 mm ammunition
A
Counting of 30 mm rounds
14
Q
- The aircraft has provisions for mounting and operating a gun mounted laser pointing device. When the laser pointer is activated, gun ballistic compensations are _____ from the gun drive commands such that the laser will be aligned with the selected LOS.
A
removed
15
Q
- The 2 types of lasers are the ____ 1000P-W and the GCP-2C.
A
IZLID
16
Q
- The laser pointer is activated by actioning the gun in NORM mode and then selecting the Laser Pointer switch on either ____ or the ___ button on the RHG.
A
collective , HDD
17
Q
- The M230 gun, using M789 High Explosive Dual Purpose (HEDP) ammunition, is very effective up to _____ meters against light to moderate armor as well as personnel.
A
3000
18
Q
- Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in a catastrophic ___, loss of ___, injury or ___.
A
failure
aircraft
death
19
Q
- The gun duty cycle is as follows
A
Six 50 round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For BURST LIMIT settings other than 50, the cycle can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle may be repeated.
20
Q
- If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ten minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ___ minutes. Crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue ___
A
300
30
positive gun control
21
Q
- Gun dispersion is affected by several factors including the ____ bending under gun recoil forces.
A
fuselage
22
Q
- To maximize hit probability the round has to be placed so the target is under the fragmentation pattern. The traditional DMPI has always been _____; however, knowing fragmentation coverage will help optimize shot placement. Given the fragmentation foot print, DMPI selection should be ____ and/or ___ of the target to achieve the desired effects.
A
enter of mass;
offset
short
23
Q
- The M789 round has a velocity of approximately ___ meters per second at the muzzle and slows steadily thereafter.
A
805
24
Q
- The 30-mm audible signature travels at approximately ____ meters per second. Engagement at greater than ___- meters can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts; therefore, getting the first burst accurately on target will be worth the extra seconds to set up the shot.
A
331
2,000
25
Q
- ____ fire is more accurate than hover fire due to greater aircraft stability and ___ fire is more accurate than running fire due to the smaller beaten zone in reduced REP.
A
Running
diving
26
Q
- With the exception of _____ , penetration performance for single 30mm projectiles is not available. In order to breach typical MOUT targets structures, continued/concentrated fire is required.
A
rolled homogeneous armor
27
Q
- The M789 HEDP projectile is an anti-____ and anti-____ round capable of defeating light armored vehicles.
A
materiel
personnel
28
Q
- The M789 round steel case generates explosively driven fragments. The nominal burst radius is_______ meters; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, impact angle, velocity, and the target type.
A
4
29
Q
- The lethal impact pattern is improved by selecting an optimum ___ point and firing a sufficiently ____ burst to ensure adequate target coverage by ____ fragmentation patterns of individual rounds.
A
aim
large
overlapping
30
Q
- The maximum effective range of the 30-millimeter varies based upon target type and desired effect. Point targets can be accurately engaged out to ____ to ____ meters.
A
1,500
1,700
31
Q
For stationary engagements (stationary aircraft / stationary target), the crew should use ____ detent laser to determine the range. This will prevent the target state estimator (TSE) from calculating lead angle predictions due to range variations (overspill, underspill, thumbforce controller inputs) that may occur during a continuous lase.
A
first
32
Q
- During dynamic engagements (aircraft and/or target moving), ____ laser ranging is required to compensate for target and/or aircraft movement. Prior to firing, the CPG should verify a solid asterisk is displayed in front of the laser range for at least ____ seconds. This is an indication that the TSE is receiving valid range information necessary to calculate an accurate ballistic solution.
A
continuous
3-5
33
Q
- The TSE continues to provide dynamic range data for a ballistic solution for ____ seconds after the second detent laser trigger is released. It is important to note that the TSE will zero all dynamic values if the laser trigger (second detent) is released and re-pulled or the CPG selects first detent laser during the 10 seconds. If this occurs during a dynamic engagement, the CPG should verify good target track criteria is met and perform a continuous lase (solid asterisk displayed) for ___ before firing. *(As a technique for inexperienced front seaters, with LMC on, announce “LMC CATCH UP TO ME” prior to firing, to allow the TSE to calculate a valid ballistic solution.)
A
10
at least 3-5 seconds
34
Q
- What are the STANDING Danger Close distances per the JFIRE at the following ranges:
Firing Range (in Meters) Danger Close Standing (0.1% PI in Meters)
___
___
____
A
500 75
1,000 95
1,500 115
35
Q
- The flight mode commands the pylons to a single fixed position ____. The flight mode is automatically active at takeoff when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than ____ ___.
A
(+4°).
5 seconds
36
Q
- In flight the pylons remain in the flight mode until missiles or rockets are actioned. Pylons are independently controlled through a range of _____ in elevation.
A
+4° to -15°
37
Q
- In FIXED MODE the rocket pylons are positioned to ___.
A
+3.48°
38
Q
- MK-66 Rocket Motor/Warheads
• 6PD - Point Detonation, High Explosive • 6RC - Penetration, High Explosive
• 6MP - Time, Multipurpose Submunition • 6IL - Time, Illumination
• 6IL - Time, Infrared flare • 6SK - Time, Smoke
• 6FL – Flechette
A
Name the type based on 3 letter ID
39
Q
- Use of the MK66 MOD 2 rocket motor is ________.
A
prohibited
40
Q
- M439/M261/MK66 (MPSM) at ranges less than ___ meters and/or speeds greater than 90 kts are not authorized.
A
1000
41
Q
- When forward airspeed exceeds 10 KTAS, do not use M229/M423 (17 pounder PD) warhead/fuse combination for engagement of targets under ____ meters distance, and ensure the line of fire is clear of obstruction (trees/buildings) for at least 140 meters. When at a hover or forward airspeed is less than 10 KTAS, engagement distance and the requirement for line of fire to be clear of obstruction may be reduced to ____ meters. Firing this combination with the ballistics for the M151 (10 pounder) warhead will result in reduced rocket range.
A
140
110
42
Q
- Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than __ ft AGL, and for all other flight conditions of __ ft AGL, is not authorized.
A
7
5
43
Q
- Do not fire rockets with the M433 (Nose Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse in situations where they might fly closer than __ from other airborne helicopters.
A
51m
44
Q
- Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from ____ stations. Fire no more than ___ with two outboard launchers every three seconds, or fire with only __ outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted). These are the only conditions permitted.
A
inboard
pairs
one
45
Q
- Reinventory and attempting to fire 6MP, 6FL, and 6SK rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least ___ days to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset.
A
10
