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From Flashcardlet > Implementing Cisco Unified Fabric - DCUFI > Flashcards

Implementing Cisco Unified Fabric - DCUFI Flashcards

This flashcard deck was created using Flashcardlet's card creator

0
Q
  1. What should the network be a key facilitator in as the business builds cloud architectures?

a) Transformative
b) Reliability
c) Security
d) Agility
e) Efficiency
f) Performance
g) Adaptability

A
  1. What should the network be a key facilitator in as the business builds cloud architectures?

b) Reliability
c) Security

f) Performance

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1
Q
  1. What 3 pressure points are businesses under today defined in the Cisco Data Center Business Advantage Architecture?

a) Business growth
b) Responsiveness
c) Expansion
d) Margin
e) Risk
f) Management
g) Flexibility

A
  1. What are the 3 pressure points businesses are under today defined in the Cisco Data Center Business Advantage Architecture?
    a) Business growth

d) Margin
e) Risk

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2
Q
  1. What are the Cisco Unified Fabric solution 3 pillars?

a) Virtualization
b) Convergence
c) Security
d) Management
e) Scalability
f) Flexibility
g) Intelligence

A
  1. What are the Cisco Unified Fabric solution 3 pillars?
    b) Convergence
    e) Scalability
    g) Intelligence
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3
Q
  1. Which architectural components impact Total Cost of Ownership?

a) Performance
b) Convergence
c) Security
d) Scalability
e) Intelligence
f) Resiliency

A
  1. Which architectural components impact Total Cost of Ownership?
    a) Performance
    d) Scalability
    f) Resiliency
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4
Q
  1. Which technology enables data center architects to gain new design flexibility while simplifying cabling infrastructure and management complexity?

a) OTV
b) VN-Link
c) FEX-Link
d) vPC

A
  1. Which technology enables data center architects to gain new design flexibility while simplifying cabling infrastructure and management complexity?
    c) FEX-Link
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5
Q
  1. Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender is supported by Nexus 7000 running NX-OS 5.1(2) software?

a) 2148T
b) 2248TP
c) 2232PP
d) 2224TP

A
  1. Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender is supported by Nexus 7000 running NX-OS 5.1(2) software?
    b) 2248TP
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6
Q
  1. Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender supports FCoE?

a) 2148T
b) 2248TP
c) 2232PP
d) 2224TP

A
  1. Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender supports FCoE?

c) 2232PP

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7
Q
  1. Which Cisco Nexus switch is supported on the IBM BladeCenter H and HT chassis?

a) Cisco Nexus 4000 switch module
b) Cisco Nexus 2000 series Fabric Extender
c) Cisco Nexus 1000V switch
d) Cisco Nexus 5000 series switch

A
  1. Which Cisco Nexus switch is supported on the IBM BladeCenter H and HT chassis?
    a) Cisco Nexus 4000 switch module
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8
Q
  1. Which multifunction adapter integrates with the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 5500 series switches to provide Cisco Unified Fabric convergence by combining the functions of Ethernet NICs and Fiber Channel Host Bus Adapters (HBAs)?

a) Network Interface Card
b) Host Bus Adapter
c) Consolidated Network Adapter
d) Converged Network Adapter

A
  1. Which multifunction adapter integrates with the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 5500 series switches to provide Cisco Unified Fabric convergence by combining the functions of Ethernet NICs and Fiber Channel Host Bus Adapters (HBAs)?
    d) Converged Network Adapter
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9
Q
  1. Which feature is supported on the Cisco Nexus 5500 series switch to provide native Layer 2 multipathing?

a) IS-IS
b) Virtual Port Channels
c) Spanning-Tree Protocol
d) Cisco FabricPath and TRILL

A
  1. Which feature is supported on the Cisco Nexus 5500 series switch to provide native Layer 2 multipathing?
    d) Cisco FabricPath and TRILL
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10
Q
  1. How many fabric modules are required to provide N+1 redundancy for the Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 10 Gigabit Ethernet M1 I/O module?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

A
  1. How many fabric modules are required to provide N+1 redundancy for the Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 10 Gigabit Ethernet M1 I/O module?
    b) 3
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11
Q
  1. How many fabric modules are required to provide N+1 redundancy for the Cisco Nexus 7000 48-port 1 Gigabit Ethernet M1 I/O module?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

