Histopathology EMQs Flashcards

1
Q
A Monckeberg arteriosclerosis
B Infective endocarditis
C Dressler’s syndrome
D Dilated cardiomyopathy
E Rheumatic heart disease
F Left heart failure
G Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
H Aortic stenosis
I Carcinoid syndrome

A 36-year-old man presents to accident and emergency with a 1-day history of
a fever of 39.2°C and night sweats. A new heart murmur is detected by the oncall
cardiologist. The patient admits to being an intravenous drug user.

A

B Infective endocarditis

Infective endocarditis (IE; B) results from bacterial-vegetation of heart
valves. Acute IE has a time course of days and is usually caused by
Staphylococcus aureus in intravenous drug users; both sides of the
heart can be affected, but the right heart is most commonly affected,
because the lungs filter out many organisms, so that the left side of
the heart gets less exposure to organisms. Subacute IE has a time
course of weeks/months and is generally secondary to Streptococcus
viridans infection after dental procedures; only abnormal valves are
affected and hence these are more likely to be on the left side of
the heart because those valves are more commonly damaged as they
are on the high pressure side of the heart. Perforation of the valve
leaflets and rupture of papillary muscles may lead to aortic or mitral
regurgitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A Monckeberg arteriosclerosis
B Infective endocarditis
C Dressler’s syndrome
D Dilated cardiomyopathy
E Rheumatic heart disease
F Left heart failure
G Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
H Aortic stenosis
I Carcinoid syndrome

A 64-year-old man presents to accident and emergency due to a collapse at
home. An ejection systolic murmur is heard at the upper-left sternal edge.

A

H Aortic stenosis

Aortic stenosis (H) occurs when there is an opening defect in the aortic
valve. Causes include age-related degenerative calcification, rheumatic
heart disease and congenital malformations (bicuspid valve).
Calcification is confined to the cusps. Clinical presentation includes
syncope, angina and dyspnoea. On examination an ejection systolic
murmur, narrow pulse pressure and/or slow rising pulse may be detected.
If due to a bicuspid valve an ejection systolic click may be heard.
Left ventricular hypertrophy may develop as a consequence of chronic
pressure overload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
A Monckeberg arteriosclerosis
B Infective endocarditis
C Dressler’s syndrome
D Dilated cardiomyopathy
E Rheumatic heart disease
F Left heart failure
G Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
H Aortic stenosis
I Carcinoid syndrome

A widowed 72-year-old woman who has passed away at home is sent for
autopsy due to unknown cause of death. Post-mortem examination reveals a
nutmeg liver and haemosiderin-laden macrophages in the lungs.

A

F Left heart failure

Left heart failure (F) results in the inability of the heart to meet the
demands of the body. It is either due to increased demand (high output
failure) or reduced supply (low output failure) of blood. Causes of
high output failure include severe anaemia and hyperthyroidism, while
low output failure occurs due to ischaemic heart disease, hypertension
and aortic/mitral valve defects. Clinical features include dyspnoea,
orthopnoea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. Histological findings
include dilated ventricles, thin walls, nutmeg liver and haemosiderin
macrophages in the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A Monckeberg arteriosclerosis
B Infective endocarditis
C Dressler’s syndrome
D Dilated cardiomyopathy
E Rheumatic heart disease
F Left heart failure
G Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
H Aortic stenosis
I Carcinoid syndrome

A 54-year-old man presents to accident and emergency with fever and pleuritic
chest pain. It is noted that the patient suffered a myocardial infarction 4 weeks
previously.

A

C Dressler’s syndrome

Dressler’s syndrome (C) is an autoimmune complication of myocardial
infarction (MI) that occurs approximately 4 weeks after the episode. It is
characterized by chest pain, fever and a pericardial rub. The complications
of MI can be classified according to how they present temporally.
Complications of MI that may occur within 1 week include arrhythmias
(most commonly ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia), myocardial rupture, valve incompetence (causing regurgitation) and
cardiogenic shock. Later developments include ventricular aneurysm,
pericarditis and the aforementioned Dressler’s syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A Monckeberg arteriosclerosis
B Infective endocarditis
C Dressler’s syndrome
D Dilated cardiomyopathy
E Rheumatic heart disease
F Left heart failure
G Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
H Aortic stenosis
I Carcinoid syndrome

A 46-year-old man is referred to the cardiology outpatient clinic. On investigation
he is found to have mitral regurgitation and has a past history of St Vitus
Dance when he was in school and a mild pericarditis.

A

E Rheumatic heart disease

Rheumatic heart disease (E) is an inflammatory condition most commonly
affecting the connective tissue of the heart (but also joints and central
nervous system). It occurs several weeks after throat infection with group
A β-haemolytic streptococci usually under the age of 10 years. Cardiac
complications include endocarditis (causing verroucous lesions of the
heart valves); myocarditis (containing Aschkoff-bodies and Anitschow
cells causing dilatation of the mitral ring, hence mitral regurgitation);
pericarditis (fibrous exudate causing friction rub). Any layer of the heart
can be affected, potentially leading to pancarditis. Many years after
recovery from acute rheumatic fever, chronic rheumatic heart disease
occurs, with fibrosis of the mitral and aortic valves that can occur. The
history of St Vitus Dance Suggests Sydenham’s chorea, a well known
feature of acute rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A Hyaline membrane disease
B Small cell carcinoma
C Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
D Bronchiectasis
E Non-small cell carcinoma
F Chronic bronchitis
G Pulmonary oedema
H Cystic fibrosis
I Sarcoidosis

A 40-year-old male presents to his GP with chronic cough with copious
amounts of purulent mucus production. High resolution CT scans demonstrate
dilated bronchi.

A

D Bronchiectasis

Bronchiectasis (D) is defined as the permanent dilatation of bronchi and
bronchioles secondary to chronic inflammation. Causes are numerous,
and include chronic pneumonia, for example due to Staphylococcus
aureus or Haemophilus influenzae infection, obstructing tumours
and cystic fibrosis. Histopathological findings include bronchial wall
destruction and transmural inflammation. High-resolution computed
tomography (CT) is the diagnostic modality of choice. Abscess formation,
haemoptysis and pulmonary hypertension are complications that
may arise as a result of bronchiectasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A Hyaline membrane disease
B Small cell carcinoma
C Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
D Bronchiectasis
E Non-small cell carcinoma
F Chronic bronchitis
G Pulmonary oedema
H Cystic fibrosis
I Sarcoidosis

A 14-year-old girl is admitted to hospital after suffering her third bout of
pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection. She also has a previous
admission for pancreatitis.

