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Clin Med II Exam 4 > ID extras > Flashcards

ID extras Flashcards

1
Q

what’s the difference between eliminated and eradicated ID?

A

eliminated: incidence is decreased, eradicated means it’s gone

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2
Q

what’s the MC lancefield criteria for BHS?

A

group A

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3
Q

what type of hemolytic strep is enterococci?

A

gamma?

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4
Q

how is VRE treated?

A

ampicillin

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5
Q

Sandpaper rash, circumoral pallor, flushing, strawberry tongue

A

scarlet fever (strep)

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6
Q

GAS where flaccid bullae may develop after a well defined macular erythematous lesion

A

erysipelas

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7
Q

what is the MC GAS?

A

strep pyogenes

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8
Q

what is the cause of the honey crusted yellow lesion of impetigo?

A

s. pyogenes

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9
Q

What causes type II necrotizing faciitis?

A

GAS +/- staph

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10
Q

What causes type III necrotizing faciitis?

A

vibrio vulnificans in sea water

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11
Q

What are the non-suppurative complications of GAS?

A

acute glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever, guttate psoriasis, scarlet fever

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12
Q

what are the clinical signs of botulism?

A

LMN signs, visual changes, respiratory depression, dry mouth

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13
Q

How is botulism diagnosed?

A

inject the toxin into mouse serum and get antiserum

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14
Q

what would be found on gram stain of anthrax?

A

gram + aerobic rod

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15
Q

Where is anthrax normally found?

A

farm animals and horses

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16
Q

what systems are affected y anthrax?

A

pulmonary, dermatologic, GI

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17
Q

who discovered cholera?

A

john snow (father of epidemiology)

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18
Q

A patient has severe opithotonus with no AMS

A

tetanus

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19
Q

what are the 3 presentations of salmonellosis?

A

typhoid, gastroenteritis (MC), bacteremia

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20
Q

pea soup, no blood

A

typhoid

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21
Q

child was playing with his turtle and now has bloody diarrhea

A

gastroenteritis (salmonellosis)

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22
Q

treatment of salmonellosis

A

quinolones

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23
Q

HEmatochezia, HLA-B27 reactive arthritis, dysentery

A

shigellosis

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24
Q

what would the gram stain for N. meningiditis look like?

A

g- intracellular diplococcus

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25
Q

what are the identified serotypes of N. meningiditis?

A

A, B, C, W-135, X, Y

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26
Q

What is waterhouse friedrickson syndrome associated with?

A

N. meningiditis

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27
Q

Lone star tick

A

ehrlichosis

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28
Q

How is ehrlichosis diagnosed?

A

morula on PBS

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29
Q

chlamydial infection from birds/parrots

A

c. psittaci

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30
Q

chlamydial infection causing atypical pneumonia

A

c. pneumoniae

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31
Q

cause of LGV

A

c. trachomatis

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32
Q

What is the MCC of infertility in women?

A

chlamydia

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33
Q

c. galbrata

A

azole resistant

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34
Q

c. parapsolosis

A

azole sensitive, maybe concerns with micafungin

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35
Q

what type of pneumona is hematogenously spread?

A

candidal PNA

36
Q

how is invasive candida treated?

A

amphoteracin (pre-treated with APAP)

37
Q

what organism can cause mold in cold and yeast in warmth?

A

histoplasmosis

38
Q

what organism is associated with pigeon dung?

A

cryptococcus

39
Q

what can cryptococcus cause?

A

pulmonary disease, meningitis, cryptococcoma

40
Q

how is crytpococcal infection diagnosed?

A

leukocytosis, india ink stain, elevated opening pressures

41
Q

what are PE findings of PJP?

A

hypoxia, hypocapnea, reduced O2 diffusion

42
Q

what is black mold?

A

aspergillosis

43
Q

how is aspergilosis treated?

A

posaconazole

44
Q

what can aspergillosis cause?

A

allergic bronchopulmonary disease, aspergilloma

45
Q

Broad based budding yeast on KOH

A

bastomycosis

46
Q

A pt contacted an armadillo and now has paresthesias, cutaneous lumps and nodules

A

mycobacterium leprae

47
Q

claw fingers, foot drop, lack of eyebrows/lashes, lion facies

A

leprosy

48
Q

what treatment should G6PD defciency pts not get when being treated for malaria?

A

quinine and doxy

49
Q

Mild to severe colitis, tenesmus, ameboma

A

amebiasis

50
Q

how is amebiasis treated?

A

flagyl + diloxaninde

51
Q

Intestinal round worm

A

ascariasis

52
Q

American malaria

A

babesiosis

53
Q

watery diarrhea

A

cryptosporidiosis

54
Q

contaminated fresh water

A

giardasis

55
Q

multiple ring enhancing lesions on CT

A

toxoplasmosis encephalitis

56
Q

what is the definitve diagnosis of toxoplasmosis encephalitis?

A

brain bx

57
Q

anogenital warts

A

6 and 11

58
Q

cervical neoplasia

A

16 and 18

59
Q

prickle cells, keratin, koiloctoic on histology

A

warts

60
Q

groupd cropping vesicles with ulceration

A

HSV

61
Q

how can HSV infect the eye?

A

keratitis

62
Q

Temproal necrosis on MRI

A

HSV encephalitis

63
Q

what is NOT a vector of rabies?

A

rats

64
Q

when is hydrophobia seen?

A

rabies

65
Q

how is rabies diagnosed?

A

CSF RT PCR

66
Q

presents similar to EBV except no pharyngitis

A

CMV

67
Q

when can retinitis occur in the CMV patient?

A

CD4 <50

68
Q

where can CMV affect the body?

A

eye, neurologic, GI, pulmonary

69
Q

What causes PML?

A

JC virus

70
Q

diffuse areas of demyelination without enhancement or mass effect

A

PML

71
Q

What can cause hemorrhagic cystitis in BMT pts and graft failure in renal transplant?

A

BK virus

72
Q

how is BK virus diagnosed?

A

PCR of urine or blood

73
Q

IgG and IgM are found on serum and CSF

A

west nile

74
Q

what is seen in the acute phase of lyme disease?

A

erythema migrans rash

75
Q

how is lyme disease transmitted?

A

deer tick, borrelia burgdorferi

76
Q

How is RMSF transmitted?

A

american dog tick

77
Q

fever, rigors, HA, conjunctivitis, rash from ankles and wrists

A

RMSF

78
Q

what are the 3 types of plague?

A

bubonic, septic, pulmonic

79
Q

how is plague diagnosed?

A

wright stain

80
Q

how is hantavirus transmitted?

A

rodents

81
Q

how is ebola transmitted?

A

bats

82
Q

viral hemorrhagic fever, marburg virus

A

ebola

83
Q

treatment of ebola

A

NONE

84
Q

how is dengue transmitted?

A

bloodborne, aedes aegypt

85
Q

Myalgias, HA, malaise, breakbone fever, possbile hemorrhagic fever

A

Dengue

Clin Med II Exam 4 (5 decks)

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