Immunology Flashcards

Doubt all of these are part of out LOs. Added some extra info in some of the answers

0
Q

If haematopoiesis, two progenitors initially form, what are they?

A

Lymphoid and myeloid progenitors

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1
Q

In haematopoeisis, haematopoeitic stem cells initially divide forming two new stem cells. What happens to these two cells?

A

One differentiates, other remains as a stem cell

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2
Q

Megakaryocytes are produced by the myeloid lineage and form what, found in blood?

A

Platelets / Thrombocytes

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3
Q

White blood cells can broadly split into two categories

A

Granulocytes and Agranulocytes

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4
Q

Basophils contain are the rarest type of WBC, but what antibody binds to them?

A

IgE

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5
Q

Mast cells (and basophils) contain high numbers of granules containing a substance key for allergic reactions and inflammation, what is it?

A

Histamine

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6
Q

Eosinophils are involved in one particular type of pathogen defence, what is it?

A

Parasitic defence (also modulate inflam response)

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7
Q

Neutrophils contain three types of granules, name them.

A

Azure, specific and tertiary

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8
Q

Which is the most common WBC in the blood?

A

Neutrophils

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9
Q

Kupferr cells, langerhans cells and microglia are all examples of what?

A

Tissue macrophages

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10
Q

Monocytes differentiate into what, and where?

A

Macrophages in tissues

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11
Q

How can neutrophils be identified histologically?

A

Multilobed nucleus

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12
Q

Basophils can be identified histologically by?

A

Large number of granules

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13
Q

Macrophages contain what type of receptors which allow them to act as professional APCs

A

MHC Class II

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14
Q

Innate immunity has a number of key properties, list as many as possible.

A

Present from birth Rapid but non specific response First line of defence Involves physical and chemical barriers as well as cellular ones

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15
Q

Mucous contains which antibody?

A

IgA

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16
Q

What aspect of the stomach is considered part of the innate immunity?

A

Acidity (low pH)

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17
Q

Which phagocyte reaches site of infection or injury first

A

Neutrophils

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18
Q

Briefly describe the process of phagocytosis

A

Pathogen engulfed by endocytosis, forms phagosome which fuses with lysosome Lysosome can either destroy pathogen via digestive enzymes (oxy indy) or ROS and oxidative burst (oxy dep.)

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19
Q

How is fever caused in infection as part of the innate immune response?

A

Certain Cytokines known as pyrogens cause hypothalamic thermostat to be reset higher which can be beneficial to other immune responses Pyrogens are mainly IL 1/IL 6/TNFalpha

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20
Q

What are the three main functions of the complement system?

A

Inflammation via chemotaxis (anaphylatoxins) Opsonisation Formation of membrane attack complex

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21
Q

What aspect of the compliment system is not illustrated by diagrams but is important in understanding the system? (Shocking question)

A

It amplifies at each step, creating a larger response

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22
Q

Which pathway in compliment is first to respond?

A

Alternative

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23
Q

Which pathway of compliment can be activated by the Fc region of antibodies?

A

Classical pathway, Fc region causes C1 activation

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24
Q

C3 continually being cleaved in a ticking over reaction in which compliment pathway?

A

Alternative

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25
Q

Which of the following is the most potent anaphylatoxin? C3a, C4a, C5a, C4b, C3b, C2

A

C5a C3a and C4a are also anaphylatoxins

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26
Q

C5 convertase is formed by all three pathways, however it can come in two different forms, what are they?

A

Classical and MBL give C4b2a3b Alternative gives C3bBb3b

27
Q

A membrane attack complex contains what compliment proteins?

A

C5bC6C7C8C9

28
Q

Pattern Recognition Receptors recognise what?

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns

29
Q

How many TLR genes does the human genome contain?

A

10 (giving 10 receptors)

30
Q

TLR4 binds to what?

A

Lipopolysaccaride (LPS)

31
Q

The cytokines denoted by TNF are what? (what does TNF stand for?)

A

Tumour Necrosis Factors

32
Q

What are chemokines?

A

Cytokines which attract immune cells to the site of tissue damage or infection via a concentration gradient. Process is known as Chemotaxis. Example is IL8

33
Q

Many cytokines are involved in the innate immune response, list the main ones.

A

TNF alpha, IL-1, IL-6….

34
Q

Il-2 has what function in relation to T cells

A

Activation and proliferation of T cells

35
Q

Which cytokine is implicated in the Th2 response associated with IgE antibodies and allergies (asthma etc)?

A

IL-4

36
Q

MHC Class II molecules present antigens to which type of T cells?

A

CD4+ T cells Remember Class II binds with CD4 so 2 x 4 = 8 Class I binds with CD8 so 1 x 8 = 8

37
Q

MHC variability in a population is caused by?