A

H Cystic fibrosis

Cystic fibrosis (CF; H) is an autosomal recessive condition caused by a
mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator
(CFTR) protein that primarily affects the exocrine glands. There are several
mutations responsible for CF, the most common being ΔF508 mutation.
Defective CFTR causes reduced secretion of chloride ions across epithelial
cell membranes, resulting in increased sodium and hence water reabsorption
into these cells. The result is viscous secretions from exocrine glands
affecting multiple organs including the lungs (recurrent infections and
bronchiectasis), gastrointestinal tract (distal intestinal obstruction syndrome)
and pancreas (pancreatitis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A Hyaline membrane disease
B Small cell carcinoma
C Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
D Bronchiectasis
E Non-small cell carcinoma
F Chronic bronchitis
G Pulmonary oedema
H Cystic fibrosis
I Sarcoidosis

A 58-year-old man presents to his GP with haemoptysis and weight loss. He has
a 30 pack–year history of smoking. He is referred to the oncologist for a biopsy,
who determines ‘oat-shaped’ cells on microscopy.

A

B Small cell carcinoma

Small cell carcinoma (B) is also known as ‘oat-cell’ carcinoma due
to the appearance of the malignant cells under the microscope. They
appear as nests of small round hyper-chromatic cells that are fragile
(chromatin smudging) and possess nuclear moulding. Small cell carcinomas
are very aggressive with approximately 80 per cent of cases having
metastasized at the time of diagnosis. Small cell carcinomas also express
neuroendocrine markers and can cause paraneoplastic syndromes such
as Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome. On chest X-rays, the cancer
may be seen arising centrally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A Hyaline membrane disease
B Small cell carcinoma
C Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
D Bronchiectasis
E Non-small cell carcinoma
F Chronic bronchitis
G Pulmonary oedema
H Cystic fibrosis
I Sarcoidosis

A 62-year-old man presents to his GP with shortness of breath, lethargy and
weight loss. The patient’s chest X-ray reveals a peripheral focal lesion in the left
lung field.

A

E Non-small cell carcinoma

Non-small cell carcinomas (E) comprise adenocarcinoma, squamous
cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma. Adenocarcinomas are gland
forming and therefore will have mucin vacuoles within. This sub-type
of non-small cell carcinoma may lead to atypical adenohyperplasia
whereby atypical cells are seen to line the alveolar walls; hence adenocarcinoma
is usually a peripheral lung cancer. Squamous cell carcinomas
are histologically characterized by keratinization and intracellular
‘prickle’ desmosomes. Large cell carcinomas are undifferentiated forms
of adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A Hyaline membrane disease
B Small cell carcinoma
C Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
D Bronchiectasis
E Non-small cell carcinoma
F Chronic bronchitis
G Pulmonary oedema
H Cystic fibrosis
I Sarcoidosis

A 53-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic fever presents to accident
and emergency with severe shortness of breath, and has been coughing up pink
frothy sputum for the past 2 days.

A

G Pulmonary oedema

Pulmonary oedema (G) is defined as fluid collections in the alveoli
which impairs gas exchange that can potentially lead to respiratory
failure. Increased hydrostatic pressure causes of pulmonary oedema
include heart failure, mitral stenosis, fluid overload and renal failure.
Increased capillary permeability can also cause pulmonary oedema,
for example due to pneumonia. Chest X-rays can distinguish between
cardiac and non-cardiac causes of pulmonary oedema; the former will
demonstrate alveolar oedema (bat’s wing appearance), Kerley B-lines,
cardiomegaly, upper lobe diversion of blood vessels and effusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A Systemic lupus erythematosus
B Sjögren’s syndrome
C Diffuse scleroderma
D Amyloidosis
E Takayasu arteritis
F Dermatomyositis
G CREST syndrome
H Polymyositis
I Microscopic polyangitis

A 35-year-old woman is referred to the rheumatology clinic due to recent onset
dysphagia. The patient also reports that her fingers have turned very pale and
cold. One examination she is found to have tightening of the skin near her finger
tips and small dilated vessels on her skin.

A

G CREST syndrome

CREST syndrome (G), also known as limited scleroderma, represents a
combination of conditions: calcinosis (calcium deposition in the skin),
Raynaud’s disease (vasospasm of blood vessels in response to triggers
such as cold), oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly (thickening and
tightening of skin surrounding fingers/hands) and telangiectasia (dilation
of blood capillaries causing red marks on the surface of the skin). The
pathogenesis relates to excessive release of PDGF causing widespread
fibroblast activation and multi-organ fibrosis. Chronic fibrosis leads to
initimal thickening of the microvasculature known as ‘onion skinning.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
A Systemic lupus erythematosus
B Sjögren’s syndrome
C Diffuse scleroderma
D Amyloidosis
E Takayasu arteritis
F Dermatomyositis
G CREST syndrome
H Polymyositis
I Microscopic polyangitis

A 35-year-old woman with a history of recurrent miscarriages presents to her
GP with joint pains. Blood tests reveal she is anti-double stranded DNA antibody
positive.

A

A Systemic lupus erythematosus

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE; A) is a multi-system connective tissue
disease that is antinuclear antibody (ANA) positive. The underlying
pathology of SLE relates to failure in the regulatory mechanisms of selftolerance.
Autoantibodies form against nuclear components such as DNA,
RNA and histones. This leads to complement activation and complex
formation, which are deposited in organs. Cytology of tissues reveals
haematoxylin bodies which are denatured nuclei that are produced when
ANA bind to exposed nuclei. LE cells are also visible on microscopy;
these are macrophages that have phagocytosed a haematoxylin body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A Systemic lupus erythematosus
B Sjögren’s syndrome
C Diffuse scleroderma
D Amyloidosis
E Takayasu arteritis
F Dermatomyositis
G CREST syndrome
H Polymyositis
I Microscopic polyangitis

A 68-year-old man presents to accident and emergency with symptoms suggestive
of heart failure. All initial investigations do not determine an underlying
cause. However, a tongue biopsy sample gains an apple-green birefringence
under polarized light using Congo red stain.

