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Boeing 737NG COPY > (HPA) B737-NG 48 Hour - Master Question File > Flashcards

(HPA) B737-NG 48 Hour - Master Question File Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What system is used to open the forward cargo (baggage) door?

a. Battery
b. Standby DC.
c. External AC.
d. Manual (Michanical).

A

d. Manual (Mechanical)

1. 40.31

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2
Q
  1. With the emergency light switch in the “armed” position under normal power, what condition will cause the lights to illuminate automatically?

a. Loss of transfer buses.
b. Loss of #1 DC bus or AC power is turned off.
c. Loss of a main generator bus.
d. Loss of the #1 TR.

A

b. Loss of #1 DC bus or AC power is turned off.

1. 30.7

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3
Q
  1. In flight, when the gear horn sounds, under what conditions can it be silenced?

a. Flaps > 15, both Thrust Levers any position.
b. Flaps 15, both Thrust Levers at idle.
c. Flaps 1-10, Thrust Levers at any position.
d. Flaps 30, Thrust Levers full forward.

A

c. Flaps 1-10, Thrust Levers at any position.

1. 20.6

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4
Q
  1. What warning inhibits are available in the GPWS system?

a. Glide Slope
b. Excessive Descent
c. Flaps Config, Gear Config, and Terrain
d. Sink On Go Around

A

c. Flaps Config, Gear Config, and Terrain

15. 10.8

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5
Q
  1. How are the bleed valves operated?

a. Pneumatically controlled and operated
b. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated

A

b. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated

2. 20.1

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6
Q
  1. A reactive windshear alert inhibits all others?

a. False
b. True

A

b. True

15. 20.1

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7
Q
  1. Can the engines be started with the engine Bleed Valve switches in the “OFF” position?

a. Yes
b. No

A

a. Yes

7. 20.11

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8
Q
  1. With loss of system A hydraulic pressure, nose wheel steering:

a. Automatically operates from system B by a shuttle valve
b. Is not available
c. Is manually selectable to system B hydraulics
d. None of the above

A

c. Is manually selectable to system B hydraulics

14. 10.8

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9
Q
  1. What causes a bleed trip?

a. Excessive bleed pressure
b. Excessive bleed temperature
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

A

c. Both a and b

2. 20.1

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10
Q
  1. How many fuel measuring sticks are used to check the center tank quantity?

a. 1 only
b. 2
c. 1 each side
d. 4

A

d. 4

12. 10.10

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11
Q
  1. What does a duct overheat light indicate?

a. Any time the DUCT OVERHEAT light illuminates.
b. Any time the air mix valves go full cold.
c. Bleed air temperature in related duct exceeds limits.
d. When the bleed valve closes

A

c. Bleed air temperature in related duct exceeds limits.

2. 10.6

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12
Q
  1. What is the function of the EEC?

a. It calculates power setting via the FMC.
b. N1 is used by the EEC to set thrust in three control modes: Normal and two alternates.
c. EEC uses thrust lever inputs to automatically control forward and reverse thrust.
d. Both b and c

A

d. Both b and c

7. 15.6 and 7.20.5

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13
Q
  1. Where is the engine oil pressure measured?

a. On the outlet side of the engine driven oil pump, prior to the fuel filter.
b. Prior to the fuel/oil heat exchanger
c. On the outlet side of the engine driven oil pump, prior to engine lubrication.
d. In the oil tank

A

c. On the outlet side of the engine driven oil pump, prior to engine lubrication.
(7. 20.9)

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14
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the isolation valve?

a. Allows separation of the bleed valves from the packs when required
b. Allows separation or connection of the left and right pneumatic systems when required
c. Isolates the hydraulic system from the pneumatic system during servicing
d. Isolates air conditioning system from the anit-ice system

A

b. Allows separation or connection of the left and right pneumatic systems when required
(2. 20.2)

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15
Q
  1. What are the in-flight operating limits of the APU?

a. Up to 10,000’ - Pneumatic and Electrical load
b. Up to 17,000’ - Pneumatic load only
c. Up to 41,000’ - Electrical load only
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

L.10.8

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16
Q
  1. When should the starter automatically cutout?

a. 20% N2
b. 25% N2
c. 35% N2
d. 56% N2

A

d. 56% N2

7. 20.11

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17
Q
  1. What are the power sources of igniters?

a. Left, respective AC Transfer Bus and Right Standby AC Bus
b. Left GEN BUS and Right Main Bus
c. Left AC Transfer bus and Battery Bus
d. Hot Batt Bus and Right AC Transfer Bus

A

a. Left, respective AC Transfer Bus and Right Standby AC Bus

7. 20.12

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18
Q
  1. Will the APU fire detection system automatically discharge the fire bottle?

a. Yes, but only if AC power is on the aircraft
b. No, it only shuts the APU down
c. No, you will only get the fire warning
d. Nothing will happen

A

b. No, it only shuts the APU down

8. 20.4

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19
Q
  1. What requirements must be met before Reverse is available?

a. Fire switch down
b. Either radio Altimeter sensing less than 10 feet, or the Air/Ground Sensor in the Ground Mode
c. Hydraulic pressure and battery power available
d. All of the above and Reverse selected

A

d. All of the above and Reverse selected

7. 20.14

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20
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?

a. Allows landing gear retraction in the event of a #1 engine failure
b. Allows the lowering of the gear in the event of a #1 engine failure
c. Allows both a and b
d. Allows for steering in the event of a system A hydraulic failure

A

a. Allows landing gear retraction in the event of a #1 engine failure
(13. 20.4)

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21
Q
  1. What are the temperature limits of the APU?

a. Start: 760˚C, No max continuous
b. Start: 760˚C, Max continous: 710˚C
c. Start: 710˚C, Max: 660˚C
d. Maximum limits are not displayed but are set by the ECU

A

d. Maximum limits are not displayed but are set by the ECU

7. 30.3

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22
Q
  1. What are the electrical sources for the 737?

a. Engine driven generators (2)
b. APU
c. Ground Power
d. Battery for Standby Bus
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

6. 10.13

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23
Q
  1. How are the primary flight controls normally powered?

a. “A” hydraulic system only
b. “B” hydraulic system only
c. By hydraulic systems “A” and “B”
d. Electro/mechanical only

A

c. By hydraulic systems “A” and “B”

9. 10.2 and 9.10.17

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24
Q
  1. How could the STBY RUDDER be activated manually?

a. Placing either or both system “A” and “B” flight control switches to STBY RUDDER
b. Placing the STBY hydraulic switch to “ON”
c. Placing the rudder switch to STBY
d. Both b and c

A

a. Placing either or both system “A” and “B” flight control switches to STBY RUDDER
(13. 20.4)

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25
Q
  1. Under what conditions would a IDG disconnect (either manually or automatically) be necessary when low lil is sensed by a DRIVE amber caution light?

a. High oil temperature
b. IDG Failure
c. Fire
d. Both a and b

A

d. Both a and b

6. 10.7

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26
Q
  1. Can the STBY hydraulic pump be activated by any additional method?

a. Yes placing eh STBY hydraulic switch to on
b. Yes placing the elevator switch to STBY
c. Yes placing the aileron switch to STBY
d. Yes by selecting the ALTERNATE FLAP MASTER switch to ON

A

d. Yes by selecting the ALTERNATE FLAP MASTER switch to ON

9. 20.22

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27
Q
  1. Which buses supply the “essential” loads?

a. The STANDBY buses
b. The TRANSFER buses
c. The ESSENTIAL buses
d. The MAIN buses

A

a. The STANDBY buses

6. 20.16

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28
Q
  1. What is the minimum fuel to operate the electric hydraulic pumps on the ground?

a. 1,675 lbs in each wing tank
b. 1,675 lbs in the right tank only
c. 1,676 lbs in the left tank only when the “B” system pumps are on

A

a. 1,675 lbs in each wing tank

13. 20.3

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29
Q
  1. Why is there a minimum fuel requirement to operate the electric hydraulic pumps?

a. To have enough fuel for thrust during flight control maneuvering
b. To keep the hydraulic pumps submerged for cooling
c. To prevent sloshing during ground taxi
d. The “A” and “B” system heat exchangers are located in the main tanks

A

d. The “A” and “B” system heat exchangers are located in the main tanks
(13. 20.3)

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30
Q
  1. What are the primary and the backup sources of power for the XFER BUSES?

a. Primary: Respective IDG. Backup: Opposite XFER BUS
b. Primary: Respective IDG. Backup: MAIN BUS
c. Primary: Respective MAIN BUS. Backup: STBY BUS
d. Primary: Respective MAIN BUS. Backup: STBY GEN.

A

a. Primary: Respective IDG. Backup: Opposite XFER BUS

6. 20.5

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31
Q
  1. At what degree of control wheel displacement does flight spoiler deployment begine to assist the airlerons in roll control?

a. 8 degrees
b. 12 degrees
c. 15 degrees
d. 10 degrees

A

d. 10 degrees

9. 20.5

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32
Q
  1. Does aileron trim physically effect control wheel position?

a. Yes. The control wheel position directly indicates the amount of aileron trim applied.
b. No. The control wheel will remain in the same position.

A

a. Yes. The control wheel position directly indicates the amount of aileron trim applied.
(9. 20.4)

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33
Q
  1. What is the function of a TR?

a. Convert 28 Vdc power to 115 Vac power
b. Convert 115 Vac power to 28 Vdc power
c. Provides power to the battery
d. Allows APU to power the buses

A

b. Convert 115 Vac power to 28 Vdc power

6. 20.1

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34
Q
  1. What is the voltage output of the TRs?

a. 28 Vdc
b. 115 +/- 5 volts
c. 22-28 volts
d. 400 +/- 10 volts

A

a. 29 Vdc

6. 20.10

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35
Q
  1. If the trailing edge flaps are extended by the alternate method, what flap protections are available.

a. None
b. Asymmetry but not skew
c. Skew but not asymmetry
d. Both skew and asymmetry

A

a. None

9. 20.22

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36
Q
  1. What powers the trailing edge flap down with the Alternate Flaps system selected?

a. System “A” hydraulic pressure
b. Standby hydraulic system pressure
c. An electric motor
d. The PTU (Power Transfer Unit)

