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immunology test 2 Flashcards

0
Q

The antigen-binding site of an immunoglobulin is formed from

A

paired V regions of a single heavy chain and a single light chain

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1
Q

The five classes (isotopes) of immunoglobulins include

A

IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM

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2
Q

The _____ contribute to antigen specificity of immunoglobulins, and _____ make up the more conservative flanking regions

A

Hypervariable loops, framework regions

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3
Q

Which of the following corresponds to the antigen binding site of immunoglobulins

A

VH: VL

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4
Q

A protein epitope formed as a result of three-dimensional folding of the protein, and which is destroyed if the protein denatures, is called a ____ epitope

A

conformational

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5
Q

The rearrangement of V, D, and J segments to form an immunoglobulin

A

somatic recombination

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6
Q

The derivation of antibodies from a singe clone of B lymphocytes that have identical antigen specificity

A

monoclonal antibody production

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7
Q

Change of immunoglobulin class but preservation of antigen specificity

A

isotype switching

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8
Q

Nucleotide changes in variable regions of immunoglobulin genes affecting affinity for antigen

A

somatic hypermutation

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9
Q

enhacement of receptor-mediated phagocytosis of immunoglobulin-coated antigen

A

opsonization

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10
Q

The immunoglobuli heavy chain gene consists of ____ segments, whereas the immunoglobulin light-chain gene consists of _____ segments.

A

VDJ; VJ

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11
Q

On the heavy-chain immunoglobulin gene locus, recombination signal sequences flank _____ of the V segment, _____ of the D segment, and ____ of the J segment

A

the 3’ side; both sides, the 5’ side

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12
Q

Which of the following describes two recombination signal sequences required for a permitted somatic recombination event?

A

DH 7-12-9:9-23-7 JH

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13
Q

The enzyme responsible for recombining V,D, and J segments during somatic recombination is called

A

V (D) J recombinase

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14
Q

igM and IgD are co-expressed on naive B cells by a process caled

A

alternative mRNA splicing

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15
Q

Which immunoglobulin’s main function is to mediate sensitization o mast cells?

A

IgE

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16
Q

Which immunoglobulin is transported most efficiently across mucosal epithelium?

A

IgA

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17
Q

____ forms dimers, whereas ____ forms pentamers

A

IgA; IgM

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18
Q

A newborn derives passive immunity from its mother as a result of placental transfer of ____ during pregnancy

A

IgG

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19
Q

____ is secreted into the bloodstream, whereas ____ is secreted into mucus such as gastraintstinal fluid, colostrum, saliva, tears, and sweat

A

Monomeric IgA: dimeric IgA

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20
Q

Which of the following is not a component of V (D) J recombinase

A

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl recombinase

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21
Q

Identify which of the following is not associated with activation-induced cytiine deaminase (AID) activity

A

diversification of VH domain but not the VL domain

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22
Q

In contrast to Ig, alpha/beta T-cell receptors recognize epitopes present on _____ antigens

A

protein

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23
Q

T or F: T cells and B cells recognize the same types of antigen

A

false

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24
Q

T or F: T cells and B cells require MHC molecules for the recognition of peptide antigens

A

false

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25
Q

T or F: T cells require an accessory cell called an antigen presenting cell, which bears MHC molecules on its surface

A

True

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26
Q

T or F: T cell receptor and Ig genes are encoded on the MHC

A

false

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27
Q

T or F: the T-cell receptor has structual similarity to an Ig Fab fragment

A

true

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28
Q

Which of the following characteristics is common to both T-cell receptors and Ig

A

somatic recombination of V,D, and J segments is responsible for the diversity of antigen binding sites

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29
Q

the antigen-recognition site of t-cell receptors is formed by the association of which of the following domains

A

Valpha and V-beta

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30
Q

The most variable parts of the T-cell receptor are

A

V-alpha and V-beta

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31
Q

How many complementarity-determining regions contribute to the antigen-binding site in an intact T-cell recepto

A

6

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32
Q

IgG processes _____ binding sites for antigen, and the T-cell receptor possesses _____ binding sites for antigen

A

2;1

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33
Q

In terms of V, D, and J segment arrangement, the T-cell receptor alpha-chain locus resembles the Ig _____ locus, while the T-cell receptor beta-chain lovus resembles the Ig ______ locus

A

kappa light chain; heavy chain

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34
Q

In B cells, transport of Ig to he membrane is dependent on association with 2 invariat proteins, Ig-alph and Ig-beta. which of the following invariant proteins provide this function fr the T-cell receptor in T cells?