A

D Amyloidosis

Amyloidosis (D) occurs due to the extracellular deposition of fibrillar
proteins that accumulate in tissues and organs. Amyloid proteins
arise due to dysfunctional folding resulting in non-branching fibrils.
Proteins aggregate into insoluble crossed beta-pleated sheet tertiary
conformation. Amyloid proteins contain P-component which causes
biopsy samples to characteristically gain an apple-green birefringence
using polarized light and Congo red stain. Four major amyloid proteins
exist: AA, derived from serum amyloid assisted protein and associated
with inflammation; AL, derived from IgG light chains and associated
with myeloma; αβ2, linked with Alzheimer’s disease; β2 microglobulin,
associated
with patients undergoing dialysis treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A Systemic lupus erythematosus
B Sjögren’s syndrome
C Diffuse scleroderma
D Amyloidosis
E Takayasu arteritis
F Dermatomyositis
G CREST syndrome
H Polymyositis
I Microscopic polyangitis

A 45-year-old woman presents to accident and emergency with signs suggestive
of renal failure. She is found to be p-ANCA positive.

A

I Microscopic polyangitis

Microscopic polyangitis (I) is a small vessel vasculitis affecting the arterioles,
venules and capillaries. The pathology involves a trigger factor
such as microorganisms and drugs causing immune complex formation
in a previously sensitized host. These immune complexes deposit in small vessels leading to neutrophil-related inflammation. Microscopic
polyangitis affects the skin, heart, brain and kidneys. Histopathological
features of affected vessels include fibrinoid necrosis that leads to fragmented
neutrophilic nuclei within vessel walls. Microscopic polyangitis
is associated with p-ANCA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A Systemic lupus erythematosus
B Sjögren’s syndrome
C Diffuse scleroderma
D Amyloidosis
E Takayasu arteritis
F Dermatomyositis
G CREST syndrome
H Polymyositis
I Microscopic polyangitis

A 52-year-old man presents to his GP with limb weakness and shortness of
breath. A distinctive rash is noted around both eyes as well as plaques on the
joints of his hands.

A

F Dermatomyositis

Dermatomyositis (F) is an inflammatory myopathy that involves skeletal
and thoracic muscles. Skeletal muscle involvement will lead to
proximal muscle fatigue, especially in the hips and shoulders. Thoracic
muscle involvement can affect the lungs (dyspnoea), heart (arrhythmia)
and oesophagus (dysmotility). There is, however, sparing of the ocular
muscles which differentiates dermatomyositis from myasthenia gravis.
Dermatomyositis is also defined by a heliotrope rash (violet erythema
around the periorbital region) and Gottron papules (violet scaly plaques
over hand joints). Muscle inflammation will also cause an increased
blood creatine kinase level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A Subarachnoid haemorrhage
B Parkinson’s disease
C Extradural haemorrhage
D Vascular dementia
E Subdural haemorrhage
F Intracerebral haemorrhage
G Multiple sclerosis
H Duret haemorrhage
I Alzheimer’s disease

A 54-year-old man is seen in the neurology clinic due to tremor and rigidity. A
DAT scan reveals reduced uptake in the substantia nigra.

A

B Parkinson’s disease

Parkinson’s disease (B) is a degenerative disorder associated with basal
ganglia dysfunction. Clinical features can be remembered by the mnemonic
SMART: shuffling gait, mask-like-face, akinesia, rigidity and
tremor. Degeneration of the substantia nigra and locus coeruleus of the
basal ganglia leads to reduced production of dopamine. At the microscopic
level, inclusion bodies known as Lewy bodies are deposited in
the cytoplasm of neurons that are made up of α-synuclein. Parkinson’s
disease may be associated with Lewy body dementia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
A Subarachnoid haemorrhage
B Parkinson’s disease
C Extradural haemorrhage
D Vascular dementia
E Subdural haemorrhage
F Intracerebral haemorrhage
G Multiple sclerosis
H Duret haemorrhage
I Alzheimer’s disease

A 74-year-old man presents to accident and emergency with increasing headache
and confusion. The man’s wife suggests her husband may have tripped and
fallen 3 days previously.

A

E Subdural haemorrhage

Subdural haemorrhage (E) occurs between the dura and arachnoid due
to an acute tear in bridging veins. This tends to occur after a clear history
of trauma. Bleeding results in features of raised intracranial pressure.
As the bleeding is venous in nature, haematoma development is slow (usually taking 48 hours) and as a result raised intracranial
pressure takes time to become apparent. Chronic subdural haemorrhage
refers to a re-bleed of a previous bridging vein subdural haemorrhage.
Patients will usually present with an altered mental state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
A Subarachnoid haemorrhage
B Parkinson’s disease
C Extradural haemorrhage
D Vascular dementia
E Subdural haemorrhage
F Intracerebral haemorrhage
G Multiple sclerosis
H Duret haemorrhage
I Alzheimer’s disease

A 45-year-old woman presents to accident and emergency with the worst headache
she has ever experienced. She is noted to have polycystic kidney disease.

A

A Subarachnoid haemorrhage

Subarachnoid haemorrhage (A) occurs in the subarachnoid space. Potential
causes include a saccular ‘berry’ aneurysm (most commonly occurring
at artery bifurcations of the anterior circulation), hypertension, trauma,
arteriovenous malformations and coagulation disorders. Clinical features
include a severe ‘thunder clap’ headache radiating to the occiput; this may
be preceded by a warning bleed causing a sentinel bleed. Subarachnoid
haemorrhages are more commonly associated with polycystic kidney disease,
coarctation of the aorta and fibromuscular dysplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A Subarachnoid haemorrhage
B Parkinson’s disease
C Extradural haemorrhage
D Vascular dementia
E Subdural haemorrhage
F Intracerebral haemorrhage
G Multiple sclerosis
H Duret haemorrhage
I Alzheimer’s disease

A 35-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with weakness of her left
side. On examination she is found to have nystagmus and an intention tremor.
The patient complains of blurred vision for the past month.

