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IGS Flashcards

1
Q 
4. The non-precision approach minimums at your departure airport are 300-2. There is no precision approach available. With a standard instrument rating, what are your take off minimums?
 A. 600-3
 B. 300-1
 C. 200-1/2
 D. 300-2
A

D. 300-2

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2
Q 
6. Information detailing pilot-to-metro service (PMSV) and weather radar facilities can be found in:
 A. IFR Enroute Supplement
 B. Flight information Handbook
 C. DoD Approach Procedures
 D. AP 1, 2 or 3
A

B. Flight Information Handbook

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3
Q 
25. When receiving a weather brief, the briefing void time cannot exceed \_\_\_\_ hour(s) past briefing time or ETD plus \_\_\_\_ minutes.
 A. 1, 45
 B. 2, 30
 C. 3, 30
 D. 2.5, 15
A

C. 3, 30

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4
Q 
46. You completed your annual instrument rating on 17 February 2012. Your instrument rating will expire on:
A. 17 February 2013
B. 28 February 2013
C. 31 December 2012
D. 31 January 2013
A

B. 28 February 2013

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5
Q 
34. Major flight simulator devices may be used to obtain \_\_\_\_ of the minimum instrument rating requirements.
 A. All
 B. One-half
 C. One-third
 D. None
A

B. One-half

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6
Q
  1. (T/F) Pilots and NFOs may renew their instrument rating within 60 days preceding expiration of their current evaluation and it is valid for 12 months from the last day of the month that corresponds with the month of the current qualification.
A

True

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7
Q
  1. If the weather at your destination (ETA +/- 1 hour) is forecast to be published mins up to but not including 3000’/3 miles, your alternate weather (ETA +/- 1 hour) must be:
    A. No alternate required
    B. 3000’/3 miles or better
    C. Published mins plus 200’/.5 mile for precision approach in use
    D. 1000’/3 miles or better
A

C. Published mins plus 200’/.5 mile for precision approach in use

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following items is NOT required to be reported to ATC?
    A. Vacating an assigned altitude or flight level
    B. Unable to maintain at least a 1000 fpm rate of climb or descent
    C. Execute a missed approach
    D. Change in TAS of 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater
A

B. Unable to maintain at least a 1000 fpm rate of climb or descent

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9
Q
  1. Actual instrument conditions exist when:
    A. Ceiling is 500’ HAA
    B. Ceiling is 500’ HAA and visibility less than 1 SM
    C. Ceiling is 500’ HAA and visibility less than 1 SM or after sunset
    D. No visual reference to the horizon
A

D. No visual reference to the horizon

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10
Q
  1. When FAR/AIM rules and procedures are less restrictive from those delineated in OPNAV 3710.7, ____ takes precedence.
    A. FAR/AIM rules and regulations
    B. Plane Commander discretion
    C. OPNAV 3710.7
    D. FAR/AIM rules and OPNAV 3710.7 do not have differences in rules and regulations
A

C. OPNAV 3710.7

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11
Q
  1. An actual instrument approach can be logged when actual IMC are encountered below __ during an instrument approach.
    A. 1000’ HAA (height above airport)
    B. 1500’ HAA
    C. 200’ above decision height on a precision approach
    D. 300’ above MDA on a non-precision approach
A

A. 1000’ HAA (height above airport)

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12
Q
  1. Planned fuel reserve will not be less than ____ minutes flight at ____ for fixed wing or ____ for rotary wing.
    A. 10, FL200 max range, 500’, max endurance
    B. 20, 10000’ max endurance, planned flight altitude
    C. 15, 10000’ max endurance, 500’ max range
    D. 20, max range cruise altitude, 500’ max range
A

B. 20, 10000’ max endurance, planned flight altitude

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13
Q
  1. (T/F) You receive an ATC clearance that specifies, “Cleared as filed.” If a cruising altitude was not assigned in the clearance, you may assume it to be the same as that filed.
A

False

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14
Q 
70. What are the warning signs of windshear/microburst?
A. Rapid airspeed changes
B. Unusual throttle position
C. Erratic vertical speed
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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15
Q
  1. If the weather at your destination (ETA +/- 1 hour) is forecast to be published minimums up to but not including 3000-3, your alternate weather (ETA +/- 1 hour) must be:
    A. No alternate required
    B. 3000-3 or better
    C. Published minimums plus 200-1/2 for precision approach in use
    D. 1000-3 or better
A

C. Published minimums plus 200-1/2 for precision approach in use

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16
Q 
29. Present weather at KNHK is 100-1/4. The PAR minimums to the Active runway is 100-3/4. A P-3C, with two qualified pilots with standard instrument ratings, may takeoff when the weather improves to a minimum of:
 A. 300-3/4
 B. 200-1/2
 C. 300-1
 D. 200-3/4
A