A 
CD3-gamma
CD3-delta
CD3-epsilon
funky lookin one 
(all of the above)
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35
Q

owing to the location of the delta chain locus of the T-cell receptor on chromosome 14, if the _____-chain locus rearrages by somatic recombination, then the delta-chain locus is _____

A

alpha ; deleted

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36
Q

Which of the following statements regarding T-cell receptor recognition of antigen is correct?

A

T-cell receptors recognize antigen only as a peptide bound to an MHC molecule

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37
Q

CD8-positive T-cell subpopulations are specialized to combat _____ pathogens, whereas CD4-positive T-cel subpopulations are specialized to combat ____ pathogens

A

intracellular; extracellular

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38
Q

Which of the following is mismatched

A

CD4 TH2 cell: cytotoxicity

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39
Q

The T-cell co-receptor CD4 interacts with _____ bound to the surface of _____:

A

MHC2 : antigen presenting cells

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40
Q

MHC2 molecules are made up of 2 chains called _____, whose function is to bind peptides and present them to _____ T cells:

A

alpha and beta; CD4

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41
Q

The peptide-binding groove of MHC1 molecules is composed of the following extracellular domains

A

alpha 1 and alpha 2

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42
Q

To which domain of MHC2 does CD4 bind?

A

beta-2

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43
Q

to which domain of MHC class 1 does CD8 bind?

A

alpha 3

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44
Q

MHC molecules have promiscuous binding specificity. this means that

A

a particular MHC molecule has the potential to bind to different peptides

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45
Q

Which of the following describes the sequence of events involved in processing of peptidse that will be presented as antigen with MHC1?

A

proteasome > Tap 1/2 > ER > MHC1 > plasma membrane

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46
Q

one type of bare lymphocyte syndrome is caused by a genetic defect in MHC2 transactivator C2TA, which results in the inability to synthesize MHC2 and display it on the cell surface. the consequence of this would be that

A

CD4 T cells cannot function

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47
Q

Which of the following describes the sequence of events involved in the processing of peptides that will be presented as antigen with MHC2

A

endocytosis > protease activity > removal of CLIP from MHC2 > binding of peptide to MHC2 > plasma membrane

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48
Q

which of the following describes a ligand for an alpha: beta T-cell receptor

A

peptide : MHC complex

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49
Q

The complementarity-determining region (CDR) 1 and CDR2 loops of the T-cell receptor contact the _____:

A

constant regions of antibody molecules

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50
Q

The CDR3 loops of the t-cell receptor contact the ____:

A

side chains of AA in the middle of the peptide displayed by MHC molecules

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51
Q

Which of the following cell types does not express MHC1

A

erythrocyte

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52
Q

Which of the following cell types is not considered a professional antigen-presenting cell?

A

neutrophil

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53
Q

An intracellular, monomorphic MHC1 isotype whose function is unknown

A

HLA-F

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54
Q

Form ligands for receptors on NK cells

A

HLA-E HLA-G

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55
Q

Participate in peptide loading of MHC2 molecules

A

HLA-DM, HLA-DO

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56
Q

present antigen to CD4 T cells

A

HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR

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57
Q

present antigen to CD8 T cells

A

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

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58
Q

The high degree of polymorphism in MHC1 molecules that present antigens to CD8 T cells is found in _____ because _____ s monomorphic

A

the heavy chain; beta2-microglobulinwhich of the following HLA-DRB genotypes is not possible in an individual?