A

G Multiple sclerosis

Multiple sclerosis (MS; G) is a demyelinating disease of the upper
motor system which follows a relapsing and remitting course.
Histological features along the central nervous system include active
(contain lymphocytes and macrophages) and inactive plaques (reduced
nuclei and myelin). Clinical features include optic neuritis, intranuclear
opthalmoplegia (disruption of medial longitudinal fasciculus) and
cerebellar signs, as well as spasticity and weakness of limbs. Variants
of MS include Devic disease (a more aggressive form) and Marburg MS
(a fulminant form).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
A Subarachnoid haemorrhage
B Parkinson’s disease
C Extradural haemorrhage
D Vascular dementia
E Subdural haemorrhage
F Intracerebral haemorrhage
G Multiple sclerosis
H Duret haemorrhage
I Alzheimer’s disease

A 42-year-old man who suffers from Down syndrome is brought to see his GP
by his carer. The carer describes how the patient has been wandering out of the
house with increased frequency as well as becoming uncharacteristically aggressive,
especially in the evening.

A

I Alzheimer’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease (I) is a progressive degenerative disease which
mainly occurs in patients over the age of 50 years and the condition
is most commonly sporadic. In some instances, there may be a genetic
component such as the amyloid precursor protein as well as presenelins
1 and 2 mutations associated with Down syndrome. Inheritance of the
ε4 allele of apolipoprotein E increases risk of developing Alzheimer’s
disease. Histological features include vascular wall deposition of
β-amyloid (amyloid angiopathy), neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic
plaques.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A Ulcerative colitis
B Chronic gastritis
C Oesophageal cancer
D Coeliac disease
E Gastric carcinoma
F Barrett’s oesophagus
G Gardener’s syndrome
H Crohn’s disease
I Peptic ulcer disease

A 35-year-old man has a 3-week history of bloody stools without mucus with
associated weight loss. A biopsy of the gastrointestinal tract reveals non-caseating
granulomas with transmural inflammation.

A

H Crohn’s disease

Crohn’s disease (H) is an inflammatory bowel disease which can affect
any section of the gastrointestinal system. Characteristics include
transmural
inflammation (full intestinal wall thickness), skip lesions and
fistulae. Biospy of the gastrointestinal wall will reveal non-caseating
granulomas in approximately 60 per cent of cases. Complications
include thickening of the bowel wall (also known as a ‘rubber hose
wall’) which can lead to bowel obstruction. Extra-intestinal manifestations
of Crohn’s disease include arthritis, ankylosing spondylosis,
stomatitis and uveitis, as well as dermatological lesions (pyoderma gangrenosum
and erythema nodosum).

22
Q
A Ulcerative colitis
B Chronic gastritis
C Oesophageal cancer
D Coeliac disease
E Gastric carcinoma
F Barrett’s oesophagus
G Gardener’s syndrome
H Crohn’s disease
I Peptic ulcer disease

A 24-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of diarrhoea,
weight loss and fatigue. Biopsy of the gastrointestinal tract reveals villous atrophy
with crypt hyperplasia.

A

D Coeliac disease

Coeliac disease (D) is an autoimmune disease that occurs due to gluten
sensitivity, specifically gliadin found in wheat, barley and rye. It affects
primarily the duodenum and jejunum. CD8+ cells are sensitized to gliadin;
they accumulate in the gut and attack enterocytes and as a result
villi disappear. As a compensatory mechanism immature enterocytes
in the crypts proliferate causing deeper crypts. Therefore, features of
gut biopsy samples include intraepithelial lymphocytes, villous atrophy
and crypt hyperplasia. Clinical features include steatorrhoea, bloating,
weight loss and fatigue (anaemia secondary to malabsorption).

23
Q
A Ulcerative colitis
B Chronic gastritis
C Oesophageal cancer
D Coeliac disease
E Gastric carcinoma
F Barrett’s oesophagus
G Gardener’s syndrome
H Crohn’s disease
I Peptic ulcer disease

A 54-year-old man presents to his GP with a 2-week history of worsening dysphagia.
The patient’s past medical history reveals severe gastro-oesophageal
reflux disease. A duodenoscopy suggests metaplastic transformation of the
lower oesophageal region.

A

F Barrett’s oesophagus

Barrett’s oesophagus (F) occurs as a result of chronic gastro-oesophageal
reflux disease. At the squamo-columnar junction between the lower
oesophagus and stomach, squamous epithelial cells usually exist. Acidity
causes transformation of squamous epithelial cells to columnar epithelial
cells, a metaplastic change. The metaplastic columnar epithelial cells
include goblet cells that produce intestinal mucin; hence the process
is termed intestinal metaplasia. The major complication of Barrett’s
oesophagus is an increased risk of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus.

24
Q
A Ulcerative colitis
B Chronic gastritis
C Oesophageal cancer
D Coeliac disease
E Gastric carcinoma
F Barrett’s oesophagus
G Gardener’s syndrome
H Crohn’s disease
I Peptic ulcer disease

A 45-year-old man is referred to the gastroenterology outpatient clinic due to
severe epigastric pain and an episode of haematemesis. Further testing reveals
he is Helicobacter pylori positive and has a 20 pack–year history of smoking.

A

I Peptic ulcer disease

Peptic ulcer disease (I) can either be duodenal or gastric. Ulcers differ from
erosions as they extend to the submucosa (sometimes to the muscularis
mucosa) and take weeks to heal, whereas erosions breach the mucosa only
and take days to heal. The main causes of peptic ulcers are Helicobacter
pylori, NSAIDs, Zollinger–Ellison syndrome and smoking. These factors
disrupt the balance between protective (mucus layer and bicarbonate secretion)
and damaging (acid and enzymes) elements leading to ulceration.

25
Q
A Ulcerative colitis
B Chronic gastritis
C Oesophageal cancer
D Coeliac disease
E Gastric carcinoma
F Barrett’s oesophagus
G Gardener’s syndrome
H Crohn’s disease
I Peptic ulcer disease

A 56-year-old man presents to his GP with abdominal pain, weight loss and
fatigue. A duodenoscopy allows a biopsy of a gastric lesion to be taken, which
demonstrates signet ring cells and linitis plastica.

