HTD Superior Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department (ED) after an episode of hematemesis. EGD confirms a Mallory-Weiss tear with no residual bleeding. Treatment should consist of:
    A. Esophagectomy
    B. Observation
    C. Proximal gastrectomy with esophago-jejunostomy
    D. Inj ection of botulinum toxin
A

B. Observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The optimal initial management of a patient hospitalized for a bleeding peptic ulcer is:
A. Ulcer oversew
B. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
C. Distal gastrectomy
D. Intravenous PPis

A

D. Intravenous PPis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Factores de riesgo

A

H. Pylori, AINES, Tabaquismo, Alcoholismo, Cirrosis, Enf. vasculares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Evaluación

A

https://www.uptodate.com/contents/image?imageKey=GAST%2F105093&topicKey=GAST%2F2548&search=intestinal%20bleeding&rank=1~150&source=see_link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Indicación de Octreotide

A

Sangrado variceal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Indicación de antibiótico

A

Cirrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly