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Pharm One Liners > High Yield > Flashcards

High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

Time it takes for the amount of a drug to fall to half its value, constant in first order kinetics (majority of drugs):

A

Half-life

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2
Q

Barbiturates, Phenytoin, Carbamazepine and Rifampin all do this:

A

Induce CYP450

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3
Q

Cimetidine, Ketoconazole, Isoniazid, and Grapefruit all do this:

A

Inhibit CYP450

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4
Q

Ability of drug to produce the maximal biologic effect:

A

Efficacy

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5
Q

MOA utilizes intracellular receptors:

A

Steroids and Hormones

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6
Q

MOA utilizes transmembrane receptors that have intrinsic enzymatic activity:

A

Insulin, EGF, TGF-beta, PDGF, ANP

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7
Q

Antidote for organophosphate / anticholinesterase poisoning:

A

Atropine, Pralidoxime

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8
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen (APAP) toxicity:

A

N-acetylcysteine

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9
Q

Antidote for heparin toxicity:

A

Protamine Sulfate

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10
Q

Antidote used for warfarin toxicity:

A

Vitamin K and FFP

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11
Q

Antidote for tPA, streptokinase:

A

Aminocaproic Acid

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12
Q

Antidote used for opioid toxicity:

A

Naloxone, Naltrexone

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13
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity:

A

Flumazenil

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14
Q

Interaction with this drug requires dose reduction of 6-MP:

A

Allopurinol

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15
Q

May protect against doxorubicin cardiotoxicity by chelating iron:

A

Dexrazoxane

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16
Q

Blows DNA (breaks up strands), limiting side effect is pulmonary fibrosis:

A

Bleomycin

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17
Q

Binds tubulin and prevents the disassembly of microtubules during the M phase of the cell cycle inducing mitotic arrest:

A

Paclitaxel (Taxol)

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18
Q

Anti-estroen used for estrogen receptor positive breast cancer:

A

Tamoxifen

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19
Q

Anti-emetics used in association with anti-cancer drugs that are 5-HT3 receptor antagonists:

A

Odansetron, Granisetron, Dolasetron, Palonosetron

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20
Q

Hormone inhibiting prolactin release:

A

Dopamine

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21
Q

ACTH analogue used for diagnosis of patients with corticosteroid abnormality:

A

Cosyntropin

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22
Q

Synthetic analogue of ADH used for DI and nocturnal enuresis:

A

Desmopressin

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23
Q

Agent of choice for treatment of hypothyroidism:

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

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24
Q

Thioamide less likely to cross the placenta, inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in high doses, indicated for use in women in their first trimester:

A

Propylthiouracin (PTU)

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25
Q

Propylthiouracil MOA:

A

Inhibits TPO

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26
Q

Side effects of corticosteroids:

A

Hyperglycemia, osteopenia, impaired wound healing, increased risk of infection, increased appetite, HTN, edema, PUD, euphoria, psychosis

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27
Q

Diuretic used to antagonize aldosterone receptors:

A

Spironolactone

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28
Q

Common side effect of spironolactone:

A

Gynecomastia, Hyperkalemia

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29
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used for prevention of osteoporosis and currently being tested for treatment of breast cancer:

A

Raloxifene

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30
Q

Non-steroidal estrogen agonist causes clear cell carcinoma of the vagina in daughters of women who used it during pregnancy:

A

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

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31
Q

Converted to a more active form by 5-alpha reductase:

A

Testosterone

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32
Q

Product of proinsulin cleavage used to assess endogenous insulin production:

A

C-peptide

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33
Q

Long-acting insulin:

A

Ultralente (Humalin U)

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34
Q

Amino acid derivative for treatment of Type II DM:

A

Nateglinide

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35
Q

Increases bone density, being tested for breast cancer treatment:

A

Raloxifene

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36
Q

Used intranasally, decreases bone resorption:

A

Calcitonin (Salmon Prep)

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37
Q

Drug that causes contraction of the uterus:

A

Oxytocin

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38
Q

Distribution of H1, H2 and H3 receptors:

A

H1: smooth muscle, mast cells
H2: stomach, heart, mast cells
H3: nerve endings, CNS

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39
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is highly sedating:

A

Diphenhydramine

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40
Q

2nd generation antihistamines:

A

Fexofenadine, Loratidine, Cetirizine

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41
Q

H2 blocker that causes the most interactions with other drugs:

A

Cimetidine

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42
Q

5-HT1D/1B agonist used for migraine headaches:

A

Sumatriptan, Naratriptan, Rizatriptan

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43
Q

Agents used for reduction of postpartum bleeding:

A

Oxytocin, Ergonovine

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44
Q

Agents used in treatment of carcinoid tumor:

A

Cyproheptadine

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45
Q

5-HT3 antagonist used in chemotherapeutic induced emesis:

A

Ondansetron, Granisetron, Dolasetron, Palonosetron

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46
Q

Ergot alkaloid used as an illicit drug:

A

LSD

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47
Q

Dopamine agonist used in hyperprolactinemia:

A

Bromocriptine

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48
Q

Mediator of tissue pain, edema, inactivated by ACE (may be the contributing factor to the development of angioedema):

A

Bradykinin

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49
Q

Drug causing depletion of substance P:

A

Capsaicin

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50
Q

Prostaglandins that cause abortions:

A

PGE1 (misoprostol), PGE2, PGF2-alpha

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51
Q

Inhibitor of lipoxygenase:

A

Zileuton

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52
Q

Used in pediatrics to maintain latency of ductus arteriosis:

A

PGE1 (alprostadil)

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53
Q

Prostaglandin used as second line treatment of ED:

A

PGE1 (alprostadil)

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54
Q

MOA of NO:

A

Stimulates cGMP which leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation

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55
Q

Muscarinic antagonist used in COPD:

A

Ipratropium, Tiotropium

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56
Q

MOA of cromalyn:

A

Blocked opening of chloride channels to prevent mast cell degranulation

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57
Q

Side effect of long term (> 5 day) corticosteroid therapy and remedy:

A

Adrenal suppression, weaning slowly

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58
Q

MOA of fluoroquinolones:

A

Inhibits topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and IV

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59
Q

Drugs used for MRSA:

A

Vancomycin

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60
Q

MOA of vancomycin:

A

Binds D-ala, D-ala on murein monomers and prevents polymerization of the murein monomers

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61
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis in exposed patients:

A

Rifampin

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62
Q

Technique used to diagnose perianal itching and the drug used to treat it:

A

Scotch tape test, mebendazole

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63
Q

MOA of sulfonamides:

A

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase

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64
Q

Cheap wide spectrum antibiotic DOC for otitis media:

A

Amoxicillin

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65
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of pseudomembranous colitis:

A

Metronidazole

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66
Q

Anemia caused by trimethoprim:

A

Megaloblastic

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67
Q

DOC for giardia, bacterial vaginosis, pseudomembranous colitis and trichamonas:

A

Metronidazole

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68
Q

Treatment for TB:

A

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

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69
Q

Common side effect of rifampin:

A

Orange urine

70
Q

DOC for influenza A and B:

A

Oseltamivir, Zanamivir

71
Q

DOC for RSV:

A

Ribavirin

72
Q

HIV antiviral class known to have severe drug interactions by causing inhibition of metabolism:

A

Protease inhibitors

73
Q

DOC for N. gonorrhea:

A

Ceftriaxone

74
Q

DOC for herpes and MOA:

A

Acyclovir; activates thymidine synthase

75
Q

Anti-bacterials that cause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency:

A

Sulfonamides

76
Q

Reason benzodiazepines are used cautiously in pregnancy:

A

Ability to cross the placenta

77
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepine overdose (antagonist to the CNS effects):

A

Flumazenil

78
Q

Agent metabolized by MEOS:

A

Ethanol

79
Q

System that increases activity with chronic exposure leading to tolerance:

A

MEOS

80
Q

The most common neurologic abnormality of alcoholics:

A

Peripheral neuropathy (also excessive alcohol use is associated with HTN, anemia and MI)

81
Q

DOC for generalized tonic-clinic seizures:

A

Valproic acid, Phenytoin, Carbamazepine

82
Q

DOC for absence seizures:

A

Ethosuxamide, Valproic acid

83
Q

DOC for myoclonic seizures:

A

Valproic acid

84
Q

Anti-seizure drug also used for neuropathic pain:

A

Gabapentin

85
Q

Side effects of Phenytoin:

A

Gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, ataxia, diplopia

86
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia that may be caused by the use of halogenated anesthetics:

A

Dantrolene

87
Q

Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that accelerates recovery from benzodiazepine overdose:

A

Flumazenil

88
Q

Opioid associated with awareness during surgery and post-operative recall but still used for high risk cardiovascular surgery:

A

Fentanyl

89
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia by acting on the sarcoplasmic reticulum or skeletal muscle:

A

Dantrolene

90
Q

Antipsychotics, reserpine at high doses, MPTP cause:

A

Drug-induced Parkinsonism

91
Q

Side effects occurring in antipsychotics that block dopamine:

A

EPS, hyperprolactinemia, amenorrhea, galactorrhea, neuroleptic malignant syndrome

92
Q

Antipsychotics shown not to cause tardive dyskinesia:

A

Clozapine, Quetiapine

93
Q

Patients being treated with lithium, who are dehydrated or taking diuretics concurrently could develop:

A

Lithium-induced nephrogenic DI

94
Q

DOC for bipolar affective disorder:

A

Lithium

95
Q

Side effect of lithium:

A

Tremor, sedation, ataxia, aphasia, thyroid enlargement and reversible DI

96
Q

TCA used in chronic pain, enuresis, and OCD:

A

Imipramine

97
Q

Unicyclic antidepressant least likely to affect sexual performance, used for management of nicotine withdrawal, side effects include dry mouth, dizziness, aggravation of psychosis and seizures:

A

Bupropion

98
Q

Activation of these receptors close calcium channels to inhibit neurotransmitter release and pain transmission:

A

Presynaptic Mu, Kappa and Delta

99
Q

Tolerance to all effects of opioid agonists can develop except:

A

Miosis, convulsions, constipation

100
Q

Opioid used in the management of withdrawal states:

A

Methadone

101
Q

Opioid available transdermally:

A

Fentanyl

102
Q

Opioid that can be given PO, by epidural, and IV which helps to relieve the dyspnea of pulmonary edema:

A

Morphine

103
Q

Moderate opioid agonists:

A

Codein, Hydrocodone, Oxycodone

104
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given IV and has short DOA:

A

Naloxone

105
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given orally in alcohol dependency:

A

Naltrexone

106
Q

Rapidly detected markers that may assist in diagnosis of the cause of drug overdose:

A

HR, BP, RR, temp, sweating, bowel signs, pupillary response

107
Q

This agent may cause more severe, rapid and intense symptoms to a recovering addict:

A

Naloxone

108
Q

“Date Rape Drug”

A

Flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)

109
Q

These agents are CNS depressants:

A

Ethanol, Barbiturates, Benzodiazepines

110
Q

Treatments available for nicotine addiction:

A

Patches, gum, nasal spray, psychotherapy, bupropion

111
Q

THC is the active ingredient, side effects include impairment of judgement and reflexes, decreases in blood pressure and psychomotor performance:

A

Marijuana

112
Q

this agent has greater affinity for muscarinic receptors and is used postoperatively in the treatment of ileus and urinary retention:

A

Bethanechol

113
Q

Toxicity to cholinergics:

A

DUMBELSS (Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis, Bronchoconstriction, Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, Lactimation, Salivation, Sweating)

114
Q

Treat manifestations of Parkinson disease and EPS:

A

Benztropine, Trihexyphenidyl

115
Q

Treatment of motion sickness:

A

Scopolamine

116
Q

Produce mydriasis and cycloplegia:

A

Atropine and other anti-muscarinic agents

117
Q

Bronchodilation in asthma and COPD:

A

Ipratropium, Tiotropium

118
Q

Pneumonic fo beta receptors:

A

1 heart, 2 lungs

119
Q

These agents decrease blood flow or increase blood pressure, are local decongestant and used in therapy of spinal shock:

A

Alpha1 agonists

120
Q

Alpha 1 agonist toxicity:

A

Hypertension

121
Q

Selective alpha 1 blocker used for HTN, BPH, may cause first dose orthostatic hypotension:

A

Prazosin, Terazosin, Doxazosin

122
Q

Selective B1 receptor blockers that may be useful in treating cardiac conditions in patients with asthma:

A

Acebutalol, Atenalol, Esmolol, Metoprolol

123
Q

This beta blocker lacks local anesthetic activity (decreases protective reflexes and increases risk of corneal ulceration) and used in treating glaucoma:

A

Timolol

124
Q

These beta blockers decrease aqueous secretion:

A

Timolol (non selective), Betaxalol (selective)

125
Q

Captopril and enalopril are:

A

ACE inhibitors

126
Q

Side effect of ACE inhibitors:

A

Dry cough

127
Q

Side effect of calcium channel blockers:

A

Constipation, edema, headache

128
Q

Reduce heart rate, contractility and oxygen demand:

A

Beta blockers

129
Q

Cardioselective beta blockers:

A

Atenalol, Acebutalol, Metoprolol

130
Q

Side effect of beta blockers:

A

Bradycardia, Sexual Dysfunction, decrease in HDL, increase in TG

131
Q

Alpha 1 selective blockers:

A

Prazosin, Terazosin, Doxazosin

132
Q

A1a selective blocker used for BPH:

A

Tamsulosin (Flomax)

133
Q

Side effect of alpha blockers:

A

Orthostatic hypotension (particularly first dose), reflex tachycardia

134
Q

Methyldopa is contraindicated in:

A

Geriatrics due to its CNS depressive effects

135
Q

Side effect of hydralazine:

A

Lupus-like effect

136
Q

Diuretic used as prophylaxis for mountain sickness and glaucoma:

A

Acetazolamide

137
Q

Dise effects of acetazolamide:

A

Paresthesias, alkalization of the urine leasing to precipitation of calcium salts, hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis, encephalopathy in patients with hepatic impairment

138
Q

Site of action of loop diuretics:

A

Thick ascending limb

139
Q

Side effects of loop diuretics:

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, ototoxicity

140
Q

Electrolyte that is lost in the urine by acute treatment with loop diuretics but can be retained by thiazides:

A

Calcium

141
Q

Site of action of thiazide diuretics:

A

Early distal tubule

142
Q

Side effects of HCTZ:

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia

143
Q

MOA of amiloride:

A

Inhibit epithelial sodium channels in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts

144
Q

Diuretics used to treat primary aldosteronism:

A

Spironolactone

145
Q

Side effects of spironolactone:

A

Gynecomastia, hyperkalemia, impotence

146
Q

Diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure:

A

Mannitol

147
Q

MOA of 1A (procainamide), 1B (lidocaine) and 1C (flecainide) antiarrhythmics:

A

Sodium channel blockers

148
Q

Side effect of procainamide:

A

Lupus-like syndrome

149
Q

Limiting side effect of quinidine:

A

Prolongs QT interval

150
Q

Life treating cardiac event preceded by long QT:

A

TdP

151
Q

MOA of sildenafil (Viagra):

A

Inhibits PDE-5, enhancing effects of NO-activated increases in cGMP

152
Q

MOA of nitrates:

A

Relaxes vascular smooth muscle (veins at low doses and arterioles at high doses)

153
Q

Heparin (PTT) increase activity of:

A

Antithrombin III

154
Q

Antidote to reverse actions of heparin:

A

Protamine sulfate

155
Q

Side effect of ASA:

A

GI bleeding

156
Q

MOA of thrombolytics:

A

Lyse thrombi catalyzing the formation of plasmin which bind fibrin

157
Q

Thrombolytics are used for:

A

PE and DVT

158
Q

Agent for pernicious anemia:

A

Cyanocobalamin

159
Q

Agent used for megaloblastic anemia (does not reverse neurologic symptoms) and decrease neural tube defects during pregnancy:

A

Folate

160
Q

Agent used for anemias associated with renal failure:

A

EPO

161
Q

How drug or food (grapefruit juice) increase statin effect:

A

Inhibit CYP450 3A4

162
Q

Monitoring parameter to obtain before initiation of statin:

A

LFTs

163
Q

Decreases liver TG synthesis:

A

Niacin

164
Q

Side effect of niacin:

A

Cutaneous flushing

165
Q

Fibrates (Gemfibrozil) increase activity of:

A

Lipoprotein lipase

166
Q

Agent used for closer of PDA:

A

Indomethacin

167
Q

Acetaminophen only has what properties:

A

Antipyretic and analgesic

168
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen toxicity:

A

N-acetylcysteine

169
Q

DMARDs are slow acting drugs for:

A

Rheumatic disease

170
Q

Agent that inhibits xanthine oxidase and used to treat chronic gout:

A

Allopurinol, Febuxostat

Pharm One Liners (1 decks)

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