A

E Gastric carcinoma

Gastric carcinoma (E) is usually a consequence of chronic gastritis and
hence Helicobacter pylori is implicated in the pathogenesis. H. pylori
causes intestinal metaplasia leading to gastric atrophy which becomes
dysplasia and eventually carcinoma. On histology the carcinoma can be
ulcer-like, but differs from peptic ulcers as they have irregular borders
and raised edges. Features of gastric carcinoma are the presence of signet ring cells (cells with compressed nuclei) and linitis plastica (the stomach
becomes thick and rigid resembling a leather bottle).

26
Q
A Cholangiocarcinoma
B Cirrhosis
C α1-Antitrypsin deficiency
D Haemosiderosis
E Primary biliary cirrhosis
F Haemochromatosis
G Hepatocellular carcinoma
H Primary sclerosing cholangitis
I Wilson’s disease

A 56-year-old man with previous history of hepatitis C infection presents to
accident and emergency with jaundice. His wife notes that he has recently been
bruising very easily. Ultrasound of the patient’s liver reveals irregular echogenicity
demonstrating nodules.

A

B Cirrhosis

Cirrhosis (B) is defined as the diffuse fibrosis of the liver with abnormal
architecture characterized by nodules secondary to chronic hepatic
disease. This can be sub-classified as macronodular (3 mm; usually viral aetiology).
Fibrosis results from stellate cell activation, which deposit collagen.
Nodules represent proliferating hepatocytes that lack normal acinar
structure and hence have a haphazard blood supply; this leads to shunt
formation and portal hypertension. Causes of cirrhosis include alcohol,
hepatitis B and C, primary biliary cirrhosis, haemochromatosis, Wilson’s
disease and α1-antitrypsin deficiency.

27
Q
A Cholangiocarcinoma
B Cirrhosis
C α1-Antitrypsin deficiency
D Haemosiderosis
E Primary biliary cirrhosis
F Haemochromatosis
G Hepatocellular carcinoma
H Primary sclerosing cholangitis
I Wilson’s disease

A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with his mother with signs of
Parkinsonism (tremor, rigidity and slow movement) as well as recent changes
in his behaviour.

A

I Wilson’s disease

Wilson’s disease (I) is an autosomal recessive condition that results
from a mutation in the ATP7B gene leading to multi-organ copper
accumulation. ATP7B is a protein that facilitates the transport of copper
across cell membranes. Liver involvement will lead to cirrhosis,
most commonly in children, whilst accumulation in the brain can lead
to Parkinsonism, seizures and dementia. Psychological features include
behavioural changes, depression and psychosis. Other organs affected
include the eyes (Kayser–Fleischer rings), kidneys (renal tubular acidosis)
and heart (cardiomyopathy).

28
Q
A Cholangiocarcinoma
B Cirrhosis
C α1-Antitrypsin deficiency
D Haemosiderosis
E Primary biliary cirrhosis
F Haemochromatosis
G Hepatocellular carcinoma
H Primary sclerosing cholangitis
I Wilson’s disease

A 56-year-old woman is investigated by the hepatology team for decompensated
liver disease. A liver biopsy sample stains blue with Perl’s Prussian blue stain.

A

F Haemochromatosis

Haemochromatosis (F) is an autosomal recessive condition that is due to
a mutation in the HFE gene. The HFE protein regulates iron absorption
that is stored as haemosiderin. Histological features of haemochromatosis
include a golden-brown haemosiderin deposition in the parenchyma
of many organs. Haemosiderin eventually leads to inflammation and subsequent fibrosis. Histological samples of affected tissue will stain blue
with Perl’s Prussian blue. Organs affected include the liver (cirrhosis),
pancreas (diabetes), skin (bronzed pigmentation), heart (cardiomyopathy)
and gonads (atrophy and impotence).

29
Q
A Cholangiocarcinoma
B Cirrhosis
C α1-Antitrypsin deficiency
D Haemosiderosis
E Primary biliary cirrhosis
F Haemochromatosis
G Hepatocellular carcinoma
H Primary sclerosing cholangitis
I Wilson’s disease

A 53-year-old man who has recently emigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is
referred to the hepatology department due to recent onset weight loss, jaundice
and ascites. There is history of previous aflatoxin exposure.

A

G Hepatocellular carcinoma

Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC; G) is the most prevalent primary liver
malignancy. Most commonly HCC occurs secondary to cirrhosis. The
risk factors for HCC are therefore the numerous causes of cirrhosis.
However, carcinogens such as aflatoxin, produced by the fungal genus
Aspergillus can directly cause HCC; aflatoxin contaminates many crops
in the developing world, notably cereals and nuts. α-Fetoprotein is a
marker that may suggest the presence of HCC. There is also evidence
that the metabolic syndrome contributes to risk of developing HCC.

30
Q
A Cholangiocarcinoma
B Cirrhosis
C α1-Antitrypsin deficiency
D Haemosiderosis
E Primary biliary cirrhosis
F Haemochromatosis
G Hepatocellular carcinoma
H Primary sclerosing cholangitis
I Wilson’s disease

A 45-year-old woman presents to accident and emergency with jaundice and
pruritis. Xanthelasma are noted on examination. The patient is found to be antimitochondrial
antibody positive.

A

E Primary biliary cirrhosis

Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC; E) is an autoimmune disease of the liver,
affecting the small and medium-sized intra-hepatic ducts. The primary
histological feature is the dense accumulation of lymphocytes around
bile ducts creating granulomas and total destruction of the ducts. This
results in an obstructive cholestasis causing the triad of jaundice,
xanthelasma (cholesterol is normally excreted in bile) and pruritis.
Biochemically PBC is linked with anti-mitochondrial antibodies, as well
as raised ALP, GGT, IgM and cholesterol. PBC is also strongly associated
with Sjögren’s syndrome.

31
Q
A Pemphigoid
B Bowen’s disease
C Pityriasis rosea
D Lichen planus
E Actinic keratosis
F Psoriasis
G Basal cell carcinoma
H Erythema multiforme
I Malignant melanoma
J Pemphigus

A 65-year-old man presents to his GP with blisters along his left arm that are
about 1.0 cm in diameter. Gentle rubbing of the affected area does not lead to
skin exfoliation.

A

A Pemphigoid

Pemphigoid (A) is an autoimmune deep bullous (blisters >0.5 cm) condition
that occurs in the elderly. Bullae are fluid filled and therefore do
not rupture easily; pemphigoid is Nikolsky sign negative. The underlying
pathology involves IgG binding to hemi-desmosomes. This causes
activation of eosinophils that are recruited to the area. Pemphigoid should not be confused with pemphigus (option J), also an autoimmune
bullous disease that affects middle-aged patients, causing superficial
bullae on the skin (Nikolsky positive). IgG bind to desmosomes in the
intra-epidermal region resulting in acantholysis.

32
Q
A Pemphigoid
B Bowen’s disease
C Pityriasis rosea
D Lichen planus
E Actinic keratosis
F Psoriasis
G Basal cell carcinoma
H Erythema multiforme
I Malignant melanoma
J Pemphigus

A 38-year-old man on the respiratory ward has been diagnosed with
Mycoplasma pneumoniae and develops a number of target shaped rashes on his
body.

A

H Erythema multiforme

Erythema multiforme (H) is a hypersensitivity reaction secondary to
infections (herpes simplex, mycoplasmas and fungi) and drugs (penicillin,
phenytoin and barbiturates). The pathogenesis is unclear but is
thought to be due to immune-complex deposition in the microvasculature
of the skin and oral mucous membranes. Most commonly the rash
is self-limiting and target shaped as well as being maculo-papular with
sub-epidermal bullae in the centre. In severe cases, the rash may involve
mucosal surfaces leading to Steven–Johnson’s syndrome, characterized
by epidermal necrosis with minimal inflammatory cell infiltrate.

33
Q
A Pemphigoid
B Bowen’s disease
C Pityriasis rosea
D Lichen planus
E Actinic keratosis
F Psoriasis
G Basal cell carcinoma
H Erythema multiforme
I Malignant melanoma
J Pemphigus

A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with salmon-pink plaques with a
silver–
white scale on the extensor surfaces of her elbows.

A

F Psoriasis

Psoriasis (F) is an autoimmune condition primarily affecting the extensor
surfaces of the skin. Histological features include parakeratosis (corneum
nuclei mixed with keratin to form a thick keratin layer creating ‘silvery
scales’); Munro-abscesses (white blood cells entering the corneum); loss
of the granular layer leading to pin-point bleeding (Auspitz sign); clubbing
of the rete ridges, whereby they grow downwards leading to a
‘test-tubes in a rack’ appearance. Clinical features include salmon-pink
plaques with a silver–white scale on the skin and onycholysis.

34
Q
A Pemphigoid
B Bowen’s disease
C Pityriasis rosea
D Lichen planus
E Actinic keratosis
F Psoriasis
G Basal cell carcinoma
H Erythema multiforme
I Malignant melanoma
J Pemphigus

A 54-year-old man is referred to the dermatologist with a brown warty lesion
on his nose which has a rough consistency. Biopsy of the lesion reveals solar
elastosis.

A

E Actinic keratosis

Actinic keratosis (solar keratosis; E) is defined as epidermal dysplasia
that occurs secondary to sunlight and presents as a brown–red warty
lesion with a sandpaper-like consistency. Histological features include
solar elastosis, focal parakeratosis, atypical cells and inflammatory cell
infiltrates. Actinic keratosis does not affect the full thickness of the epidermis.
It is a premalignant condition that may progress to squamous
cell carcinoma in approximately 20 per cent of cases.

35
Q
A Pemphigoid
B Bowen’s disease
C Pityriasis rosea
D Lichen planus
E Actinic keratosis
F Psoriasis
G Basal cell carcinoma
H Erythema multiforme
I Malignant melanoma
J Pemphigus

A 59-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 3 cm black irregular
lesion on her cheek. Over the next month the lesion spreads to cover 6 cm with
new onset pain.

A

I Malignant melanoma

Malignant melanoma (I) is a malignant tumour of melanocytes. The
characteristic features can be remembered by the mnemonic ABCDE:
asymmetry, border irregularity, colour (usually black; sometimes demonstrate
colours of the French flag), diameter >5 cm and evolution
(change in size, colour and/or new onset itchiness/pain). Malignant
melanomas initially grow radially in situ within the epidermis; over
time there is growth vertically into the dermis, eventually leading to
metastases. Sub-types include lentigomaligna (LM), acrallentigious (AL),
superficial spreading (SS) and nodular (N).
36
Q
A Nephritic syndrome
B Wegener’s granulomatosis
C Membranous glomerulonephritis
D Acute tubular necrosis
E Minimal change glomerulonephritis
F Goodpasture’s syndrome
G IgA nephropathy
H Nephrotic syndrome
I Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

A 45-year-old man presents to accident and emergency with haematuria and
admits to passing less urine than previously. He is found to be hypertensive.
Microscopy of the patient’s urine reveals red and white cell casts.

A

A Nephritic syndrome

Nephritic syndrome (A) involves the following: haematuria, red cell and
white cell casts, dysmorphic red cells, oliguria and hypertension. The
pathogenesis begins with inflammation of glomerular vessels allowing
red blood cells to enter the renal tubule; as they enter they are damaged.
The body compensates for the inflammation by slowing renal
blood flow causing oliguria, which leads to water retention and hence
hypertension. Cellular casts form as a result of Tamm–Horsefall secretions
in the distal collecting duct and collecting duct that ‘glue’ cells
together, hence forming a cast.

37
Q
A Nephritic syndrome
B Wegener’s granulomatosis
C Membranous glomerulonephritis
D Acute tubular necrosis
E Minimal change glomerulonephritis
F Goodpasture’s syndrome
G IgA nephropathy
H Nephrotic syndrome
I Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

A 42-year-old man presents to accident and emergency with an episode of
haemoptysis and haematuria. Blood tests reveal he is in acute renal failure.
Once the patient is stable a renal biopsy demonstrates a crescent morphology
on immunofluorescence.