A

c. An electric motor

9. 20.22

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37
Q
  1. When is the automatic Standby Power feature available?

a. When the STBY power switch is in the BAT position
b. It’s never automatic.
c. Always. It functions the same on the ground as in the air
d. Any time there is power on the aircraft

A

c. Always. It functions the same on the ground as in the air
(6. 10.8)

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following is not on the Hot Battery Bus?

a. APU and ENGINE fire bottle discharge
b. Fuel Shutoff Valves
c. External Power Control
d. Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve

A

d. Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve

6. 20.21

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39
Q
  1. If the system “B” electric pump or lines develop a leak, what would the indictions be?

a. System “B” quantity would decrease to approximately 1.84 gal.
b. System “B” quantity would decrease to approximately 1/2 full.
c. The quantity indications would go to zero. But sufficient fluid would be available to operate the power transfer unit.
d. System “B” quantity would remain full due to the blocking valve in the pump

A

c. The quantity indications would go to zero. But sufficient fluid would be available to operate the power transfer unit.

?
(12.20.3)

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40
Q
  1. If you lost all Standby system hydraulic fluid, would there be a cockpit indication?

a. Yes, but only if the Standby pump was operating at the time.
b. Yes. The Standby LOW QUANTITY light would be illuminated and System “B” reservoir would read between 1/2 and RFL.
c. No. However, you may notice lower quantity in the other reservoirs.

A

b. Yes. The Standby LOW QUANTITY light would be illuminated and System “B” reservoir would read between 1/2 and RFL.
(13. 20.8)

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41
Q
  1. What activates the Standby hydraulic pump?

a. Placing either flight control switch to STBY RUDDER
b. Placing the alternate flap switch to ARM
c. The automatic activation occurs with loss of either system “A” or “B”, when the flaps are extended, while airborne or with wheel speed greater than 60 kts.
d. All of the above and activation of the FFM.
e. a and b only

A

d. All of the above and activation of the FFM.

13. 20.4

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42
Q
  1. What is the power source for APU start?

a. AC power if available
b. Main Battery only if AC not available
c. a and b
d. It is a pneumatic starter

A

c. a and b

7. 30.3

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43
Q
  1. Will the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light normally illuminate after takeoff with RTO selected?

a. Yes
b. No

A

b. No

14. 20.5

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44
Q
  1. When selected, at what speed is RTO available?

a. Above 60 kts
b. Above 80 kts
c. Above 90 kts
d. Above 110 kts

A

c. Above 90 kts

14. 20.4

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45
Q
  1. What is the maximum airspeed for retracting the landing gear?

a. 250 kts
b. 200 kts
c. 225 kts
d. 235 kts

A

d. 235 kts

Forward Instrument panel placard

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46
Q
  1. When is the fuel heated?

a. The fuel is constantly heated by a fuel/oil heat exchanger.
b. When you turn on the Fuel Heater switch
c. Automatically when the Fuel temperature is below 0 degrees
d. There is no requirement for fuel heat on this aircraft.

A

a. The fuel is constantly heated by a fuel/oil heat exchanger.
(7. 20.9)

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47
Q
  1. When retracting the high lift devices using the alternate method, will the LED’s return to the retracted position?

a. Yes
b. No

A

b. No

9. 10.4

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48
Q
  1. What are the two sources of power for the Ground Service Bus?

a. Transfer Bus #1
b. Main Bus #2
c. Ground power via the Ground Service switch on the F/A panel
d. Both a and c
e. Both b and c

A

d. Both a and c

6. 20.2

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49
Q
  1. When are the Ground Service Buses powered?

a. When external power is available and the Ground Service switch is ON, or both TRANSFER BUSES are powered.
b. When the Battery Switch is ON and the STBY Power Switch is in NORMAL
c. When the Battery Switch is ON or GEN BUS #1 is powered.
d. Automatically when the ground power is plugged in to the aircraft

A

a. When external power is available and the Ground Service switch is ON, or both TRANSFER BUSES are powered.
(6. 20.2)

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50
Q
  1. When is the latest you should wait for oil pressure to be indicated?

a. By the time the START VALVE OPEN light illuminates
b. By the time the OIL PRESSURE LOW light extinguishes.
c. By idle rpm
d. 25% N2

A

c. By idle rpm

NP.21.34

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51
Q
  1. The APU has an overheat warning system.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

7. 30.3

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52
Q
  1. Must the Battery switch be on to operate the APU?

a. Yes, to provide fire detection when unattended
b. No, it’s not required
c. Yes, on the ground and in-flight
d. No, Battery is only required for starting.

A

c. Yes, on the ground and in-flight

7. 30.2

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53
Q
  1. Can the APU be started without the battery?

a. Yes, using the external DC receptacle
b. Battery is required for start on the ground but not in-flight
c. No, the battery is required
d. Yes using external AC power

A

c. No, the battery is required

7. 30.2

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54
Q
  1. What actuates the thrust reversers?

a. Hydraulic pressure
b. Electrical signal
c. Pneumatic pressure
d. All of the above

A

a. Hydraulic pressure

7. 20.15 and 13.20.1

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55
Q
  1. What do the Start Levers control?

a. Fuel
b. Hydraulics
c. ignition
d. Both a and c

A

d. Both a and c

7. 15.7

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56
Q
  1. How long should you operate teh APU before using it as a bleed air source?

a. one minute
b. Two minutes
c. No time requirement
d. None of the above

A

a. one minute

7. 30.3

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57
Q
  1. The EGPWS get position information from:

a. GPS position
b. Both FMCs
c. XM satellite
d. The multi-mode receivers through the DME/DME triangulation.

