Immunology 1

Question 1

1. Neutrophils can release NETS. These are to:
   a) Attract macrophages
   b) Catch pathogens
   c) Activate T cells
   d) Bind to blood vessel

Question 2

2. Which answer is correct? Eosinophils….
   a) None of the listed answers
   b) Are predominantly found in the blood
   c) Have very few cell surface receptors
   d) Are needed for a Th1 response
   e) Release highly toxic proteins and have a short half life
   f) All of the listed answers

Question 3

3. Antibodies have a constant and variable region. The constant region:
   a) Binds to the Fc-receptor
   b) Mediates binding to the antigen
   c) All of the listed answers
   d) Gets mutated during somatic hypermutation

Question 4

4. True or False? – Antimicrobial peptides control the bacterial load on mucosal surfaces in a non-selective manner?
   a) False
   b) True

Question 5

5. Somatic hypermutation involves which of the following?
   a) None of the answers listed
   b) Occurs within the germinal centers of B cell follicles
   c) Random mutations in the constant chain region of antibodies
   d) MHC1 antigen presentation by dendritic cells to B cells
   e) Results in decreased antibody affinity

Question 6

6. Basophils are important drivers of a …… response (fill the gap with):
   a) Th4
   b) Th2
   c) Th5
   d) Th1

Question 7

7. Which of the cell types below is NOT considered an antigen-presenting cell?
   a) Histiocyte
   b) Alveolar macrophage
   c) Dendritic cell
   d) Natural killer cell
   e) B cell

Question 8

8. True or false? Plasma cells are found in the lumen of the intestine where they secret large amount of IgA
   a) True
   b) False

Question 9

9. Which of the following is not part of the humoral immune response?
   a) IL-8 and IL-1
   b) Acute phase proteins
   c) Cytotoxic T cells
   d) GM-CSF and CCL3
   e) IgG

Question 10

Which answer is correct? Activated B cells differentiate into….
a) None of the listed answers
b) Histiocytes
c) Naïve B cells
d) Lymphoid progenitor cells
e) Plasma cells

Question 11

11. What characterizes immature dendritic cells?
    a) Ability to quickly release antigen
    b) Phagocytose antigen
    c) Ability to present antigen
    d) Ability to talk to neutrophils

Question 12

12. True or false? CD4/CD8 are important molecules on T cells required for recognition of antigen?
    a) True
    b) False

Question 13

13. Cytotoxic T cells release
    a) Granzymes
    b) Antimicrobial peptides
    c) Antibodies
    d) Interleukin 5

Question 14

Helminths are large extracellular parasites. Our defense against them relies heavily on which cells?
a) Cytotoxic T cells
b) Eosinophils
c) NK cells

Question 15

15. True or False? CD4 molecules bind directly to the antigen presented by MHC II molecules.
    a) True
    b) False

Question 16

16. What are naïve T cells?
    a) T cells that express the TCR but have not encountered their antigen yet
    b) T cells that don’t have CD4+ or CD8+ on their surface
    c) T cells that don’t have a TCR and have not encountered their antigen
    d) T cells that shows cytotoxicity towards infected cells

Question 17

17. Antimicrobial peptides
    a) Do not trigger the recruitment of innate immune cells
    b) Promote the growth of microorganisms
    c) Are a short chain of amino acids
    d) Are only produced by epithelial cells

Question 18

18. What can be part of immune cell communication or activation?
    a) Complement factors
    b) All of the listed answers
    c) Catecholamines like adrenaline and epinephrine
    d) Cell-cell contact
    e) Growth factors and hormones
    f) Cytokines and chemokines

Question 19

19. Interleukin 12 is needed to
    a) Drive a Th1 response to fight intracellular parasites
    b) Release histamine
    c) Drive a T reg response
    d) Drive a Th1 response to fight extracellular bacteria

Question 20

20. What two functions do phagocytes have in immune responses?
    a) Destruction of pathogens and alerting other cells
    b) Alerting other cells and production of antibodies
    c) Production of antibodies and destruction of pathogens
    d) Serving as a physical barrier against pathogen invasion and destruction of pathogens

Question 21

21. Does the innate immune system differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus and influenza virus?
    a) No, because both are recognized through the same innate receptors
    b) Yes, innate immune cells recognize different classes of pathogens
    c) No, innate immune cells only recognize viral pathogens
    d) Yes, because innate immune cells recognize specific antigens that allow them to mount specific responses for each pathogen

Question 22

22. Acute Phase Proteins …..
    a) Are released only in late infection, which makes them a good diagnostic marker for chronic infections
    b) Are released early after infections and always have proinflammatory effects
    c) Can have proinflammatory and/or inhibitory functions depending on the type of pathogen, site, and pathogen load

Question 23

23. What is the correct order when describing phagocytosis?
    a) Adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion, microbial killing
    b) Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, microbial killing
    c) Ingestion, chemotaxis, adherence, microbial killing