A

F Goodpasture’s syndrome

Goodpasture’s syndrome (F) is an anti-glomerular basement membrane
disease that causes rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN).
RPGN all demonstrate a crescent sign on biopsy, which represents the
proliferation of macrophages and parietal cells in the Bowman’s space.
There are numerous causes of RPGN; these can be differentiated by
looking at the IgG and C3 deposition pattern on immunofluorescence.
Goodpasture’s syndrome occurs due to IgG against the A3 chain of
type-4 collagen, creating a linear pattern on immunofluorescence.

38
Q
A Nephritic syndrome
B Wegener’s granulomatosis
C Membranous glomerulonephritis
D Acute tubular necrosis
E Minimal change glomerulonephritis
F Goodpasture’s syndrome
G IgA nephropathy
H Nephrotic syndrome
I Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

A 64-year-old man on the Care of the Elderly ward is found to be in acute renal
failure secondary to statin-related rhabdomyolysis. Urinalysis reveals the presence
of ‘muddy’ casts.

A

D Acute tubular necrosis

Acute tubular necrosis (D) is defined as damage to the tubular epithelium
leading to acute renal failure. Ischaemic or toxic injury reduces
GFR in three ways: 1) Loss of polarity (loss of membrane channels
reduces sodium reabsorption; more sodium reaches macula densa constricting
afferent arteriole, hence reducing GFR); 2) Glomerular backpressure
(formation of casts in distal convoluted tubule creates backpressure
reducing GFR); and 3) Interstitial leakage (back-pressure forces
fluid into interstitium causing swelling and compression of tubules).

39
Q
A Nephritic syndrome
B Wegener’s granulomatosis
C Membranous glomerulonephritis
D Acute tubular necrosis
E Minimal change glomerulonephritis
F Goodpasture’s syndrome
G IgA nephropathy
H Nephrotic syndrome
I Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

An 8-year-old girl presents to accident and emergency with frank haematuria.
Her parents state that she had just recovered from a throat infection 2 days
previously.

A

G IgA nephropathy

IgA nephropathy (Berger’s disease; G) usually occurs 1–4 days after a
respiratory or gastrointestinal infection (mucosal defence is primarily
IgA). IgA is deposited in the mesangium which may lead to RPGN. On
immunofluorescence a granular staining of IgG and C3 will demonstrate
IgA nephropathy (other conditions causing this pattern are SLE,
Henoch–Schlönein purpura, post-streptococcal infection and Alport’s
syndrome). There is frank haematuria in 50 per cent of cases and microscopic
haematuria in 50 per cent of patients.

40
Q
A Nephritic syndrome
B Wegener’s granulomatosis
C Membranous glomerulonephritis
D Acute tubular necrosis
E Minimal change glomerulonephritis
F Goodpasture’s syndrome
G IgA nephropathy
H Nephrotic syndrome
I Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

A 62-year-old woman on the Care of the Elderly ward is found to have new
onset ankle swelling. A urine dipstick demon

A

H Nephrotic syndrome

Nephrotic syndrome (H) is the combination of proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia
and oedema (with associated hyperlipidaemia and lipiduria).
Primary causes such as IgA nephropathy are most common in children,
whereas systemic causes such as diabetes and SLE are more common
in adults. Damage to the glomerulus causes increased permeability and
hence proteins pass into the tubules leading to proteinuria and hypoalbuminaemia.
A reduced oncotic pressure therefore causes oedema. The
liver compensates by producing increased amounts of lipids which are
then excreted via the damaged kidneys causing lipiduria.

41
Q
A Mastitis
B Phylloides tumour
C Fibroadenoma
D Duct ectasia
E Ductal carcinoma in situ
F Gynaecomastia
G Fibrocystic disease
H Fat necrosis
I Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

A 55-year-old parous woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of green
discharge from her right nipple.

A

D Duct ectasia

Duct ectasia (D) is defined as the chronic ductal inflammation due to
acini secretions that become clogged in the ducts causing them to dilate
and rupture. This leads to a green/white discharge being produced. Duct
ectasia occurs in women older than 40 who have had children. It is an
important diagnosis to make as it mimics breast cancer; the presentation
may be nipple retraction due to fibrosis and bloody discharge secondary
to rupture of the ducts.

42
Q
A Mastitis
B Phylloides tumour
C Fibroadenoma
D Duct ectasia
E Ductal carcinoma in situ
F Gynaecomastia
G Fibrocystic disease
H Fat necrosis
I Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a soft 3 cm mobile mass in her
left breast. The patient suggests the size of the lump fluctuates with her menstrual
cycle.

A

C Fibroadenoma

Fibroadenoma (C) is the most common benign breast tumour.
Fibroadenomas arise from stroma as well as lobules and hence are
mixed tumours. They characteristically grow rapidly in pregnancy and
during the menstrual cycle as lobules are oestrogen driven; conversely,
fibroadenomas regress at menopause due to the lack of oestrogen. On
examination, fibroadenomas are very mobile (sometimes known as a
breast mouse), well circumscribed, discrete and usually less than 5 cm.
They tend to be soft in a young female and firm in elderly women (as
stroma becomes more fibrous).

43
Q
A Mastitis
B Phylloides tumour
C Fibroadenoma
D Duct ectasia
E Ductal carcinoma in situ
F Gynaecomastia
G Fibrocystic disease
H Fat necrosis
I Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

A 54-year-old woman presents to her GP with a single lump in her left breast. A
mammogram reveals a focal area of calcification.

A

E Ductal carcinoma in situ

Ductal carcinomas in situ (DCIS; E) occur in pre- or post-menopausal
women. They are usually unilateral and unifocal. On mammogram,
microcalcification may be visible secondary to central necrosis. Microscopic features include the presence of central necrosis and
pleomorphic nuclei. In contrast, lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) usually
occurs mainly in pre-menopausal women and is bilateral and multifocal.
No calcification occurs and hence there is no detection on mammogram.
Histologically there is no necrosis and uniform nuclei are present.

44
Q
A Mastitis
B Phylloides tumour
C Fibroadenoma
D Duct ectasia
E Ductal carcinoma in situ
F Gynaecomastia
G Fibrocystic disease
H Fat necrosis
I Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

A 60-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 5.5 cm mobile lump in her right
breast. Biopsy reveals an ‘artichoke-like’ appearance.

A

B Phylloides tumour

Phylloides tumours (B) are similar to fibroadenomas as they are mixed; they
arise from stroma and duct epithelium. They are also similar to fibroadenomas
as they are discrete, well-circumscribed and mobile. They differ in that
they are usually greater than 5 cm, occur in women over the age of 40 years
and can be malignant. Histological investigation reveals an ‘artichoke-like’
appearance as the stroma pushes up on the epithelium to form clubs.

45
Q
A Mastitis
B Phylloides tumour
C Fibroadenoma
D Duct ectasia
E Ductal carcinoma in situ
F Gynaecomastia
G Fibrocystic disease
H Fat necrosis
I Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

A 58-year-old woman presents to her GP with a painful lump in her right
breast. On examination there is also evidence of peau d’orange.

A

I Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma (IDC; I) is an invasive cancer and therefore
penetrates the basement membrane. IDC is also called no special type
and usually results from DCIS. Macroscopically IDC has a scirrhous look
whereby the centre is very fibrous giving a dense white appearance. IDC
has the worst prognosis compared to all other invasive carcinomas (medullary,
mucinous, tubular and papillary carcinoma). Features of invasive
carcinoma also include peau d’orange, Paget’s disease of the breast, tethering,
nipple retraction, lymphadenopathy, ulceration of the mass and pain.

46
Q
A Osteoporosis
B Fibrous dysplasia
C Paget’s disease
D Osteomalacia
E Osteochondroma
F Osteoid osteoma
G Renal osteodytrophy
H Enchondroma
I Giant cell tumour

A 35-year-old man with pain and difficulty bending his left knee. X-ray reveals
many lytic lesions in the epiphysis of the patient’s left knee.

A

I Giant cell tumour

Giant cell tumour (GCT; I) is a borderline malignant tumour of giant osteoclast
cells. The cells are similar to those found in Paget’s disease as they
have multiple nuclei (>20). The osteoclastic cells cause lytic lesions in the
epiphyses (especially around the knee) that are visible on X-ray and may
give a characteristic ‘soap bubble’ appearance. Histological features include
multinucleated giant osteoclasts with surrounding ovoid and spindle cells.

47
Q
A Osteoporosis
B Fibrous dysplasia
C Paget’s disease
D Osteomalacia
E Osteochondroma
F Osteoid osteoma
G Renal osteodytrophy
H Enchondroma
I Giant cell tumour

A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with generalized bone pain. X-ray
reveals areas of pseudofracture, especially in the ribs.

A

D Osteomalacia

Osteomalacia (D) is defined as the insufficient mineralization of bone
due to vitamin D deficiency. Reduced intake, malabsorptive conditions, phenytoin and chronic liver disease can cause vitamin D deficiency. A
low vitamin D level causes hypocalcaemia resulting in increased PTH
release (normalizing calcium). PTH stimulates osteoclastic activity causing
bones to be soft and epiphyses to widen. Clinical features include
craniotabes, bone pain, proximal weakness and pseudo-fractures (looser
zones). Craniotabes is the descriptive term for the soft and elastic occipitoparietal
bones causing an elastic recoil sensation when pushed.

48
Q
A Osteoporosis
B Fibrous dysplasia
C Paget’s disease
D Osteomalacia
E Osteochondroma
F Osteoid osteoma
G Renal osteodytrophy
H Enchondroma
I Giant cell tumour

A 65-year-old woman is referred to the rheumatologist after suffering recurrent
falls. Blood tests are all unremarkable but a DEXA scan reveals a T-score of 2.8.

A

A Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis (A) is defined by reduced bone density (reduced quantity)
but normal quality. Reduced circulating oestrogen concentration causes
IL-1 and IL-6 levels to rise causing osteoclastic activity. Osteoporosis
primarily affects the vertebrae and hips. Primary osteoporosis occurs
in post-menopausal women. Secondary causes include lifestyle choices
(smoking, alcohol, inactivity), drugs (steroid, goserelin), low BMI as well
as thyroid and parathyroid disease. Diagnosis is made using a DEXA
scan; a T-score of

49
Q
A Osteoporosis
B Fibrous dysplasia
C Paget’s disease
D Osteomalacia
E Osteochondroma
F Osteoid osteoma
G Renal osteodytrophy
H Enchondroma
I Giant cell tumour

An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with precocious puberty. A routine
examination by the paediatrician reveals café-au-lait spots on the child’s back.
The boy has had numerous fractures of his femur and tibia bilaterally after falls.

A

B Fibrous dysplasia

Fibrous dysplasia (B) occurs due to the developmental arrest of normal
bone structures secondary to an osteoblast maturation defect. The most
common sites affected are the proximal femur and ribs. On X-ray,
fibrous dysplasia may cause a ground-glass or soap bubble appearance.
Histological investigation reveals trabeculae that lack osteoblastic
rimming. Two possible syndromes can arise: 1) Mono-ostotic (70
per cent) affecting femurs more than ribs occurring in patients under
30 years of age, and 2) McCune–Albright syndrome (30 per cent) that
is poly-ostotic and causes café-au-lait spots and precocious puberty.

50
Q
A Osteoporosis
B Fibrous dysplasia
C Paget’s disease
D Osteomalacia
E Osteochondroma
F Osteoid osteoma
G Renal osteodytrophy
H Enchondroma
I Giant cell tumour

A 50-year-old man presents to his GP with pain in his arms and legs. The
patient also complains of shooting pains down his left leg as well as worsening
shortness of breath.

A

C Paget’s disease

Paget’s disease (C) is a disease of bone remodelling whereby new bone is
larger but weaker and prone to fracture. During the initial lytic phase giant
osteoclasts with multiple nuclei rapidly resorb bone. In the mixed phase,
osteoblast activity leads to increased bone mass. In the final osteosclerotic
phase, bone formation continues but is woven and weak, with collagen
arranged haphazardly resulting in a mosaic pattern. Complications can
arise from deformities that cause impingement of nerves. Bone marrow
infiltration of weak woven bone can lead to high output heart failure.