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59
Q

DRB3: DRB1: DRB5

A

Given that there are two functional alleles for the HLA-DR-alpha gene, how many DR-alpha: beta proteins can an indivdual ake who is heterozygous at all HL loci an has the following HLA-DR-beta genotype: DRB1, DRB3: DRB1, DRB5

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60
Q

Which of the following HLA-DRB genotypes is not possible in an individual

A

DRB3: DRB1: DRB5

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61
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A

interallelic conversion: recombinant between 2 different genes in the same family

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62
Q

Which is the most likely reason that HIV-infected people with heterozygous HLA loci hae a delayed progression to AIDS compared with patients who are homozygous at one or more HLA loci?

A

the greater number of HLA alleles provides a wider variety of HLA molecules for presenting HIV-derived peptides to CD8 T-cells even if HIV mutates during the course of infection

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63
Q

A primary difference between how B cell recognize antigen an how T cells recognize antigen is that

A

T cells recognize degraded proteins bound to major histocompatibility molecules

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64
Q

Antigen processing involves the breakdown of protein antigens and the subsequent association of peptide fragments on the surface of antigen presenting cells with

A

MHC class1 or MHC class2 molecules

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65
Q

MHC class 1 molecules present peptide antigens derived from a _____ compartment, whereas MHC class 2 molecules present peptide antigens derived from a ____ compartment

A

intracellular: extracellular

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66
Q

Which of the following cell-surface markers differentiates hematopoietic stem cells from other cell constitutents n the bone marrow?

A

CD34

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67
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a large pre-B cell

A

VDJ is successfully rearranged and mew heavy chain is made

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68
Q

Which f the following is correct?

A

the kappa light chain genes rearrange before the lambda light chain genes

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69
Q

stromal cells produce ______ which is a secreted B cell development growth factor influencing the progression of B cells from the late pro-B-cell to the pre-B cell stage:

A

IL-7

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70
Q

Immature B cells develop into B cells in the

A

secondary lymphoid organs

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71
Q

Developing B cells that fail to make productive D to J heavy chain rearrangements on both homologous chromosomes

A

die by apoptosis in the bone marrow

72
Q

Pro B cells produce a surrogate light chain, which associates with the mew chain on the cell surface. the surrogate light chain is composed of

A

VpreB and lambda5

73
Q

A genetic defect in the lambda 5 gene would cause which of the following consequences?

A

inability to produce a pre-B cell receptor
B cell immunodeficiency
chronic bacterial infections
a requirement for prophylactic injections of antibodies from healthy donors

74
Q

When producing monoclonal antibodies, why is it important to use as a fusion partner a myeloma cell that is unable to produce its own Ig

A

to ensure that the antibodies are homogenous and able to make strong bivalent attachments to multivalent antigens

75
Q

An important advantage of having 2 gene loci (k and lambda) for the light chain is

A

that the likelihood of a successful rearrangement of light-chain genes increases

76
Q

which of the following is correctly matched

A

pre-V cekk receotirL VpreB-lambda5/mew heavy chain
mature B cell: IgM plus IgD
immature B cell: mew heavy chain plus gamma or kappa light chain on surface

77
Q

large pre-b cells undergo clonal expansion before the rearrangement of light-chain loci. which of the following are beneficial consequences of clonal expansion?

A

the energy used to make a functional heavy chain is not wasted a a result of the inability to produce a functional light chain
a diverse population of immature B cells expressing the same mu chain but a distinct light chain is generated
approximately 85% of small pre-b cells will progress to the immature B cell stage

78
Q

when expression of _____ is turned off in small pre-b cells, the result is the presence of P nucleotides but the absence of N nucleotides in around 50% of light-chain genes

A

TdT

79
Q

A defect in which of the following proteins blocks B-cell development at the pre-B cell stage, resulting in almost no circulating antibodies in individuals with this defect?