A

a. GPS position

15. 20.11

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58
Q
  1. When are the Aux and Main batteries tied together?

a. When selected in parallel
b. Never
c. At all times
d. When the batteries are the only source of power (except during start)

A

d. When the batteries are the only source of power (except during start)
(6. 20.1)

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59
Q
  1. What is the primary source for DC power?

a. Battery
b. APU
c. Three Transformer Rectifiers (TRs) and a ground service TR
d. XFER BUS

A

c. Three Transformer Rectifiers (TRs) and a ground service TR
(6. 20.10)

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60
Q
  1. What is the maximum EGT allowed during engine start?

a. Not given, but the APU start will automatically terminate in an exceedance.
b. 710˚C
c. 760˚C
d. 860˚C

A

a. Not given, but the APU start will automatically terminate in an exceedance.
(7. 30.3)

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61
Q
  1. What would indicate an APU hung start?

a. The start is automatically terminated
b. No rise in EGT with 20 seconds of starter engagement
c. Both a and b
d. Run away fuel flow

A

a. The start is automatically terminated

7. 30.3

62
Q
  1. how high may the APU be started?

a. Up to the service ceiling of the aircraft
b. up to FL350
c. 17,000 ft.
d. No limit

A

a. Up to the service ceiling of the aircraft

7. 30.1

63
Q
  1. What is a good test indication of the TCAS?

a. Four traffic symbols on the NDs
b. An aural message that the test is okay
c. None. It is continuously monitored by the BITE system
d. a and b

A

d. a and b

SP.11.1

64
Q
  1. Where do the air conditioning packs get their air?

a. Engines
b. APU
c. Ground pneumatics
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

2. 30.1

65
Q
  1. How is the APU compartment and exhaust system cooled?

a. Fan bypass air
b. cooling fan on the accessory drive
c. Air enters the cooling inlet above the exhaust opening
d. Ram air through the intake

A

c. Air enters the cooling inlet above the exhaust opening

7. 30.2

66
Q
  1. If the APU EGT rises above acceptable limits during engine start:

a. it will reduce bleed air output to maintain electrical voltage
b. it will reduce electrical output to maintain bleed air pressure
c. The ECU will reduce fuel to the APU to limit EGT
d. It will make strange noises

A

b. it will reduce electrical output to maintain bleed air pressure
(7. 30.4)

67
Q
  1. What is the primary source of cockpit air?

a. The left pack upstream of the mix manifold
b. Air from the mix manifold
c. Recirculation fan
d. the right pack upstream of the mix manifold.

A

a. The left pack upstream of the mix manifold

2. 30.3

68
Q
  1. What would your indication be with a TR3 failure?

a. TR1 would pick up the load
b. TR1 and TR2 would share TR3’s load
c. Zero (0) volts and amps. TR3 output is read at the TR
d. TR3 amps 0 and volts normal

A

c. Zero (0) volts and amps. TR3 output is read at the TR

6. 20.11

69
Q
  1. What is the power source for TR3?

a. XFER BUS #2
b. MAIN BUS #2
c. Ground Service Bus
d. XFER BUS #1

A

a. XFER BUS #2

6. 20.11

70
Q
  1. How could you verify that TR1 had failed?

a. TR3 will pick up the load
b. Place the BUS TRANSFER switch to OFF. DC volts and amps will read zero (0).
c. TR1 amps zero (0) and volts normal
d. TR1 amps normal and volts zero (0)

A

c. TR1 amps zero (0) and volts normal

QRH. 6.14

71
Q
  1. If the DC meter switch is placed to the STBY PWR position, what would you be able to read?

a. DC volts and amps
b. Volts and Freqs
c. DC STANDBY BUS voltage only
d. None of the above

A

c. DC STANDBY BUS voltage only

6. 20.16

72
Q
  1. Normally what would you expect to happen if the DC BUS #1 or XFER BUS #1 failed?

a. The BAT BUS would power the STBY DC BUS and the STBY AC BUS through the static inverter.
b. STBY BUSes fail
c. XFER BUS #2 picks up the STBY BUSes
d. Main BUS #1 picks up the STBY BUSes

A

a. The BAT BUS would power the STBY DC BUS and the STBY AC BUS through the static inverter.
(6. 20.16)

73
Q
  1. What are the normal and back up power sources for the STBY AC & DC BUSes?

a. Normal STBY AC is powered by XFER BUS #1
b. STBY DC is powered from DC BUS #1
c. Back up for STBY AC is the BAT BUS through the Static Inverter
d. Back up for STBY DC is the BAT BUS
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

6. 20.16

74
Q
  1. What malfunctions does the reset button affect?

a. Bleed Trip. Wing-body Overheat, Pack Trip
b. Wing-Body Overheat, Bleed Trip, Duct Overheat
c. Pack Trip, Duct Overheat, Wing-Body Overheat
d. Bleed Trip, Pack Trip, Duct Overheat

