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Path Mega Deck > Histopathology > Flashcards

Histopathology Flashcards

1
Q

Caseating necrosis

A

TB

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2
Q

What type of epithelium has intercellular bridges?

A

Squamous

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3
Q

What type of epithelium has keratin?

A

Squamous

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4
Q

Stain used for amyloid

A

Congo Red (stains amyloid bright red)

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5
Q

Amyloid under polarised light looks like…

A

Apple green birefringence

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6
Q

Villous atrophy and crypt hyerplasia

A

Coeliac

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7
Q

Antibodies in Coeliac

A

Anti-EMA and anti-TTG (endomysial and tissue transglutaminase)

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8
Q

Skin complication of coeliac

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis (“blistering rash on elbow/knees”)

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9
Q

Pancreatic calcifications

A

Chronic pancreatitis (diagnostic)

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10
Q

What cancer type is “mucin-secreting glands set in desmoplastic stroma”

A

Adenocarcinoma

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11
Q

Rosette Cells

A

Neuroendocrine tumours

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12
Q

Rokitansky-Aschoff sinus

A

Chronic Cholecystitis
• Diverticula in gall bladder (due to obstruction)
o Gallbladder pumps harder to get rid of obstruction
o –> Increases pressure inside gallbladder
o –> Rokitansky-Aschoff sinus:

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13
Q

Liver with lots of nodules

A

Cirrhosis (nodules = regenerating hepatocytes)

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14
Q

Liver biopsy shows nodular hepatocyte with collagen cuff around it

A

Cirrhosis

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15
Q

Spotty necrosis and interface hepatitis

A 
Acute hepatitis
(Spotty necrosis = foci of inflammation and apoptosis-> happens in all acute hepatitis)
(Interface hepatitis = can’t see where hepatocytes end and portal tract begins = T cell destruction of hepatocytes)
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16
Q

Ballooning of hepatocytes

A

Alcoholic hepatitis (most important feature – shows that they are apoptosing)

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17
Q

Bowel disease where don’t pass meconium in first 24 hrs

A

Hirschsprung’s Disease

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18
Q

Pericellular fibrosis around hepatocytes

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

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19
Q

Liver disease causing itchy skin

A

Primary Biliary Cholangitis (bile acids escape to circulation)

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20
Q

Test for Primary Biliary Cholangitis

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

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21
Q

Gut disease occurring in “watershed zones” (splenic flexure and rectosigmoid)

A

Ischaemic Colitis (watershed zones are far from gut’s blood supply)

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22
Q

ERCP: “beaded appearance”

A

Primary Sclerosis Cholangitis

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23
Q

Chocolate brown liver

A

Haemachromatosis

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24
Q

What stain used for iron in Haemachromatosis?

A

Prussian Blue (brown iron stained blue)

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25
Q

What stain used in Wilson’s Disease?

A

Rhodamine stain

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26
Q

Eye sign in Wilson’s Disease

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings (brown ring around edge of iris)

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27
Q

Very steroid responsive liver disease

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

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28
Q

Hirschsprung’s Disease associated with which congenital disease?

A

Down Syndrome

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29
Q

Mallory-Denk Bodies

A

Alcoholic hepatitis (hepatocyte damage)

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30
Q

Liver disease with increased gamma globulin

A

Primary Sclerosis Cholangitis

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31
Q

IBD: Whole GI tract affected (mouth to anus)

A

Crohn’s

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32
Q

IBD: Only large bowel affected = moves upwards from anus

A

Ulcerative Colitis

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33
Q

IBD: Inflammation confined to mucosa (not though wall)

A

Ulcerative Colitis

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34
Q

IBD: Cobblestone mucosa

A

Crohn’s

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35
Q

IBD: Crypt abscess

A

Ulcerative Colitis

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36
Q

IBD: Transmural inflammation

A

Crohn’s

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37
Q

Lip and mouth complications of Crohn’s

A 
Cheilitis = inflammation of lips (look dry and cracked)
Stomatitis = mouth ulcers
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38
Q

Extra-intestinal complication of Ulcerative Colitis

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

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39
Q

Skin complication of Crohn’s

A

Erythema multiforme/nodosum

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40
Q

Dangerous bowel complication of Ulcerative Colitis

A

Toxic megacolon

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41
Q

Ulcerative Colitis increases risk of which cancer?