A
  1. How many fabric modules are required to provide N+1 redundancy for the Cisco Nexus 7000 48-port 1 Gigabit Ethernet M1 I/O module?
    a) 2
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12
Q
  1. Which line module supports Cisco FabricPath and FCoE on the Cisco Nexus 7000 series switch?

a) Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 10 Gigabit Ethernet module
b) Cisco Nexus 7000 48-port 1 Gigabit Ethernet module
c) Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet module
d) Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 10 Gigabit Ethernet module with XL option

A
  1. Which line module supports Cisco FabricPath and FCoE on the Cisco Nexus 7000 series switch?
    c) Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet module
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13
Q
  1. How many Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extenders are supported on these switches?

a) Cisco Nexus 7000: 32
b) Cisco Nexus 7000: 16
c) Cisco Nexus 5500: 24
d) Cisco Nexus 5500: 12
e) Cisco Nexus 5000: 24
f) Cisco Nexus 5000: 12

A
  1. How many Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extenders are supported on these switches?
    a) Cisco Nexus 7000: 32
    c) Cisco Nexus 5500: 24
    f) Cisco Nexus 5000: 12
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14
Q
  1. Which feature supports the extension of the Ethernet pause functionality onto logical lanes offering lossless Ethernet?

a) Congestion Management
b) Priority Groups
c) IEEE 802.3x Pause
d) Priority Flow Control

A
  1. Which feature supports the extension of the Ethernet pause functionality onto logical lanes offering lossless Ethernet?
    d) Priority Flow Control
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15
Q
  1. Which feature would be used to extend the Layer 2 domain between multiple network locations?

a) vPC
b) OTV
c) Cisco FabricPath
d) TRILL

A
  1. Which feature would be used to extend the Layer 2 domain between multiple network locations?
    b) OTV
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16
Q
  1. Which feature would be used to virtualize the Cisco Nexus 7000 series switch hardware?

a) Virtual Device Contexts
b) VLANs
c) VRFs
d) Security Contexts

A
  1. Which feature would be used to virtualize the Cisco Nexus 7000 series switch hardware?
    a) Virtual Device Contexts
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17
Q
  1. Which Cisco product supports the integration of service modules to create a services chassis?

a) Cisco Catalyst 4000
b) Cisco Catalyst 6000
c) Cisco Nexus 7000
d) Cisco Catalyst 6500

A
  1. Which Cisco product supports the integration of service modules to create a services chassis?
    d) Cisco Catalyst 6500
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18
Q
  1. The Cisco Nexus 1000V operates inside what product?

a) IBM BladeCenter
b) VMware ESX hypervisor
c) HP BladeCenter
d) Dell hypervisor

A
  1. The Cisco Nexus 1000V operates inside what product?

b) VMware ESX hypervisor

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19
Q
  1. Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender supports what connectivity?

a) 100 Mbps
b) 1 Gbps
c) 10 Gbps
d) Copper
e) Fiber

A
  1. Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender supports what connectivity?

a) 100 Mbps
b) 1 Gbps
c) 10 Gbps
d) Copper
e) Fiber

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20
Q
  1. Which Nexus products support front-to-back airflow supporting hot and cold aisle deployments without additional hardware?

a) Cisco Nexus 7010
b) Cisco Nexus 7018
c) Cisco Nexus 5000
d) Cisco Nexus 2000 FEX

A
  1. Which Nexus products support front-to-back airflow supporting hot and cold aisle deployments without additional hardware?
    a) Cisco Nexus 7010

c) Cisco Nexus 5000
d) Cisco Nexus 2000 FEX

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21
Q
  1. What are the 2 Cisco Nexus 1000V components?

a) Virtual Supervisor Module
b) Virtual Ethernet Module
c) Virtual Chassis Module
d) Virtual Line Card Module

A
  1. What are the 2 Cisco Nexus 1000V components?

a) Virtual Supervisor Module
b) Virtual Ethernet Module

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22
Q
  1. Which Cisco Nexus platforms support native Fiber Channel?

a) Cisco Nexus 5000 via expansion module
b) Cisco Nexus 5548 via expansion module
c) Cisco Nexus 5596 without expansion module
d) Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender

A
  1. Which Cisco Nexus platforms support native Fiber Channel?

a) Cisco Nexus 5000 via expansion module
b) Cisco Nexus 5548 via expansion module
c) Cisco Nexus 5596 without expansion module

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23
Q
  1. What additional segregation features do virtual Device Contexts provide over VLANs and VRFs?

a) Data Plane
b) Control Plane
c) Management Plane
d) Resources
e) Management Plane, resources, and operating environment