A

d. Bleed Trip, Pack Trip, Duct Overheat

2. 10.4

75
Q
  1. What would be a reason to switch the STANDBY POWER switch to BAT on the grond?

a. On engine start
b. With APU powering one power train in the air
c. None as the Standby busses are powered with the battery switch in the ON position on the ground
d. When refueling a “cold” airplane or if use of the VHF Com #1 is required

A

c. None as the Standby busses are powered with the battery switch in the ON position on the ground
(6. 20.16)

76
Q
  1. What are the power sources for the BAT BUS?

a. With normal AC power and the BAT switch ON - TR3
b. With normal AC power - #1 Main Generator Bus
c. With loss of AC power in flight - The battery
d. Both a and c

A

d. Both a and c

6. 20.10

77
Q
  1. With the BAT switch OFF and ground power supplying ground services int eh cabin, are the batteries being charged?

a. Yes, because the ground service busses supply the battery chargers.
b. No, BAT switch must be ON

A

a. Yes, because the ground service busses supply the battery chargers.
(6. 20.2)

78
Q
  1. How long will the battery provide standby power?

a. for the remainder of the flight due to the Air Driven Generator
b. As long as the hydraulics are maintained to the generator
c. Until engines are shut down
d. 60 minutes with the two battery option

A

d. 60 minutes with the two battery option

6. 20.12

79
Q
  1. What is the function of the Recirulation fan?

a. Reduces fuel consumption
b. Reduces the amount of bleed air demanded from the packs
c. Both a and b
d. Produces the gasper (eyeball) air at each seat

A

c. Both a and b

2. 30.4

80
Q
  1. When are the deflector doors extended?

a. In heavy precipitation
b. When the pack controllers sense demand
c. On the ground
d. Both a and b

A

c. On the ground

2. 30.2

81
Q
  1. What is the power source for the recirculation fan?

a. Engine bleed air
b. Driven by an AC motor
c. STBY power
d. AC Main Bus

A

b. Driven by an AC motor

2. 30.4

82
Q
  1. When will the EQUIP COOLING OFF light illuminate?

a. With a loss of #1 GEN BUS
b. When the EQUIP door light illuminates
c. Both a and b
d. When airflow is insufficient to cool the airflow sensor

A

d. When airflow is insufficient to cool the airflow sensor

2. 30.5

83
Q
  1. What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance?

a. 1,000 lbs for all phases of flight
b. 1,200 lbs for takeoff, climb and cruise. 1,500 lbs for landing
c. 1,500 lbs for all phases of flight
d. 1,000 lbs for takeoff, climb and cruise. 1,500 lbs landing

A

a. 1,000 lbs for all phases of flight

L.10.11

84
Q
  1. Describe the normal fuel loading sequene.

a. Fill the auxiliary tank, then the center tank, then the main tanks
b. Fill the main tanks to full, then the auxiliary tank, then the center tank to full
c. Fill the main tanks to full, then the center tank
d. fill the center tank, then top off the main tanks, then the auxiliary tank

A

c. Fill the main tanks to full, then the center tank

L.10.11

85
Q
  1. With fuel in all tanks and all boost pumps on, how is fuel feed scheduled to the engines?

a. Main tanks to their respective engines until they are empty, then the center tank to both engines
b. Center tank to both engines until the tank is empty, then main tank to respective engine.
c. all tanks feed to all engines at the same time
d. One tank at a time to both engines

A

b. Center tank to both engines until the tank is empty, then main tank to respective engine
(12. 20.1)

86
Q
  1. When is the air conditioning Ram Air Deflector Door open?

a. When on the ground
b. When on the ground, when flaps are out of UP and when ambient air dictates
c. Whenever the Pack is running
d. When the recirculation Fan is OFF

A

a. When on the ground

2. 30.2

87
Q
  1. What is the power source for the pack valves?

a. STBY AC bus
b. The Battery bus
c. Respective Main bus
d. Respective Transfer bus

A

b. The Battery bus

6. 20.20

88
Q
  1. A pack valve can automatically regulate to high flow?

a. Except on the ground, or in the air with flaps extended
b. if the other pack is not operating
c. a and b
d. None of the above

A

c. a and b

2. 30.1

89
Q
  1. The forward outflow valve will open automatically:

a. when a pac trips
b. to maintain warming airflow around the forward cargo compartment
c. a and b
d. it’s a trick! There’s no forward outflow valve.

A

d. it’s a trick! There’s no forward outflow valve.

2. 40.1

90
Q
  1. The overboard exhaust valve colses:

a. At high cabin differential cabin pressure
b. at > 2.5 psid
c. When either pack is in HIGH and teh recirculation fan is OFF
d. At > .125 psid

A

a. At high cabin differential cabin pressure

2. 40.3

91
Q
  1. When is the overboard exhaust valve open?

a. When the Main Outflow Valve is open more than 3˚
b. When the Flow Control Valve opens
c. When the Recirculation fan is off
d. On the ground

A

d. On the ground

2. 40.3

92
Q
  1. When does the aircraft start pressurizing?

a. It starts pressurizing the cabin to the altitude in the FLT ALT window at liftoff
b. It starts pressurizing the cabin at higher power settings on the ground
c. Temporarily switches to the STBY mode of pressure for takeoff
d. It temporarily closes the MAIN OUTFLOW valve until takeoff roll.

A

b. It starts pressurizing the cabin at higher power settings on the ground
(2. 40.5)

93
Q
  1. What causes the illumination of the equipment cooling OFF light?

a. A loss of airflow
b. When the detector senses a loss of all generators, the light automatically illuminates.
c. Both a and b
d. With a loss of a bleed source the light will illuminate

A

a. A loss of airflow

2. 30.5

94
Q
  1. What action is required when the equipment OFF light illuminates?

a. Open the Isolation valve to allow the opposite side to provide cooling
b. Open the Ram Air doors for more air flow
c. Place the switch to Alternate
d. Place the STBY switch to BAT

A

c. Place the switch to Alternate

2. 30.5

95
Q
  1. What is the source of equipment cooling air?

a. Air from the cabin recirculates through the E&E Bay
b. Conditioned air from the cockpit is drawn across the circuit breaker panels, then routed through the E & E compartment racks
c. Fan Bypass air
d. Gasper fans

A

b. Conditioned air from the cockpit is drawn across the circuit breaker panels, then routed through the E & E compartment racks
(2. 30.5)

96
Q
  1. Where does the fuel temperature indicator get the reading?

a. Bottom of #2 main tank
b. at the fuel controller
c. At the fuel filter
d. #1 Main tank

A

d. #1 Main tank

12. 20.2

97
Q
  1. With all fuel pump switches on and the forward pump in the #1 tank not working when will the MASTER CAUTION and FUEL CAP lights illuminate?

a. Immediately after the pump stops
b. When the CAP panel is pressed for “Recall”
c. When the second pump in that tank quits
d. Both a and c

A

d. Both a and c

12. 10.3

98
Q
  1. With total loss of normal AC power, can the engines still be provided with fuel?

a. Yes, through suction feed from the main tanks only
b. Yes, with the pumps on the STBY BUS
c. No, all pumps are AC powered

A

a. Yes, through suction feed from the main tanks only

12. 20.1

99
Q
  1. At what cabin altitude will the cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy?

a. The masks will not automatically deploy pneumatically
b. at approximately 10,000’ cabin altitude
c. at approximately 12,000’ cabin altitude
d. at approximately 14,000’ cabin altitude

A

d. at approximately 14,000’ cabin altitude

1. 40.16

100
Q
  1. The fuel pumps for the main and center tanks are powered by which electrical system?

a. AC
b. DC

A

a. AC

7. 30.2

101
Q
  1. What is another purpose of the defueling valve?

a. Ground transfer of fuel
b. Tank to tank transfer of fuel
c. Fuel dumping
d. a and b

A

a. Ground transfer of fuel

12. 10.10

102
Q
  1. A center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light will illuminate when the pump switch off?

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

12. 10.2

103
Q
  1. Each tank supplies pressurized fuel by using ____ boost pumps.

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

A

b. Two

12. 20.1

104
Q
  1. With the crossfeed valve closed, the left center tank boost pump will feed the left engine and the right center tank boost pump will feed the right engine, until the center tank is dry.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

12. 20.1

105
Q
  1. With a complete loss of electrical power, only fuel from which tanks will be available?

a. Center Tank
b. Main Tanks
c. All Tanks

A

b. Main Tanks

12. 20.1

106
Q
  1. The fuel quantity indicators are found on the upper MFD panel and required standby AC power to operate.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

12. 10.4

107
Q
  1. Inflight, when the crossfeed valve is open, fuel may be fed from any tank to:

a. Any Tank
b. Only from Tank #1 to #2
c. Its respective engine only
d. Either engine

A

d. Either engine

12. 20.2

108
Q
  1. The engine fuel shutoff valves may be closed by:

a. pulling the engine fire warning switch
b. placing the engine start lever to CUTOFF
c. placing both fuel pumps in the respective tank to off.
d. both a and b

A

d. both a and b

12. 20.2

109
Q
  1. Which valve interconnects the engine feed system to the fueling station?

a. The fueling valve
b. The #2 Start Lever
c. Manual Defueling valve
d. The Crossfeed valve

A

c. Manual Defueling valve

12. 20.3

110
Q
  1. The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of hydraulic power for automatic extension of the Autoslats if the system “B” engine driven pump pressure falls below limits.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

13. 20.4

111
Q
  1. Can the standby hydraulic pump operate the thrust reversers?

a. No. They are pneumatically powered
b. Yes, at the normal rate
c. No. There is no backup source of power for the thrust reversers
d. Yes, but more slowly than normal operation.

A

d. Yes, but more slowly than normal operation.

7. 20.15

112
Q
  1. When both the crossfeed switch and teh crossfeed vale are open, the CROSSFEED VALVE OPEN light will:

a. be extinguished
b. Illuminate dim blue
c. Illuminate bright blue

A

b. Illuminate dim blue

12. 20.2

113
Q
  1. For a FUEL annunciator and MASTER CAUTION light to illuminate, two fuel LOW PRESSURE lights must be illuminated in the same wing tank (except on Recall).

