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Immunology > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

HLA A3

A

Hemochromatosis

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2
Q

HLA B27

A

psoriasis, ankylosin spondylitis, IBD, Reiter’s syndrome

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3
Q

HLA DQ2/DQ8

A

Celiac disease

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4
Q

HLA DR2

A

MS, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture’s

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5
Q

HLA DR3

A

DM-I, Grave’s

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6
Q

HLA DR4

A

RA, DM-I

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7
Q

HLA DR5

A

Pernicious anemia, Hashimoto’s

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8
Q

IL-1

A

Mphage. Pyrogen. Endothelium upregulates adhesion molecules. Induces chemokine secretion

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9
Q

IL-6

A

Mphage. Pyrogen. Also TH2. stimulates produciton of acute phase reactants

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10
Q

IL-8

A

Mphage. Chemotactic factor for neutrophils

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11
Q

IL-12

A

Mphage. Induces TH1. Activates NK. Also secreted by Bcells

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12
Q

TNF-alpha

A

Mphage. Mediates vascular leak (septic shock). Recruites leukocytes.

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13
Q

IL-2

A

T-cels. CD4, CD8 and CD4/CD25 growth

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14
Q

IL-3

A

T-cells. Works like GM-CSF

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15
Q

IFN-gamma

A

TH1. Supresses TH2. Antiviral/antitumor

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16
Q

IL-4

A

TH2. Induces TH2 differentiation. Promotes Bcells. Class switch to IgE and IgG

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17
Q

IL-5

A

TH2. Promotes differentiation of B cells. Class switch to IgA. Stimulates eosinophils

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18
Q

IL-10

A

TH2. Modulates inflammation. Inhibits activated Tcells. Secreted by CD4/CD25s. Similar to TGF-B

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19
Q

B-cell markers

A

CD19, CD20, CD21 (EBV receptor), CD40, MHC II, B7

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20
Q

Mphage markers

A

CD14 (endotoxin receptor), CD40, MHC II, B7, Fc and C3b receptors (enhanced phagocytosis)

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21
Q

NK cells

A

CD16 (binds Fc of IgG), CD56 (unique to NK)

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22
Q

Antigen variation of salmonella

A

2 flagelar variants

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23
Q

Antigen variation of Borrelia

A

relapsing fever (surface antigen switch)

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24
Q

Antigen variation of N. gonorrhea

A

pilus protein

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25
Q

Antigen variation of influenza (orthomyxiviridae)

A

antigenic drift and shift

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26
Q

Antigen variation of trypanosomes

A

programmed rearangement

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27
Q

When is passive immunity used clinically?

A

Tetanus, Botulinum, HBV, and Rabies

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28
Q

Name some live attenuated vaccines

A

Measles, mumps (paramyxoviruses), polio (picornavirus), rubella (togavirus), varicella (herpesvirus), yellow fever (flavivirus)

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29
Q

Name some inactivated (killed) vaccines

A

Cholera (GNcomma-shaped,, oxidase+, alkaline media), HAV (picornavirus), polio (picornavirus), rabies (rhabdovirus)

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30
Q

ANA

A

SLE, nonspecific

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31
Q

Anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith

A

SLE

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32
Q

Antihistone

A

Drug-induced lupus

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33
Q

RF, anti-CCP

A

RA

34
Q

Anticentromere

A

Scleroderma (CREST)

35
Q

AntiScl-70 (anti-DNA topoisomerase I)

A

Scleroderma (diffuse)

36
Q

Antimitochondrial

A

PBC

37
Q

IgA aantiendomysial, IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase

A

Celia

38
Q

Anti-basement membrane

A

Goodpasture’s

39
Q

Anti-desmoglein

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

40
Q

Antimicrosomal, antithyroglobulin

A

Hashimoto’s

41
Q

Anti-Jo-1, Anti-SRP, Anti-Mi-2

A

Polymyositis, dermatomyositis

42
Q

Anti-SSA (anti-Ro)/Anti-SSB (anti-La)