A

Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk)

80
Q

the proto-oncogene ______ is associated with the development of burkitt’s lymphoma

A

MYC

81
Q

Which of the following characterizes the B1 cells that develop prenatally

A

they lack N nucleotides
they possess polyspecificity for bacterial polysaccharide antigens
they arise early in embrynic development preceding the development of the majority of subset of B cells
they have little or no IgD on the cell surface

82
Q

What is the fate of an immature B ell that encounters and has specificity for self antigen?

A

continued rearrangement of light-chain genes

83
Q

_____ involves successive rearrangemnt at the light-chain loci when reactivity to self antigen occurs during B cell development

A

receptor editing

84
Q

Which of the following pertains to the fate of immature B cells which have specificity for univalent self antigens

A

the cells acquire a state of unresponsiveness called anergy

IgD on the cell surface fails to activate the B cell when bound to self antigen

85
Q

the circulatory route through a lymphoid tissue for both immature B cells and mature B cells that do not encounter specific antigen is

A

bloodstream > HEV of lymphoid cortex > primary lymphoid follice > efferent lymphatic vessel

86
Q

T or F: memory B cells are derived from germinal center B cells as immune responses subside

A

true

87
Q

T or F: memory B cells have long life-spans

A

true

88
Q

T or F: memory B cells possess high-affinity antigen receptors as consequence of affinity maturation

A

True

89
Q

T or F: memory B cells have more stringent requirements for activation than naive B cells do

A

false

90
Q

T or F: memory B cells express only IgM and retain the capacity to switch to the most beneficial isotype during secondary responses

A

false

91
Q

After interaction with thymic stromal cells, _____, a glycoprotein not expressed by the uncommitted progenitor cell is activated in developing thymocytes

A

CD2
CD5
CD127 (IL-7 receptor)

92
Q

_____ is a T-cell-specific adhesion molecules expressed before the expression of a functional T-cell receptor while the thymocytes are still in their double-negative stage of development

A

CD2

93
Q

which of the following statements about notch 1 is correct

A

notch 1 is to T cell development as Pax-5 is to B cell development

94
Q

Which of the following is the first stage of T cell receptor gene rearrangement in alpha: beta T cells

A

D-beta > J-beta

95
Q

Which of the following statements about the successive rearrangement of alpha: beta T-cell receptors is correct?

A

unproductive rearrangment to the C-beta1 locus can be rescued by a second rearrangment to the C-beta2 locus

unproductive rearrangement between V-apha and J-alpha can be rescued by a second rearrangment between upstream V-alpha and downstream J-alpha segments

when the alpha chain undergoes a successive gene rearrangement, the unproductive intervening rearranged gene segments are deleted

the delta-chain locus is permenantly deleted as an extrachromosomal circle when the alpha-chain gene rearranges

96
Q

which of the following is the first t-cell receptor complex containing the beta-chain to reach the cell surface during the development of T lymphocytes

A

pT-alpha: beta: CD3

97
Q

T or F: immature T cells faiing to succssfully recombine a beta-chain locus die by apoptosis

A

false

98
Q

T or F: apoptotic T cells are ingested by medullary epithelial cells

A

false

99
Q

Alleleic exclusion of the T cell receptor alpha and beta chains is effictive, therefore, all T cells express ony one T cell receptor on the cell surface

A

false

100
Q

T or F: T cell receptor rearrangements have many features in common with Ig rearrangement, including the use of Rag1 and RAG2 genes

A

true

101
Q

T or F: the expession of the pre-t cell receptor is required in order to halt beta, gamma, delta, chain rearragements

A

true

102
Q

once a thymocyte has productively rearranged a beta chain gene, which of the events can occur subsequently

A

beta binds to pT-alpha and is expressed on the cell surface with the CD3 complex and funky symbol chian
rearrangement of beta, gamma, and delta chain genes ceases as a result of the suppression of expression of RAG1 and RAG2
the pre-t cell proliferates and produces a clone of cells all expressing an identical beta chain
alpha, gamma, and delta chain loci rearrange simultaneously