A

Bowel Adenocarcinoma

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42
Q

Mouth ulcers in which GI condition?

A

Crohn’s

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43
Q

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis involves mutation in which gene?

A

APC tumour suppressor gene (chromosome 5q21)

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44
Q

Colorectal cancer in very young person. What disease do they have?

A

Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC)

  • poorly differentiated and mucinous carcinomas
  • often carcinomas proximal to splenic flexure
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45
Q

Brain biopsy shows piloid “hairy” cell with Rosenthal fibres

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

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46
Q

Heterogeneous and enhancing brain tumour

A

Glioblastoma Multiforme

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47
Q

Brain tumour with long history of neuro signs/seizures

A

Oligodendrogliomas

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48
Q

Co-deletion is specific for which brain tumour?

A

Oligodendrogliomas (co-deletion of 1p/19q)

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49
Q

Cystic cerebellar lesions

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

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50
Q

Whorl pattern (spirals) on brain biopsy

A

Meningioma

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51
Q

Brain cells look like fried eggs (round cells with clear cytoplasm)

A

Oligodendrogliomas

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52
Q

Small blue round cell brain tumour, with Homer-Wright Rosettes

A

Medulloblastoma

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53
Q

Brain tumour in patient who had lobectomy 5 years ago

A

Brain mets (lobectomy = previous cancer)

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54
Q

Medulloblastoma expresses this neuronal marker

A

Synaptophysin

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55
Q

Can’t see gyrae on brain MRI

A

Cerebral Oedema (can’t see gyrae because tightly compressed)

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56
Q

T2-weighted brain MRI shows “target sign”

A

Cavernous Angioma

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57
Q

Head injury with runny nose and ears

A

Skull fracture (esp hairline fracture = extend into base of skull)

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58
Q

Beta-amyloid plaques in Hippocampus

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

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59
Q

What protein accumulates in Parkinson’s?

A

Alpa-synuclein (forms Lewy Bodies)

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60
Q

Balloon Neurones

A

Pick’s Disease

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61
Q

Cortical atrophy on brain MRI (Widening of sulcae, shrinkage of gyrae)

A

Alzheimer’s Disease (lose brain tissue)

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62
Q

Frontotemporal atrophy on brain MRI

A

Pick’s Disease

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63
Q

Amyloid lines cerebral vessel walls

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

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64
Q

Tau protein

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

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65
Q

Pick Bodies in hippocampus

A

Pick’s Disease

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66
Q

What genetic condition increases risk of kidney cancer?

A

Von Hippel Lindau

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67
Q

Cancer with frond-like growths (like a leaf)

A

Non-Invasive Papillary Urothelial Carcinoma

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68
Q

Testicular cancer which can differentiate into other cancer types (e.g. lung)

A

Post-Pubertal Teratoma

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69
Q

Schiller-Duval Body

A

Yolk Sac Tumour (testicular cancer in <3yrs)

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70
Q

Testicular cancer presenting with precocious puberty

A

Leydig Cell Tumour (releases hormones)

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71
Q

Skin disease which is Nikolsky’s Sign Positive

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris (slight rubbing detaches upper epidermis from lower epidermis)

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72
Q

Skin bubbles which do not easily rupture

A

Bullous Pemphigoid

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73
Q

Skin disease with hyperkeratosis

A

Contact Dermatitis (epidermis thicker after scratching)

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74
Q

Silvery plaques on extensor surfaces

A

Plaque Psoriasis

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75
Q

Skin disease with white lines in mouth

A

Lichen Planus

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76
Q

Horn cysts

A

Seborrhoeic Keratosis (entrapped keratin- surrounded by proliferating epidermis)

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77
Q

Skin bubbles which easily rupture

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris

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78
Q

Skin lesion with smooth surface, non-mobile, central punctum

A

Sebaceous Cyst

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79
Q

Skin lesion with rolled pearly white border, central ulceration

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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80
Q

Crusty, non-healing ulcer with everted edge on sun-exposed areas

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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81
Q

Weird horns growing on skin

A

Bowen’s Disease = Early Form of SCC

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82
Q

Rodent Ulcer

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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83
Q

Stain for melanin

A

Fontana stain

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84
Q

Herald Patch

A

Pityriasis Rosea (salmon-pink, scaly –> rash on trunk)

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85
Q

Skin cancer which does NOT metastasise

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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86
Q

Skin viral infection which causes target lesions

A

Pityriasis Rosea = HHV6/7 (get URTI before rash)

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87
Q

Low-risk HPV types

A

HPV 6 and 11

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88
Q

High-risk HPV types

A

HPV 16 and 18

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89
Q

Bone disease with mottled rarefaction (bone thinner) and lifting of periosteum

A

Osteomyelitis

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90
Q

Bone biopsy contains multinucleated Langerhans-type Giant cells

A

TB Bone Disease

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91
Q

Joint disease with osteophytes

A

Osteoarthritis

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92
Q

Joint disease with spares the distal interphalangeal joint

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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93
Q

Grimley-Sokoloff cells in biopsy

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis (multinucleated giant cells specific for RA)

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94
Q

Bone X-Ray shows “onion-skinning” of periosteum

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

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95
Q

Bone disease with Codman Triangle on X-Ray

A

Osteosarcoma - see in kids

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96
Q

Bone X-Ray is lytic with fluffy calcification

A

Chondrosarcoma

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97
Q

Joint disease with subcondral sclerosis and subcondral cyst

A

Osteoarthritis

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98
Q

Bone disease with sheets of small round blue cells on biopsy

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

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99
Q

Lung disease with Curschmann’s Spiral

A

Asthma

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100
Q

Lung infection which does not have consolidation on CXR, but shows patchy changes. Terminal event which kills off old person.

A

Bronchopneumonia

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101
Q

Central lung tumour

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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102
Q

Lung cancer containing “large cells”

A

Large Cell Carcinoma

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103
Q

Oat-shaped lung cells on biopsy

A

Small Cell Lung Cancer

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104
Q

Cancer which causes pleural thickening

A

Mesothelioma

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105
Q

Peripheral lung tumour

A

Adenocarcinoma

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106
Q

Ovarian cancer type which is strongly associated with endometriosis

A

Clear Cell Carcinoma

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107
Q

Ovarian cancer which causes virilisation

A

Sertoli-Leydig Cell tumour: makes androgens

108
Q

Ovarian cancer which differentiates into all types of human tissue (teeth, hair, brain)

A

Mature Teratoma (germ cell tumour)

109
Q

Painful red breast, very tender on palpation

A

Acute Mastitis

110
Q

Hard, firm breast lump

A

Fat Necrosis

111
Q

Lumpy breast

A

Fibrocystic Disease

112
Q

Breast lump which shows leaf-like throngs of stroma on biopsy

A

Phyllodes Tumour (Phyllodes means leaf)

113
Q

Breast lump which shows 3D cluster of cells on biopsy

A

Intraductal Papilloma

114
Q

Stellate masses on mammogram (incidental finding)

A

Radial Scar

115
Q

Breast cancer causing eczema around nipple

A

Ductal Carcinoma in Situ

Paget’s Disease of the Nipple = because DCIS goes along ducts–> can arise at nipples= where all ducts lead to…

116
Q

Breast cancer which has “India File pattern” on biopsy

A

Lobular Carcinoma

117
Q

Breast cancer with sheets of atypical cells with lymphocytic infiltrate

A

Basal-Like Carcinoma

118
Q

Breast cancer recognised as microcalcifications on mammogram

A

Ductal Carcinoma in Situ

119
Q

Most important prognostic marker in breast cancer

A

Spread to axillary lymph nodes

120
Q

Autoimmune condition with Libman-Sacks cardiac sign

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Libman-Sacks = non-infective endocarditis

121
Q

Antibodies for diffuse systemic sclerosis

A

Anti-topoisomerase antibodies

122
Q

Antibodies for limited systemic sclerosis

A

Anti-centromere antibody

123
Q

Gottron’s Papules on fingers

A

Dermatomyositis

124
Q

“Wire-looping” of glomeruli on biopsy

A

SLE
(thickened glomerular capillary loops
due to immune complex deposition in basement membrane surrounding capillaries)

125
Q

Anti-Smith used in which autoimmune condition?

A

SLE

126
Q

Small arteries look like onion skins on biopsy

A 
Systemic Sclerosis 
(intimal thickening of small arteries  --> hypertensive crisis)
127
Q

Autoimmune condition with lupus pernio (ring splodgy lesion at bottom of nose)

A

Sarcoidosis

128
Q

Palpable purpuric rash

A

Vasculitis

129
Q

Erythema rash of palms & soles–> desquamation (peeling)

A

Kawasaki’s Disease

130
Q

“Rosary sign” on angiogram

A

Polyarteritis Nodosa (Small aneurysms strung along arteries)

131
Q

Antibody in Wegener’s (Granulomatosis with polyangiitis)

A

C-ANCA against proteinase 3

132
Q

Antibody in Churg-Strauss (Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with polyangiitis)

A

P-ANCA against myeloperoxidase

133
Q

Vasculitis after chest infection in child

A

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)

134
Q

Autoimmune condition with ENT, lung and kidney problems

A

Wegener’s (Granulomatosis with polyangiitis)

135
Q

Statins inhibit this enzyme

A

HMG-CoA Reductase

136
Q

Which protein can cause restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Amyloid

137
Q

Palpable spleen with notch, and microscopic haematuria

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

slowly develops, due to friendly bacteria like strep viridans

138
Q

Hurthle cells

A

Hashimoto’s

thyroid epithelial cells are enlarged, filled with eosinophils

139
Q

Psammoma Body

A

Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma

140
Q

Which thyroid cancer produces amyloid?

A

Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma

141
Q

A 46 year old women presents to A&E out of breath and with severe chest pain. On examination a mid systolic click late systolic murmur is revealed.

A

Myxomatous mitral valve

causes mitral valve prolapse

142
Q

Cystic tumour lined by epithelium

A

Cystadenoma

143
Q

A 38 year old female with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a single episode of malaena. Investigations reveal erosions through out the stomach and a neutrophilic infiltrate in the superficial mucosa

A

Acute Gastritis

144
Q

Which ulcer is relieved by meals, and which is worsened?

A

Duodenal ulcer relieved by meals

Gastric ulcer worsened by meals

145
Q

Positive CLO test

A

Duodenal ulcer

146
Q

A jejunal biopsy showed periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive macrophages

A

Whipple’s disease

147
Q

‘Leather bottle stomach’ (infiltration into all layers of the gastric wall)
Signet ring cells on biopsy

A

Adenocarcinoma

148
Q

Sarcoidosis has raised levels of which enzyme?

A

ACE!