A

Sjogren’s

43
Q

Anti-U1 RNP (ribonucleoprotein)

A

Mixed conective tissue disease

44
Q

Anti-smooth muscle

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

45
Q

Anti-glutamate decarboxylase

A

DM-I

46
Q

c-ANCA (PR3-ANCA)

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s)

47
Q

p-ANCA (MPO-ANCA)

A

Microscopic polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss syndrome

48
Q

Encapsulated bacterial pathogens

A

Strep. Pneumo, HiB, N. meningitidis, Salmonella, Klebsiella, GBS

49
Q

What infections do you get if granulocytes are absent or don’t work?

A

Staph, Burkholderia cepacia, Serratia, Nocardia, Candida, Aspergillus

50
Q

What is most common primary immunodeficiency?

A

Selective IgA deficiency. Anaphylaxis to IgA containing blood

51
Q

CVID

A

common variable immunodeficiency. B-cell maturation defect (few plasma cells). Increased risk of autoimmunity, lymphoma, siopulmonary infections. May be acquired in 20s-30s

52
Q

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

A

T-cell dysfunction

53
Q

Hyper IgM syndrome

A

CD40L on Tcells is defective (no class switching. Severe pyogenic infections early in life.

54
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (type I)

A

LFA-1 integrin (CD18) defect in phagocytes. Neutrophilia and recurrent bacterial infections (no pus)

55
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease

A

Lack of NADPH oxidase (low ROS and no respiratory burst). Infection by catalase + organisms (S. aureus, E. coli, Aspergillus). Abnormal DHR test by Flow.

56
Q

Hyperacute rejection

A

minutes. Preformed Ab. Occludes graft vessels leading to ischemia and necrosis

57
Q

Acute rejection

A

weeks. CTL against foreign MHC. Give cyclosporine, muromonab to prevent. Vasculitis with dense interstitial infiltrate.

58
Q

Chronic rejection

A

months to years. MHC-I of donor is seen by CTLs as self MHC with foreigh antigen. Irreversible. Tcell and Ab-mediated obliterative vascular fibrosis.

59
Q

G v H

A

Grafted T cells reject host.

60
Q

Cyclosporin

A

Binds cyclophilins. Inhibits calcineurin preventing produciton of IL-2 and IL-2R

61
Q

Tacrolimus (FK-506)

A

binds FK-binding protein. Inhibits calcieurin and secretion of IL-2

62
Q

Sirolimus (rapamycin)

A

inhibits mTOR. (blocks Tcell proliferation in response to IL-2

63
Q

Azathioprine

A

precursor of 6-MP. Interferes with synthesis of nucleic acids

64
Q

Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3)

A

anit-epsilon. prevent acute transplant rejection

65
Q

Aldesleukin

A

IL-2 (renal cell carcinoma, metastatic melanoma)

66
Q

Epoetin alfa

A

EPO (anemias of renal failure)

67
Q

Filgrastim

A

G-CSF: bone marrow recovery

68
Q

Sargramostim

A

GM-CSF: bone marrow recovery

69
Q

alpha-IFN

A

HepB, HepC, Kaposi’s, leukemias, malignant melanoma

70
Q

beta-IFN

A

MS

71
Q

gamma-IFN

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

72
Q

Oprelvekin

A

IL-11: thrombocytopenia

73
Q

Thrombopoietin

A

thrombocytopenia

74
Q

Dig. Immune Fab

A

Digoxin

75
Q

Infliximab

A

TNF-alpha: Crohn’s, RA, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis

76
Q

Adalimumab

A

TNF-alpha: Crohn’s, RA, psoriatic arthritis

77
Q

Abciximab

A

Gly. Iib/IIIa: unstable angina, percutaneous coronary intervention

78
Q

Trastuzumab

A

HER2

79
Q

Rituximab

A

CD20

80
Q

Omalizumab

A

IgE

Immunology (1 decks)

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