D. 200-3/4

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17
Q 
40. An instrument flight evaluation must occur within \_\_\_\_ days after IGS and a written exam.
 A. 30
 B. 60
 C. 45
 D. 90
A

B. 60 days

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18
Q
  1. You have lost communications while en route to your destination in IMC conditions. You will fly the highest altitude of the following EXCEPT:
    A. Last assigned
    B. MOCA (minimum obstruction clearance altitude)
    C. MEA (minimum enroute altitude) or MCA (minimum crossing altitude)
    D. Altitude expected or proposed
A

B. MOCA (minimum obstruction clearance altitude)

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19
Q
  1. (T/F) Where a specific NATOPS manual indicates a deviation from OPNAVINST 3710.7U, the NATOPS manual takes priority.
A

True

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20
Q 
64. Which of the following RNAV (GPS) approach altitudes is for a precision approach?
A. LPV DA
B. LNAV/VNAV DA
C. LNAV MDA
D. GLS DA
A

D. GLS DA

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21
Q 
59. According to 3710.7U, if you have a crew day longer than 18 hrs, how much time are you required to have off before being scheduled again?
A. 15 hrs
B. 12 hrs
C. 8 hrs
D. 24 hrs
A

A. 15 hrs

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22
Q
  1. (T/F) “Taxi to” runway is clearance to cross all intersecting off-duty runways
A

False

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23
Q 
42. How long does it take for the human eye to fully adapt from light to dark:
A. 15 min
B. 90 sec
C. 40 min
D. 40 sec
A

C. 40 min

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24
Q 
17. The maximum airspeed within Class B airspace is \_\_\_\_. The maximum airspeed in airspace beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace is \_\_\_\_.
 A. 200 KIAS, 250 KIAS
 B. 250 KIAS, 200 KIAS
 C. 275 KIAS, 200 KIAS
 D. 265 KIAS, 230 KIAS
A

B. 250 KIAS, 200 KIAS

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25
Q 
62. All of the following are required for flight in Class A airspace (FL180 up to and including FL600) except:
A. Operable Mode C transponder
B. Two-way communications
C. Altimeter set at 29.92
D. VFR flight plan
A

D. VFR flight plan

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26
Q 
44. The maximum holding speed from ground level to 6000' is:
A. 175 knots
B. 200 knots
C. 230 knots
D. 265 knots
A

B. 200 knots

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27
Q 
66. Which publications contains information regarding general ICAO procedures/terms and details the filling of an ICAO flight plan?
A. Airman's Information Manual
B. Foreign Clearance Guide
C. IFR Enroute Supplement
D. General Planning
A

D. General Planning

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28
Q
  1. OPNAV 3710.7 states that an airborne flight ends (for the purposes of logging flight time) when the aircraft is on the deck and:
    A. Engines are stopped
    B. Aircraft has been on the deck five minutes
    C. A or B, whichever comes first
    D. When the active runway is cleared
A

C. A or B, whichever comes first

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29
Q
  1. Consumption of alcohol:
    A. Prohibited within 12 hours of the mission brief
    B. Prohibited within 12 hours of flight planning
    C. Prohibited within 12 hours of flight
    D. Both A and B
A

D. Both A and B

30
Q 
11. The body's strongest orientation input is:
 A. Proprioceptive
 B. Sight
 C. Cognitive
 D. Vestibular
A

B. sight

31
Q
  1. Squall lines are all of the following except:
    A. Thunderstorms in front of fast moving cold front
    B. Hundreds of miles in length
    C. Originate from occluded fronts
    D. Can persist for many hours
A

C. Originate from occluded fronts

32
Q
  1. Which of the following items are not required to be reported to ATC:
    A. Vacating an assigned altitude or flight level
    B. Unable to maintain at least a 1000 fpm rate of climb or descent
    C. Executing a missed approach
    D. Change in TAS of 5% or 10 knts whichever is greater
A

B. Unable to maintain at least a 1000 fpm rate of climb or descent

33
Q 
57. Standard holding at or below 14,000' MSL is defined as \_\_ turns with \_\_ minute(s) legs inbound to the holding fix.
A. Right, 1.5
B. Left, 1.5
C. Right, 1
D. Left, 1
A

C. Right, 1

34
Q 
14. Which publication contains information of general ICAO procedures, terms and definitions, and flight plans and codes?
 A. FAR Part 91
 B. DoD Foreign Clearance Guide
 C. DoD Enroute Supplement
 D. DoD FLIP General  Planning (GP)
A

D. DoD FLIP General Planning (GP)

35
Q 
52. When receiving a DD-175-1 weather brief, the briefing void time cannot exceed \_\_ hour(s) past briefing time or ETD plus \_\_ minutes.
A. 1; 45
B. 2.5; 30
C. 3; 30
D. 2.5; 60
A