149
Q

Stomach looks like a leather bottle, and contains signet-ring cells

A

Gastric carcinoma

150
Q

Carcinogen which directly causes hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Aflatoxin (made by Aspergillus- seen in cereals and nuts)

151
Q

Mobile breast lump which grow during menstrual cycle

A

Fibroadenoma (oestrogen causes to grow)

152
Q

Breast disease with peau d’orange, Paget’s Disease of Breast, nipple retraction

A

Infiltrating Ductal Carcinoma (arise from DCIS)

153
Q

Inverted U loop of bowel

A

Sigmoid volvulus

154
Q

Constipated with abdo pain that is relieved by pooing

A

Diverticular Disease

155
Q

Cauliflower-like mass covered by dysplastic columnar epithelium in the rectum

A

Villous adenoma

156
Q

Widespread itching, plethoric and hepatosplenomegaly

A

Polycythaemia rubra vera

157
Q

Green-brown discolouration at the peripheries of her corneas

+confusion and tremor (in young person)

A

Wilson’s Disease

158
Q

Old man with palpable mass in right loin, and hypercalcaemia

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma

hypercalcaemia = humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy

159
Q

Old man with dysuria, frequency and red urine

A 
Bladder Cancer 
(red urine = FRANK haematuria)
160
Q

Ovarian cancer containing different cell types (thyroid, hair, teeth)

A

Cystic Teratoma

161
Q

Antibody used to diagnose CREST

A

Anti-centromere

162
Q

T2DM drug which inhibits the enzyme alpha glucosidase in the brush border membrane of the small bowel

A

Acarbose

leaves undigested sugar in the bowel giving wind as a side effect

163
Q

Bone biopsy reveals sheets of cells with small, primitive nuclei and scanty cytoplasm. A positive immunoreactivity is seen with the MIC2 (CD99) antibody.

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

164
Q

Mottled rarefaction and lifting of the periosteum are seen on X-ray

A

Osteomyelitis

165
Q

Lung cancer subtype with bilateral ptosis and proximal weakness in the limbs which improves on repeated testing

A

Small cell carcinoma

166
Q

Young person with thyroid lump and high thyroglobulin = what type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary carcinoma

167
Q

Hyperthyroid, then hypothyroid, then euthyroid (with fever)

A

De Quervain’s

168
Q

Largest ovarian neoplasm (90% benign)

A

Mucinous Tumour

169
Q

Ovarian cancer: fibrous tissue containing spindle cells and lipid

A

Thecoma

170
Q

Ovarian cancer: malignant cells surrounded by serous fluid and Psammoma bodies

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

171
Q

Ovarian cancer: malignant signet ring cells containing mucin

A

Krukenberg tumour

172
Q

Painful ulceration of the vulval skin. Intraepithelial blisters, intranuclear viral inclusions and eosinophilic cytoplasmic swelling

A

HSV

173
Q

Pap smear taken from a chronic granulomatous ulcer shows a necrotic centre, periarteritis and endarteritis obliterans and an intense peripheral cellular infiltrate consisting mainly of mononuclear cells and giant cells.

A

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

174
Q

Vaginal irritation – silver stain reveals fungi within the keratin layer and superficial epithelium

A

Candida albicans

175
Q

The metaplasia that occurs in the transformation zone involves which cell-types?

A

Glandular to squamous epithelium

176
Q

Anti-topoisomerase antibody

A

Diffuse Scleroderma (needs involvement of one internal organ)

177
Q

Anti-centromeres antibody

A

Limited scleroderma (skin manifestations and CREST)

178
Q

H. Pylori affects which part of the stomach the most?

A

Pyloric antrum

179
Q

HLA associated with Type 1 DM

A

HLA DR3 and DR4

180
Q

Pain in femur/hip
X-Ray: “soap bubble” appearance (osteolysis) and Shepherd’s Crook Deformity
Biopsy: irregular trabeculae of woven bone - looks like Chinese letters

A

Fibrous Dysplasia = lesions containing fibrous and bone tissue

181
Q

Most common cause of lobar pneumonia

A

Strep pneumoniae = 95% lobar pneumonia!

182
Q
  1. Central lung tumour

2. Peripheral lung tumour

A
  1. Squamous Cell Carcinoma

2. Adenocarcinoma

183
Q

“Spares the distal interphalangeal joint”

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

184
Q

Bamboo spine (fusion of spine)

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

185
Q

White cell casts in urine

A

Acute pyelonephritis

186
Q

Red cell casts in urine

A

Glomerulonephritis

187
Q

Eosinophils in urine

A

Tubulointerstitial Nephritis

188
Q

ANCA and vasculitic rash – what type of glomerulonephritis?

A

Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis

189
Q

IBD: “rubber hose” gut wall

A

Crohn’s Disease

190
Q

Early bowel cancer, with adenomata in large bowel

A

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

-autosomal dominant (mutation in FAP gene on Chr5)

191
Q

Early bowel cancer, with no adenomata in large bowel

A

Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC)

-autosomal dominant

192
Q

Breast biopsy shows necrosis with multinucleated giant cells –> fibrosis

A

Fat Necrosis

193
Q

Pepperpot skull

A

Primary Hyperparathyroidism

194
Q

Raindrop skull

A

Multiple myeloma

195
Q

Blood-stained nipple discharge –> lump has branching fibrovascular cores covered by cytologically bland epithelium

A

Duct Papilloma

196
Q

Hard, calcified lump –> cells have pleomorphic nuclei and that the lump has a necrotic centre

A

Ductal Carcinoma in situ

197
Q

Multifocal lumps in young person

A

Lobular Carcinoma in situ

198
Q

Nipple retraction

A

Invasive Carcinoma

199
Q

Firm palpable mass with signs of tethering. 4-month history of back pain

A

Invasive Carcinoma

200
Q

What causes galactorrhoea in hypothyroidism?

A

Increased TRH

201
Q

Tender bump, but contains inflammatory cells and proteinaceous debris only. A few weeks after giving birth

A

Duct Ectasia

202
Q

Firm breast lump – histology: long clefts with myxoid cellular stroma

A

Phyllodes Tumour

203
Q

Back and neck pain which improves with exercise.

Spinal X-rays show ‘bony bridges’ between the vertebrae.

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

204
Q

Arthritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis – after GI/STI infection

A

Reiter’s Syndrome = Reactive Arthritis (“can’t see, pee or bend their knee”)

205
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris has antibodies against what?

A

Desmoglein-1 and 3 (cadherins in epidermis)

206
Q

Hep B associated with this vasculitis

A

Polyarteritis nodosa (immune complexes deposit in vessels –> necrosis –> aneurysms)

207
Q

Acantholytic cells on skin biopsy

A

Pemphigus vulgaris – acantholytic = separation of keratinocytes due to loss of cadherin connections

208
Q

Antibodies against hemidesmosomes of skin basement membrane

A

Bullous pemphigoid

209
Q

Causes “backwash ileitis”

A

Ulcerative Colitis (backwash of poo into ileum –> ileitis)

210
Q

Liver tumour in woman taking COCP

A

Hepatic Adenoma –> need to avoid pregnancy

211
Q

Biliary brush cytology shows cellular discohesion and a high nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

212
Q

Visit tropical country –> malabsorption and thickened small bowel loops on imaging

A

Tropical sprue

213
Q

Thyroid cancer associated with RET mutation

A

Medullary

214
Q

Calcitonin staining used in this thyroid cancer

A

Medullary

215
Q

Thyroid cancer = cystic lesion with papillary architecture and clear cytoplasm

A

Papillary carcinoma

216
Q

Bone pain and low calcium in someone who has kidney problems

A

Renal Osteodystrophy (kidneys can’t convert D3 to calcitriol)

217
Q

Pins and needles in legs in osteoporosis

A

Vertebral Collapse

218
Q

X-Ray hand: small resorptive lesions in the bones of the 4th and 5th digits

A

Hyperparathyroidism

219
Q

Widened epiphyseal plates

A

Osteomalacia

220
Q

Troisier’s Sign +ve

A

Virchow’s node enlargement (abdo cancer)

221
Q

Loss of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus

A

Achalasia = increased tone in oesophagus

222
Q

Perforation of the oesophagus due to rise in internal oesophageal pressure while vomiting e.g. alcoholism, bulimia

A

Boerhaave Syndrome

223
Q

Bloody discharge from nipple –> mammogram does not show any lesions

A

Intraductal Papilloma (need galactogram)

224
Q

Collapse suddenly while exercising. Echo shows asymmetrical thickening of septum

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

225
Q

Endocarditis with SLE

A

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis

226
Q

Young man with SOB/palpitations – have narrowing of left ventricular outflow tract

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

227
Q

Psammoma bodies found in which type of ovarian cancer?

A

Serous

228
Q

Vitamin deficiency causing Subacute Combined Degeneration of Cord

A

B12

229
Q

Vitamin deficiency causing dry skin, dry eyes (and immature retinas)

A

A

230
Q

Anti-ANA and anti-RNP

A

Mixed connective tissue disease

231
Q

Head CT shows crescent-shaped lesion (in alcoholic)

A

Subdural haemorrhage

232
Q

Deletion of APC gene

A

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

233
Q

Pancreatic tumour with KRAS mutation

A

Pancreatic Ductal Carcinoma

234
Q

Most common autoantibody in SLE

A

Anti-ANA

235
Q

Tumour marker in papillary and follicular thyroid cancer

A

Thyroglobulin

236
Q

Ca 19-9 tumour marker

A

Pancreatic and biliary

237
Q

Ca 15-3 tumour marker

A

Breast

238
Q

hCG and LDH tumour markers

A

Testicular

239
Q

Symmetrical, erythematous lesions – with “central clearing”, and some have overlying vesicles/bullae

A

Erythema multiforme (Type IV Hypersensitivity)

240
Q

Many lytic lesions in epiphysis of knee –> soap-bubble appearance

A

Gaint Cell Tumour

241
Q

This feature is diagnostic of chronic pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic calcifications

242
Q

Most common pancreatic cancer

A

Ductal carcinoma – more common in head

243
Q

Pancreatic cancer found in tail of pancreas

A

Neuroendocrine

244
Q

Mutation found in pancreatic cancer

A

K-Ras

245
Q

Composition of radiolucent gallstones

A

Cholesterol

246
Q

Iron-storage complex (found in haemachromatosis, stained by Prussian Blue)

A

Haemosiderin

247
Q

Commonest liver tumour

A

Haemangioma = benign

248
Q

Commonest malignant liver tumour

A

Mets!

249
Q

Old man with colicky abdo pain relieved by pooing

A

Diverticular Disease (low fibre diet)

250
Q

Most common bowel cancer type

A

Adenocarcinoma 98%

251
Q

This disease predisposes to pilocytic astrocytoma

A

Neurofibromatosis 1

252
Q

Cancer that astrocytomas always become

A

Glioblastoma

253
Q

This makes CSF

A

Choroid plexus

254
Q

Commonest cause of coma in brain injury

A

Diffuse Axonal Injury

255
Q

Causes Tau -ve Pick’s Disease

A

Progranulin mutation

256
Q

Type of kidney stone in proteus infection

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate (Struvite)

257
Q

Most common renal cancer (“golden yellow tumour”)

A

Clear Cell Renal Carcinoma

258
Q

Triphasic renal tumour

A

Nephroblastoma (Wilm’s)

259
Q

Amplification of this is used to show if tumour is testicular germ cell tumour

A

i12p

260
Q

Most common testicular cancer

A

Seminoma

261
Q

Composition of inorganic bone

A

Calcium hydroxyapatite

262
Q

Bone tumour caused by t(11;22)

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

263
Q

Ovarian cancer that makes oestrogen

A

Granulosa Cell

264
Q

Thyroid cancer containing amyloid

A

Medullary (calcitonin broken down to amyloid)

265
Q

+ve CLO test

A

H. pylori

266
Q

Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive macrophages

A

Whipple’s Disease

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