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

12. 10.3

114
Q
  1. When the landing gear is up and locked, all landing gear indicator lights will be extinguished when the landing gear lever is placed in what position?

a. UP
b. OFF
c. Down
d. Either a or b

A

d. Either a or b

14. 10.2

115
Q
  1. The maximum fuel imbalance for landing?

a. 1500 lbs
b. 1300 lbs
c. 1200 lbs
d. 1000 lbs

A

d. 1000 lbs

L.10.11

116
Q

What does the illumination of the fuel “FILTER BYPASS” light indicate?

a. Solid contaminants
b. Icing
c. Impending filter bypass
d. Fuel temp 0 degrees or less

A

c. Impending filter bypass

7. 20.9

117
Q
  1. Wing tanks #1 and #2 must be full if the center tank contains more than what amount?

a. 2000 lbs
b. 1000 lbs
c. 1500 lbs
d. 1300 lbs

A

b. 1000 lbs

L.10.11

118
Q
  1. The warning horn will sound when landing gear is not down and locked, flaps greater then 15 and the thrust levers are at Idle; it cannot be silenced.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

15. 20.6

119
Q
  1. Air/Ground safety sensors are located on what gear?

a. The left main gear
b. The right main gear
c. The nose gear
d. Both b and c
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

14. 20.6

120
Q
  1. The engine fuel shutoff valve is:

a. DC powered (Hot Bat Bus) and controlled by the engine start lever and/or the engine fire switch
b. Powered from the STBY BUS and controlled by the engine fire switch
c. Powered by the XFER BUS and controlled by the engine start lever
d. Powered by the XFER BUS and controlled by the engine fire switch

A

a. DC powered (Hot Bat Bus) and controlled by the engine start lever and/or the engine fire switch
(6. 20.19)

121
Q
  1. What ensures proper fuel flow direction and prevents transfer of fuel between tanks?

a. Crossfeed valve
b. positive pressure from the fuel boost pumps
c. check valves

A

c. check valves

12. 20.1

122
Q
  1. What is the maximum airspeed for extending the landing gear?

a. 220 kts
b. 230 kts
c. 250 kts
d. 270 kts

A

d. 270 kts

Forward Instrument Panel Placard

123
Q
  1. The purpose of the single point fueling system is to allow:

a. Rapid fueling
b. Ground fuel transfer
c. Defueling
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

12. 20.3

124
Q
  1. Is it possible to service the center tank without single-point fueling?

a. No
b. Yes, but use of ground transfer

A

b. Yes, but use of ground transfer

12. 20.3

125
Q
  1. If both “A” and “B” hydraulic systems fail could any of the primary flight controls be hydraulically powered?

a. Yes, the elevator by STBY hydraulics.
b. Yes, the rudder thru the STBY rudder power control unit powered by the STBY hydraulic system.
c. Yes, the ailerons by the STBY hydraulics
d. None by the hydraulics but they can be moved manually.

A

b. Yes, the rudder thru the STBY rudder power control unit powered by the STBY hydraulic system.
(13. 10.6)

126
Q
  1. With the loss of all generators, both center tank boost pumps are inoperative and the fuel in the center tank is no longer usable.

a. True (suction feed is available from the main tanks only)
b. False

A

a. True (suction feed is available from the main tanks only)

12. 20.1

127
Q
  1. Where does the Auto mode of the pressure controller receive its barometric reference

a. From the First Officer’s altimeter
b. Directly from the pitot static probes
c. From the BARO selector through the ADIRUs
d. From the ADC

A

c. From the BARO selector through the ADIRUs

2. 40.2

128
Q
  1. Yaw damper operation occurs only when what hydraulic system is operational?

a. “B” system
b. “A” system
c. STBY system
d. Both b and a

A

a. “B” system

9. 20.13

129
Q
  1. Where does the ALTN mode get its barometric reference?

a. From the BARO selectors through the ADIRUs
b. Directly from the Pitot Static probes
c. From the Captains altimeter
d. From the ADC

A

a. From the BARO selectors through the ADIRUs

2. 40.2

130
Q
  1. If the trailing edge flaps were extended and retracted by the alternate method, according to procedures; how long would it be before you extend the trailing edge flaps again?

a. 25 min
b. 15 min
c. 5 min
d. 2 min

A

c. 5 min

L.10.9

131
Q
  1. Which outflow valve motor does the AUTO mode use?

a. The AC motor
b. The DC motor
c. The pneumatic motor
d. The DC motor through the TR

A

b. The DC motor

2. 40.1

132
Q
  1. If the cowl valve fails to agree with the position of the Engine Anti-Ice switch, what will the indication be?

a. The COWL VALVE OPEN light will extinguish
b. The COWL VALVE OPEN light will be dim blue
c. The COWL VALVE OPEN light will be bright blue
d. The COWL ANTI ICE light will illuminate

A

c. The COWL VALVE OPEN light will be bright blue

3. 10.5

133
Q
  1. In AUTO mode, where does the controller derive its altitude information?

a. From the ADC
b. From the ADIRUs
c. From the Aux ports
d. None of the above

A

b. From the ADIRUs

2. 40.1

134
Q
  1. If unable to close the Engine Anti-Ice valve in flight, what should the crew do?

a. Retard the Thrust levers to idle
b. Open the isolation valve
c. Limit the thrust on the affected engine to 80% N1 if TAT exceeds 10˚C
d. Turn off the Bleed valve

A

c. Limit the thrust on the affected engine to 80% N1 if TAT exceeds 10˚C

(QRH 3.2)

135
Q
  1. What does an illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE light mean?

a. The cowl valve is open
b. An over pressure conditions exists in the Cowl Anti-ice duct
c. The cowl valve has failed to open
d. The cowl valve is in transit

A

b. An over pressure conditions exists in the Cowl Anti-ice duct

(QRH 3.1) (3.10.5)

136
Q
  1. The Engine Anti-Ice should be turned on at what time?

a. Any time the COWL ANTI-ICE light is on
b. 0˚C or colder
c. Ten minutes prior to departure
d. When icing conditions exist or are anticipated

A

d. When icing conditions exist or are anticipated

SP 16.4

137
Q
  1. If an engine OVERHEAT light cannot be extinguished by using the recommended overheat procedures, which engine procedures should be followed?

a. Bleed Overheat
b. Engine Failure, Fire, Sever Damage, or Separation
c. Engine Overheat
d. Engine Shutdown

A

b. Engine Failure, Fire, Sever Damage, or Separation

QRH 8.5

138
Q
  1. How many minutes prior to takeoff should window heat be turned on?

a. one minute
b. Three minutes
c. Five minutes
d. Ten Minutes

A

d. Ten Minutes

NP. 21.15

139
Q
  1. With the Overheat Detector switch in Normal, which loops must sense an overheat or fire condition before an overheat or fire warning is activated?

a. Both #1 and #2 loops
b. Both “A” and “B” loops
c. Only one loop for fore or one loop for overheat
d. Only one loop of any kind

A

b. Both “A” and “B” loops

8. 20.1

140
Q
  1. A green Window heat ON light illuminates:

a. When the switch is in the ON position
b. The valve doesn’t agree with the switch postion
c. Whenever the Window Heat controller is applying heat to the associated window
d. When the window has already reached a predetermined temperature

A

c. Whenever the Window Heat controller is applying heat to the associated window
(3. 10.2)

141
Q
  1. Pulling and rotating a fire warning handle will discharge the fire extinguisher selected even when the battery switch is off; True of False?

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

6. 20.19

142
Q
  1. The result of pulling the APU Fire Warning handle are:

a. APU Fuel Shutoff valve closes, Bleed air valve closes, inlet door closes.
b. Trips the Generator Control Relay, Arms the extinguisher
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

A

c. Both a and b

8. 20.4

143
Q
  1. When the FLT/GRD switch is placed in the FLT position, what does the system do?

a. It starts pressurizing the cabin to .125 psid
b. It’s a trick! There’s no FLT/GND switch.
c. Temporarily switches the the STBY mode of pressure for until takeoff
d. It temporarily closes the Main OUTFLOW valve until takeoff roll.

A

b. It’s a trick! There’s no FLT/GND switch.

144
Q
  1. APU fire detection loop failure is indicated by the illumination of which light?

a. APU fire light
b. Fault light
c. APU DET INOP light
d. Green Squib light

A

c. APU DET INOP light

8. 10.4

145
Q
  1. The FAULT light monitors which detector loops?

a. Engine #1 and Engine #2
b. Fire loops #1 and #2
c. Overheat loops #1 and #2
d. APU overheat and fire loops

A

a. Engine #1 and Engine #2

8. 10.3

146
Q
  1. How are the FIRE warning switches unlocked manually?

a. By pressing the override release
b. By conducting a FIRE test, then pulling the switch
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

A

c. Both a and b

8. 10.3

147
Q
  1. If a flight attendant turns on the Emergency Exit lights on the aft panel, is there a cockpit indication and can the cockpit crew override the F/A switch?

a. A blue light illuminates, the pilot switch will override the F/A switch
b. No indication in the cockpit, the pilot’s switch will not override the F/A switch
c. Light on the overhead panel , the pilot’s switch will not override the F/A switch

A

b. No indication in the cockpit, the pilot’s switch will not override the F/A switch
(1. 40.5)

148
Q
  1. What does the green disk on the right side of the fuselage indicate?

a. Fire bottle intentional discharge
b. Fire bottle thermal discharge
c. Portable water servicing disk
d. Crew Oxygen thermal pressure relief disk

A

d. Crew Oxygen thermal pressure relief disk

149
Q
  1. If ground power is being supplied to the aircraft and APU power is put on one bus, does the ground power trip off the line?

a. Yes, only the side powered by the APU will remain powered
b. Yes, all power will be removed from all buses
c. No, ground power will continue to power the other side until it is removed, or another power source powers the bus.
d. Both b and c

A

Worksheet says answer is;

c. No, ground power will continue to power the other side until it is removed, or another power source powers the bus.

BUT BAD QUESTION and NO CORRECT ANSWER

150
Q
  1. The designation of the engine on the 737-NG is CFM International CFM56-7B26.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

7. 1.11

Boeing 737NG COPY (5 decks)

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