C. 3; 30

36
Q
  1. (T/F) All flights in naval aircraft shall be conducted in accordance with IFR to the maximum extent practical.
A

True

37
Q 
16. All of the following are required for flight in Class A airspace (FL 180 up to and including FL 600) except:
 A. Operable transponder
 B. 2-way radio
 C. Flight Management System
 D. Altimeter set 29.92 "Hg
A

C. Flight Management System

38
Q
  1. The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage within 22 nm of the navaid and provides normal obstacle clearance of 1000’, 2000’ in mountainous areas along that route is:
    A. MCA (minimum crossing altitude)
    B. MRA (minimum reception altitude)
    C. MOCA (minimum obstruction clearance altitude)
    D. MEA (minimum enroute altitude)
A

C. MOCA (minimum obstruction clearance altitude)

39
Q 
24. When you report minimum fuel,
 A. You need to report that when switching controllers
 B. You have declared an emergency
 C. You will receive priority handling
 D. Both A and C
A

A. You need to report that when switching controllers

40
Q 
For a standard instrument rating renewal, a pilot must have \_\_\_\_ hours actual/simulated instrument time, \_\_\_\_ precision approaches and \_\_\_\_ non-precision approaches in the last year.
 A. 12,12,6
 B. 12,6,12
 C. 12,12,12
 D. 10,12,12
A

A. 12, 12, 6

41
Q
  1. The lowest altitude you are allowed to fly IAW 3710.7?
    A. 500’
    B. 1000’
    C. 1500’
    D. Pilot In Command wants to look at his house so any altitude he feels like!
A

A. 500’

42
Q 
9. The minimum altitude over noise sensitive areas such as breeding farms, resorts, beaches, national parks, monuments and recreational/wilderness areas is:
 A. 1500' MSL
 B. 3000' MSL
 C. 3000' AGL
 D. 4000' AGL
A

C. 3000’ AGL

43
Q
  1. If you experience spatial disorientation, you can recover by:
    A. Refer to your instruments
    B. Delay intuitive actions long enough to check visual cues and instruments
    C. Transfer controls to the other pilot
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

44
Q
  1. (T/F) The definition of a ceiling is a cloud layer classified as broken, overcast or obscured not further identified as thin or partial.
A

True

45
Q 
68. When descending from FL250 to land at an airfield with a local altimeter setting of 29.72, you forget to reset your altimeter setting. You are \_\_ than your instrument indicate.
A. 200 feet higher
B. 200 feet lower
C. 100 feet higher
D. 100 feet lower
A

B. 200 feet lower

46
Q
  1. (T/F) The most dangerous type of icing is Rime Icing.
A

False

47
Q 
49. The maximum airspeed within Class B airspace is \_\_. The maximum airspeed in airspace beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace is \_\_.
A. 200 KIAS; 250 KIAS
B. 250 KIAS; 200 KIAS
C. 275 KIAS; 200 KIAS
D. 265 KIAS; 230 KIAS
A

B. 250 KIAS; 200 KIAS

48
Q 
8. The standard timing for a leg in holding below 14000' is:
 A. 1 min
 B. 1.5 min
 C. 2 min
 D. 2.5 min
A

A. 1 min

49
Q 
35. After forgetting to change your altimeter setting from 29.92" when descending from FL 210 to approach altitudes you execute an instrument approach to your destination field at sea level. The actual altimeter setting at the field is 29.84". At DH your altimeter incorrectly reads 110' MSL. Your actual aircraft altitude: 
 A. 190' MSL
 B. 910' MSL
 C. 30' MSL
 D. 102' MSL
A

C. 30’ MSL

50
Q 
27. Height of DH or MDA above Highest Runway Elevation in the Touchdown Zone:
 A. HAA
 B. HAL
 C. QNE
 D. HAT
A

D. HAT

51
Q
  1. (T/F) Formation approaches use the same straight in minimums for landing only they need to transition to landing configuration above the weather if possible.
A

False

52
Q
  1. (T/F) If you are directed to “taxi to” a runway for takeoff, you are cleared to cross all intersecting runways.
A

False

53
Q 
13. The stage of a thunderstorm dominated by both up and down drafts is called the:
 A. Cumulus Stage
 B. Mature Stage
 C. Dissipating Stage
 D. Squall Stage
A

B. Mature Stage

54
Q
  1. Except for operational necessity, emergencies, and flights involving all-weather research projects or weather reconnaissance, pilots shall not file into or through areas for which a Severe Weather Watch Bulletin (WW) has been issued unless:
    A. Storm development has not progressed as forecast in the judgment of a qualified DOD forecaster
    B. Aircraft performance permits flight above significant weather
    C. Pilots are able to remain clear of thunderstorms using an operable weather radar
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

55
Q
  1. A ceiling is defined:
    A. In height AGL
    B. As an MSL Altitude when given as part of a PIREP
    C. As the lowest altitude at which a broken, overcast, or obscured layer exists which is not further described as “thin” or “partial”
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