103
Q

_____ of thymocytes is necessary to produce a t- cell repertoire capable of interacting with self-MHC molecules

A

positive selection

104
Q

Which of the following are true of a T cell that expresses 2 alpha chains (2 different T-cell receptors) as a result of ineffetive allelic exclusion of the alpha chain during rearrangement

A

engaging either of the T-cell receptors on MHC molecules of the thymic epithelium will result in positive selection

one of the T cell receptors will be functional while the other will msot probably be non-functional

if either T cell receptor binds strongly to self-epptides presented by self-MHC molecules, the thymocyte will be negatively selected

One of the T cell receptors may be autoreactive but escape negative selection because its peptide antigen is present in tissues other than the thymus

105
Q

Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy-candidiasis-ecdodermal dystrophy (APECED) is caused by a defect in

A

a transcription pactor called AIRE that regulates tissue-specific gene expression in the thymus

106
Q

a feature of T cell development that may contribute to tumor development is

A

DNA rearrangement

107
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A

double-negative CD3-thymocytes: cortico-medulary junction

108
Q

The human thymus begins to degenerate as early as 1 year after birth. this process is called _____ and is marked by the accumulation of ____ once occupied by thymocytes

A

involution; fat

109
Q

Which of the following describes an activated dendritic cell upon arriving in a lymph node?

A

Bears highly elaborated finger-like processes called dendrites

110
Q

Dendritic cells take up, process or present antigen by which of the following routes?

A 
Receptor mediated endocytosis of bacteria using the mannose receptor
Marcropinoctosis of soluble antigens
cross-presentation from the MHC class 2 pathway to the MHC class 1 pathway
111
Q

Activated T cells express _____, which binds to B7 with 20x higher affinity for B7 than CD28 and results in _____ of T cell activity and proliferation

A

CTLA4; supression

112
Q

T cells failing to encounter specific antien leave lymph nodes via the _____

A

efferent lymph

113
Q

Naive lymphocytes homing to lymphoid tissue use _____ to bind to CD34 and GlyCAM-1 on high endothelial venules

A

L-selectin

114
Q

The co-stimulatory molecule _____ on professional antigen-presenting cells binds _____ on the surface of naive T cells

A

B7; CD28

115
Q

An adhesion molecule called _____ is expressed exclusively on activated dendritic cells and binds to _____ on naive T cells n the T cell areas of secondary lymphoid tissue

A

DC-SIGN; ICAM-3

116
Q

In secondary lymphoid tissues dendritic cells are located in ____, whereas B cells are present in ______

A

cortical T cell areas; lymphoid follicles

117
Q

the area of contact between membranes of a T cell and an antigen presenting -cell where a clustering of protein-protin interactions occur is called an

A

immunological synapse

118
Q

Fos, a component of the transcription factor AP-1 is activated during T-cell signaling by a process involving a GTP-binding protein called

A

Ras

119
Q

_____ is a second messenger in the T ce signaling pathway leading to the activation of NFAT

A

inositol triphosphate

120
Q

co-stimulatory signals induced through CD28 causes

A

activation of Jun, a coponent of the AP-1 transcription factor

activation of protein tyrosine kinase Lck

121
Q

The TH1 cytokines exert which of the following effects

A

B cell differentiation
macrophage activation
production of opsonizing antibodies

122
Q

in the absence of a co-receptor (CD4 or CD8 for t helper cells or cytotoxic T cells), T cells require _____ specific peptide: MHC complexes on the antigen-presenting cell compared with interactions involving a co-receptor

A

more

123
Q

which of the following is a protein tyrosine kinase involved in T-cell activation culminating in T-cell proliferation and differentiation

A

ZAP-70

124
Q

Binding of ______ to _____ induces t- cell proliferation and differentiation of activated T cells

A

IL-2; the high affinity IL-2 receptor

125
Q

facors thought to have an influence on the differentiation of CD4 T cells into either TH1 or TH2 include