Question 24

24. Innate immunity is
    a) None of the answers listed
    b) Critical for the release of T cells from the thymus
    c) Needed to maintain a Treg response
    d) A part of the immune response activated by recognition of specific antigens

Question 25

25. Macrophages differentiate from white blood cells called ______, which derive from stem cells in the ______.
    a) Phagosomes; liver
    b) Monocytes; bone marrow
    c) Monocytes; skin
    d) Phagosomes; bone marrow

Question 26

26. Interleukin 2 is needed to
    a) Induce class switch in the tonsils
    b) Stimulate brain function
    c) Activate T cells
    d) Release antimicrobial peptides

Question 27

27. Mast cells get activated through
    a) Antimicrobial peptides
    b) Interferon gamma
    c) Fc-receptor binding

Question 28

28. Clonal selection occurs when antigen is encountered by
    a) Neutrophils
    b) Mast cells
    c) T cells

Question 29

29. Eosinophils
    a) Appear red when stained with H&E
    b) Secrete complement receptor
    c) Are involved in positive and negative selection in thymus
    d) Secrete large amounts of IgA

Question 30

30. When a macrophage phagocytoses a pathogen, a piece of the pathogen is displayed on the surface pf the macrophage in combination with a …..
    a) Major histocompatibility complex
    b) Cell-mediated complex
    c) Foreign-antigen complex
    d) Immunoglobin complex

Question 31

31. Complement is an evolutionary old system consisting of >30 blood proteins. It
    a) Requires MHC1 to get activated
    b) Leads to immune cell recruitment
    c) Is only activated when no other response is effective

Question 32

32. Macrophages have no cell surface receptors
    a) True
    b) False

Question 33

33. Th1 immune responses are commonly associated with?
    a) Viral infections
    b) Th2 cells and antibodies
    c) IgE antibodies
    d) IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
    e) All of the answers listed

Question 34

34. IgE is
    a) All of the answers listed
    b) Associated with Th2 cells
    c) An immunoglobulin
    d) Involved in mast cell release
    e) Needed for parasitic infections

Question 35

35. Which of the following is FALSE regarding antigen presenting cells (APC)?
    a) APCs present antigen to both CD4+ and CD8+ T cells
    b) APCs recognize pathogens in an epitope-specific manner
    c) B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells are APCs
    d) Dendritic cells express MHC II

Question 36

36. Which of the following is false?
    a) Immature dendritic cells are located in peripheral tissues and are effective phagocytes
    b) In secondary lymphoid organs, mature dendritic cells present antigen to T cells
    c) Immature dendritic cells express high levels of MHC II and co-stimulatory molecules
    d) Mature dendritic cells lost their endocytic activity and migrate through the lymphatics towards secondary lymphoid tissues

Question 37

37. Innate immunity begins with
    a) Secretion of antibodies
    b) Immediate release of IL-4
    c) Recognition of danger signals
    d) Activation of lymphocytes in tonsils

Question 38

38. Which answer is correct? After antibody class switch….
    a) Some of the B cells secrete other antibody classes with different antigen specificities
    b) Some of the B cells secrete other classes of antibodies with the same antigen specificity
    c) B cells do not secrete IgE and IgA anymore
    d) None of the listed answers
    e) All B cells secrete IgG instead of IgM

Question 39

39. Humoral immunity is a type of adaptive immunity that results in the circulation of which of the following?
    a) Natural killer cells
    b) Cytokines
    c) Antigens
    d) Antibodies
    e) Immunocomplexes

Question 40

40. Antimicrobial peptides …
    a) Used in the thymus to select T cell specific for microbes
    b) Help to control invaders early during an infection
    c) Presented via MHC

Question 41

41. Th2 immune responses are NOT commonly associated with:
    a) IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
    b) Cytotoxic T cells
    c) Parasitic infections
    d) T cells and antibodies

Question 42

42. Which of the following is NOT a pattern recognition receptor?
    a) Major histocompatibility complex
    b) Toll-like receptors
    c) None of the answers listed
    d) C-type leptin
    e) Rig-1-like receptor

Question 43

43. Basophils release enzymes that
    a) Improve blood flow
    b) Induce T-cell exhaustion
    c) Promote IgA production
    d) Kill neighbouring cells

Question 44

44. True or False: T helper cells release granzymes
    a) True
    b) False

Question 45

45. Which is NOT a function of soluble antibody?
    a) Agglutination
    b) B cell activation
    c) Neutralization
    d) Opsonization
    e) Mast cell and basophil degranulation
    f) Complement activation

Question 46

46. Which of the following regarding CD8+ T cells is true? They….
    a) Secrete IL-5
    b) Secrete perforin and granzyme to kill infected cells
    c) Require 2 signals for activation
    d) Secrete perforin and granzyme to stimulate production of antibodies
    e) None of the answers listed

Question 47

47. Eosinophils in the brain are
    a) Cells specialized on antigenic selection
    b) None of the answers listed
    c) Needed to attract cytotoxic T cells
    d) A sign of salt poisoning