56
Q
  1. A single frequency approach is:
    A. An ILS or other approach where the NAVAID does not need changing
    B. A GCA where the pilot can expect the entire approach on one frequency
    C. An approach where all other radios must be turned off
    D. A and B
A

BA GCA where the pilot can expect the entire approach on one frequency

57
Q 
58. Information regarding pilot-to-metro services can be found in:
A. IFR Enroute Supplement
B. Flight Information Handbook
C. DOD Approach Procedure
D. AP/1
A

B. Flight Information Handbook

58
Q
  1. When lost communication, if the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach may be commenced, commence approach based on:
    A. Arrival at IAF utilizing best attainable airspeed
    B. Arrival at IAF utilizing max range airspeed
    C. Expect further clearance time or estimated time of arrival at the IAF
    D. Ensuring sufficient fuel to fly two approaches at destination and proceed to alternate plus 20% fuel reserve
A

C. Expect further clearance time or estimated time of arrival at the IAF

59
Q 
69. By how far should you avoid a thunderstorm?
A. 20 mi
B. 40 mi
C. 10 mi
D. Remain clear of clouds
A

A. 20 mi

60
Q
  1. While on a TACAN straight-in approach, you sight the field prior to your Missed Approach Point (MAP). With a Visual Descent Point (VDP) depicted you may descend below the MDA at:
    A. The VDP
    B. The MAP if the field remains in sight and you verify clear of obstacles
    C. Anywhere inside the Final Approach Fix if you maintain a 3 degree GS
    D. The VDP only if obstacles exist within 2 nm of Final Approach Course
A

A. The VDP

61
Q
  1. Allowable ADIZ penetration tolerances are:
    A. +/- 5 minutes, 10 nm over land ADIZ, 10 nm over water ADIZ,+/- 1,000’ altitude
    B. +/- 5 minutes, 10 nm over land ADIZ, 20 nm over water ADIZ, on altitude
    C. +/- 2 minutes, 20 nm over land ADIZ, 20 nm over water ADIZ, on altitude
    D. +/- 10 minutes, 20 nm over land ADIZ, 10 nm over water ADIZ, +/- 1000’ altitude
A

B. +/- 5 minutes, 10 nm over land ADIZ, 20 nm over water ADIZ, on altitude

62
Q
  1. (T/F) No aircraft may enter an alert area unless the pilot in command receives clearance from the controlling agency.
A

False

63
Q 
32. Flight operations through a WW are authorized only if storm development has not progressed as forecast for the planned route as verified by
 A. The Skipper
 B. DoD forecasters or an FSS
 C. The CDO
 D. PIREP
A

B. DoD forecasters or an FSS

64
Q
  1. When conducting a visual approach, which of the following statements is/are true?
    A. Weather must be at least 1000-3 at the field
    B. ATC provides IFR traffic separation but services are terminated when aircraft is advised to switch to tower frequency
    C. Tower is responsible for establishing a safe landing interval behind preceding traffic
    D. A and B
A

D. A and B

65
Q 
54. On a non-precision approach with a published visual descent point (VDP), the PF established visual reference with the runway environment prior to reaching the VDP. He/she should:
A. Continue descent to landing
B. Execute a missed approach
C. Maintain MDA until passing the VDP
D. All of the above
A

C. Maintain MDA until passing the VDP

66
Q 
43. The non-precision approach minimums at your departure airport are 300'/2miles. There is no precision approach available. With a standard instrument rating, what are your takeoff minimums?
A. 600'/3miles
B. 300'/1mile
C. 200'/.5miles
D. 300'/2miles
A

D. 300’/2miles

67
Q 
38. You receive flashing green ATC lights from the tower:
 A. You are cleared to land
 B. Return to make a landing
 C Exercise extreme caution
 D. Land at off duty runway
A

B. Return to make a landing

68
Q
  1. (T/F) To avoid wake turbulence, fly above the glide path of the heavy traffic ahead of you.
A

True

69
Q
  1. Planned fuel reserve will not be less than that needed for __ minutes of flight computed based on __.
    A. 10; operation at planned flight altitude
    B. 20; maximum endurance operation at 10,000 feet for turbine-powered fixed wing aircraft
    C. 20; maximum endurance operation at normal cruise altitudes for turbine-powered fixed wing aircraft
    D. 10; maximum endurance operation at normal cruise altitudes
A

B. 20; maximum endurance operation at 10,000 feet for turbine-powered fixed wing aircraft

70
Q 
61. The height, specified in MSL, above the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone at which a missed approached shall be initiated if the required visual reference has not been established during a precision approach is:
A. Minimum Safe Altitude
B. Minimum Descent Altitude
C. Visual Descent Point 
D. Decision Height
A

D. Decision Height

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