HTD Superior Flashcards
1
Q
- A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department (ED) after an episode of hematemesis. EGD confirms a Mallory-Weiss tear with no residual bleeding. Treatment should consist of:
A. Esophagectomy
B. Observation
C. Proximal gastrectomy with esophago-jejunostomy
D. Inj ection of botulinum toxin
A
B. Observation
2
Q
The optimal initial management of a patient hospitalized for a bleeding peptic ulcer is:
A. Ulcer oversew
B. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
C. Distal gastrectomy
D. Intravenous PPis
A
D. Intravenous PPis
3
Q
Factores de riesgo
A
H. Pylori, AINES, Tabaquismo, Alcoholismo, Cirrosis, Enf. vasculares
4
Q
Evaluación
A
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/image?imageKey=GAST%2F105093&topicKey=GAST%2F2548&search=intestinal%20bleeding&rank=1~150&source=see_link
5
Q
Indicación de Octreotide
A
Sangrado variceal
6
Q
Indicación de antibiótico
A
Cirrosis