A

Polymorphism (in population number of MHC genes exist)

38
Q

During leukocyte migration, what surface molecule on vascular endothelium causes rolling adhesion?

A

Selectins (expressed due to IL-1 and TNF alpha)

39
Q

During leukocyte migration, expression of what molecule on leukocytes and what surface molecule on vascular endothelium causes tight adhesion?

A

Integrins on leukocytes bind to ICAM molecules on endothelium

40
Q

The movement of leukocytes between endothelial cells into areas of infection or inflammation is called?

A

Diapedesis

41
Q

A number of chemical mediators are involved in inflammation, list as many as possible?

A

Cytokines and chemokines Histamines Kinins (bradykinin etc) Complement proteins

42
Q

What are the five signs of inflammation?

A

Tumor, Rubor, Dolor, Calor, Functio Laesa Tumor is swelling (think of tumours) Rubor is redness (think of ruby) Calor is heat (think of calor gas) Functio Laesa is loss of function (functio is function…) Dolor is pain (think… well it’s the other one..)

43
Q

What causes the redness in inflammation?

A

Vasodilation caused by histamines, prostaglandins and NO

44
Q

What causes the swelling associated with inflammation?

A

Increased vascular permeability causes increased fluid in tissue (oedema)

45
Q

Infection by endogenous pathogens will result in presentation of antigens on which MHC Class?

A

I (expressed by all nucleated cells i.e. not RBCs)

46
Q

Described briefly the role of Dendritic Cells in the activation of T cells

A

Engulf antigens or process endogenous ones and transport them to thymus where they are presented to Naive T cells by MHC molecules (I or II). T cells with corresponding TCRs to antigen binds and proliferation and activation occurs.

47
Q

Which T helper cell is able to activate naive B cells to form plasma B cells?

A

Th2 (Th1 is NOT involved with B cells at all)

48
Q

What is the main function of plasma B cells?

A

Antibody factories

49
Q

List some examples of secondary lymphoid tissue.

A

Lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, GALT, BALT

50
Q

What are the two primary lymphoid tissues

A

Bone marrow and Thymus

51
Q

Lymphoid progenitor move to the Thymus to become T cells. So, where do B cells move to develop

A

They don’t, they remain in the bone marrow until they develop

52
Q

During T cell development there are huge losses between the T cells which start development to those which end. Why?

A

Some double negative T cells fail to express a Beta chain so are apoptosed.

Postive selection removes those T cells which don’t bind strongly to epithelial MHC molecules

**Negative selection **removes T cells which bind strongly to self antigens presented by dendritic cells

53
Q

What is allelic exclusion and how does it relate to B cell development?

A

If rearrangement of heavy chain gene on 1st chromosome is successful, then rearrangement of the heavy chain gene on the other chromosome (which is an allele) is ignored or excluded. This ensures BCRs and antibodies produced by each B cells have the same heavy chains with no mixing and matching of two different alleles.

54
Q

The constant region of antibodies contains various “versions” of the constant region gene, this is what causes what?

A

Antibody isotypes

55
Q

Which antibody is presented on all immature B cells?

A

IgM

56
Q

The IgM antibody forms what in serum?

A

Pentamers

57
Q

Which antibody is the most efficient activator of compliment

A

IgM

58
Q

Which antibody is found in breastmilk?

A

IgA

59
Q

Which antibody is able to cross the placenta?

A

IgG

60
Q

Which antibody rarely exists in serum, mostly being bound to mast cells and Eosinophils?

A

IgE (sounds like al-err-geee)

61
Q

An antibody has two regions, which perform a number of functions each, what are they?

A

Fab and Fc region

Fab is involved in antigen binding and neutralising toxins

Fc<span><span></span></span>is involved in leukocyte binding, opsonisation, complement binding etc

62
Q

Cytokines such as IL-4, IL-5 and TGFbeta can cause antibodies to chane from IgM to another type, what is this process called?

A

Isotype switching

63
Q

Which chain of TCRs and which chain of BCRs contain a diversity (D) segment?

A

Beta chain of TCRs and Heavy chain of immunoglobulins

They therefore undergo DJ recombination followed by VDJ recombination

(Alpha and light chains just have VJ, so just VJ recombination occurs)

Note; beta and heavy recombination always occurs before light and alpha

64
Q

The process by which B cells divide after activation by CD4+ T cells is known as what?

A

Clonal expansion

65
Q

Why is the immune response to a repeat exposure of an antigen so much bigger and more rapid?

A

Memory T and B cells remain in lymphoid tissue with highly specfic receptors so can immediately activat upon rexposure

66
Q
A