A

the cytokines made during the preceding innate immune response

the type of antigen-presenting cell interacting with the T cell

The cytokines made by the antigen-presenting cell interacting with the T cell

The number of secific peptide:MHC complexes presented by the antigen presenting cell

126
Q

Expression of IFN-gamma is induced in a CD4 TH1 cell under the direction of the transcription factor

A

T-bet

127
Q

IL-4 is induced in a C4 TH2 cell under the direction of the transcription factor

A

GATA-3

128
Q

Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by a _____-type response where patients ____

A

TH1 ; usually survive

129
Q

Cytokine receptors are associated with cytoplasmic protein kinases called _____, which become activated when the cytokine receptors bind to their respecive cytokines

A

JAKs

130
Q

Which of the following is not produced by cytotoxic T cells?

A

CD40 ligand

131
Q

Which of the following is not produced by TH1 cels in humans

A

IL-10

TGF-beta

132
Q

Which of the following is not produced by TH2 cells in humans

A

INF-gamma

133
Q

Signal transducers and activators of transcripton (STATs) are _____ that are phosphorylated by ______

A

transcription factors; JAKs

134
Q

The process by which cytotoxic T cells kill their targets involves _____

A

DNA fragmentation in legths of multiples of 200 base pairs in the target cell

sheddig of membrane bound vesicles and shrinking of the target cell

resease of granzyme, perforin, and granulysin by the cytotoxic T cell

135
Q

The B-cell co-receptor is composed of

A

CD2 (CD21); CD19; CD81

136
Q

C3d and iC3b are breakdown products of _____ whih binds to ____ of the B-cell co-receptor

A

C3b; CR2

137
Q

When bound to CR1, C3b is cleaved by ____, generating pathogen-associated B-cell-co-receptor ligands

A

factor1

138
Q

The Ig-alpha associated tyrosine kinase _____ phosphorylates the cytoplasmic tail of CD19, which mediates signal transduction in activated B cells

A

Lyn

139
Q

A B- cell’s sensitivity to antigen can be increased 1000-10,000 fold by

A

simultaneously ligating the B cell receptor and co-receptor

140
Q

Lipopolysaccharide is an example of a _____ antigen that is recognized by TLR4 when bound to ______

A

thymus-independednt (TI)-1l LPS-binding protein

141
Q

Which of the following is true of TLR-9

A

it binds to bacterial DNA

It is located in endocytic vesicles

142
Q

A primary focus forms after a circulating naive B cell forms a conjugate pair with the _____ in the ______ of a lymph node

A

TH2 cell: T-cell zone

143
Q

Which of the following molecules binds to components found on the surface of an activated B cell?

A 
T-cell receptor
Antigen
IL-4
CD4
LFA-1
CD40 ligand
144
Q

B cells migrating directly from a primary fous to the medullary cords in a lymph node after activation with a t-dependent antigen differentiate into plasma cels that initially secrete predominantly _____

A

IgM

145
Q

Lymphoblasts upregulate a transcription factor called ____ when they terminally differentiate into plasma cells

A

B-lymphocyte induced maturation protein 1 (BLIMP)

146
Q

A primary focus of B-cell expansion forms in the _____, whereas a secondary focus of b- cell expansion forms in the _____

A

medullary cords; germinal center

147
Q

for which process do proliferating centroblasts use the DNA-modifying enzyme activation-induced cytodine deaminase?

A

somatic hypermutation

isotype switching

148
Q

what is the fate of the centrocytes in which somatic hypermutation has resulted in high-affinity receptors for antigen?

A

they express Bcl-xl

they process antigen and present it to TH2 cells

CD40 on the centrocyte engages with CD40 ligand on TH2 cells

149
Q

In secondary lymphoid tissues, which of the following routes do B cells take during their activation, proliferation, and differentiation

A

HEV > T-cell zone > medullary cords > dark zone of germinal center > light zone of germinal center

150
Q

the main function of Bcl-xl is to _____ in the centrocyte

A

prevent apoptosis

151
Q

inglufment of apoptotic centrocytes is facilitated by _____ in germinal centers

A

tingible body macrophages

152
Q

The process that drives an increase in antibody affinity for antigen is known as _____

A

affinity maturation

153
Q

FcRn has which of the following characteristics

A

it transports IgG out of the blood into tissue across the endothelium

2 molecules of RcRn are required to bind to each Fc region

154
Q

Binding to dimeric IgA and facilitation of its transcytosis

A

poly-Ig receptor

155
Q

facilitation of antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity in NK cells

A

Fc(gamma)R3 (CD16)

156
Q

Cross linking of antibody: antigen complexes on mast cells, followed by degranulation

A

Fc(epsilon)RI

157
Q

transport of IgG out of the bloodstream to extracellular spaces in tissues

A

FcRn

158
Q

CD21/CD19/CD81

A

B cell co-receptors

159
Q

inhibition of B-cell activation

A

Fc(gamma)RII-B1 (CD32)

160
Q

Mucosal epithelia of the gastointestinal tract, eyes, nose, throat, the respiratory, urinary, and genital tracts, and the mammary glands are protected by

A

dimeric IgA

161
Q

The process involving receptor-mediated transport of macromolecules from one side of a cell to the other is called

A

transcytosis

162
Q

the poly-Ig receptor on the basolateral surface of epithelial cells binds to ____ via the _____

A

dimeric IgA; J chain

IgM; J chain

163
Q

Which of the following are examples of passive transfer immunity?

A

ptransplacental acquisition of IgG during fetal development

proision of IgA though breast milk

intraveous Ig therapy for immunocompromised individuals

receiving antivenom after being bitten by a poisonous snake

164
Q

_____ occurs as a result of influenza virus binding to oligosaccharide components on erythrocyte surfaces causeing them to clump together

A

hemagglutination

165
Q

which of the following are correctly matched?

A

protein F: fibronectin

Influenza: hemagglutinin

mucosal eptiehlium: IgA

166
Q

bacteria use _____ to attach to the surface of cells during coloniztion

A

adhesins

167
Q

Denatured toxin molecules called ____ are used to vaccinate individuals to stimulate the production of _____

A

toxoids; neutralizing IgG antibodies

168
Q

Which of the ollowing is able to bind to C1q

A

IgM

C-reactive protein

169
Q

IgM is particularly efficient at fixing complement because _____

A

it has 5 binding sites for C1q

170
Q

C3 convertase of the cassical pathway is _____, whereas C3 convertase of the alternative pathway is _____

A

C3b1: C3bBb

171
Q

Complexxes of IgG bound to soluble multivalent antigens can activate the classical pathway of complement, resulting in the deposition of ____ on the complex, targeting it for endocytic uptake by cells bearing

A

C3b; CR1 and Fc receptors

172
Q

Which of the following are characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus

A

It is an autoimmune disease
it is associated with a deficiency of C4A
increased levels of immune complexes detected in blood
Immune complexes are deposited on the kidney glomeruli, which can lead to kidney complications

173
Q

The disadvantage of having a longer hinge region in IgG3 than the other IgG subclasss is a reduction in its serum half-life because of its susceptibility to

A

increased protelysis by serum proteases

174
Q

The advantage of havign a longer hinge region in IgG3 than in the other IgG subclasses is

A

greater flexibility in antigen binding

most efficient complement activation

greater accessibility of Fc for binding to C1

175
Q

Which of the following antibodies activate the classical pathway of complement

A

IgM
IgG1
IgG2
IgG3

176
Q

Antibody depended cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) is carried out by ____ after cross-linking of IgG1 or IgG3 antibodies on ____ receptors

A

NK cells; Fc(gamma)R3

177
Q

The symptoms of allergy and asthma are induced after cross-linking of IgE antibody on Fc(epsilon)RI receptors found on the surface of

A

basophils
eosinophils
mast cells

From Flashcardlet (8 decks)

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