A
  1. What additional segregation features do virtual Device Contexts provide over VLANs and VRFs?
    e) Management Plane, resources, and operating environment
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24
Q
  1. What are the NX-OS syslog options?

a) Syslog from Default VDC 1 for all VDC
b) Syslog per VDC
c) Either per-VDC or default VDC for all VDC are options

A
  1. What are the NX-OS syslog options?

c) Either per-VDC or default VDC for all VDC are options

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25
Q
  1. List some Default VDC 1 unique and critical roles (Choose 3).

a) Configure system-wide parameters such as Control Plane Policing (CoPP) and Network Time Protocol (NTP).
b) Software licensing and installation
c) Switch reloads
d) Non-default VDC reloads

A
  1. List some Default VDC 1 unique and critical roles (Choose 3).

a) Configure system-wide parameters such as Control Plane Policing (CoPP) and Network Time Protocol (NTP).
b) Software licensing and installation
c) Switch reloads

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26
Q
  1. Put the VPC configuration steps in the correct order.

a) configure the VPC domain.
b) establish VPC peer keepalive link.
c) configure the VPC Peer link.
d) configure the VPC.
e) optimize VPC.

A
  1. Put the VPC configuration steps in the correct order.

a) Step one: configure the VPC domain.
b) Step two: establish VPC peer keepalive link.
c) Step three: configure the VPC Peer link.
d) Step four: configure the VPC.
e) Step five: optimize VPC.

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27
Q
  1. Cisco Nexus 7000 N7K-M132XP-1x I/O module interfaces must be assigned to VDCs on what basis? (2-16)

a) Per-port
b) Per-module
c) Per-port group
d) Per-chassis

A
  1. Cisco Nexus 7000 N7K-M132XP-1x I/O module interfaces must be assigned to VDCs on what basis? (2-16)
    c) Per-port group
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28
Q
  1. Which of these are accurate VDC roles?

a) Network-owner
b) Network-user
c) Network-admin
d) Network-operator
e) VDC-user
f) VDC-admin
g) VDC-operator

A
  1. Which of these are accurate VDC roles?

c) Network-admin
d) Network-operator

f) VDC-admin
g) VDC-operator

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29
Q
  1. Which license is required to configure additional, non-default Virtual Device Contexts (VDCs)?

a) Enterprise Services
b) Advanced Services
c) Base

A
  1. Which license is required to configure additional, non-default Virtual Device Contexts (VDCs)?
    b) Advanced Services
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30
Q
  1. Which commands are required to assign interfaces to a VDC?

a) Create VDC BLUE
b) VDC BLUE
c) Interface Ethernet 1/1 vdc BLUE
d) Allocate-interface Ethernet 1/1

A
  1. Which commands are required to assign interfaces to a VDC?
    b) VDC BLUE
    d) Allocate-interface Ethernet 1/1
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31
Q
  1. Which command changes from default VDC 1 to VDC BLUE?

a) telnet BLUE
b) change vdc BLUE
c) switchto vdc BLUE
d) jump vdc BLUE

A
  1. Which command changes from default VDC 1 to VDC BLUE?

c) switchto vdc BLUE

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32
Q
  1. Which Cisco Nexus 7000 high availability policy dual supervisor module configuration deletes the VDC and recreates it using the startup configuration?

a) Bringdown
b) Reload
c) Restart
d) Switchover

A
  1. Which Cisco Nexus 7000 high availability policy dual supervisor module configuration deletes the VDC and recreates it using the startup configuration?
    c) Restart
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33
Q
  1. What additional Nexus 7000 step is required to enable FEX?

a) Enable feature-set fex
b) Configure fex
c) Install feature-set fex
d) Install fex

A
  1. What additional Nexus 7000 step is required to enable FEX?
    c) Install feature-set fex
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34
Q
  1. What kind of port must a secondary VLAN associate with for outside communication?

a) Community port
b) Isolated port
c) Promiscuous port
d) Routing port

A
  1. What kind of port must a secondary VLAN associate with for outside communication?
    c) Promiscuous port
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35
Q
  1. What Spanning Tree Protocol feature is similar to Bridge Assurance and should not be enabled on a BA-enabled interface?

a) Root Guard
b) BPDU Guard
c) BPDU Filtering
d) Loop Guard

A
  1. What Spanning Tree Protocol feature is similar to Bridge Assurance and should not be enabled on a BA-enabled interface?
    d) Loop Guard
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36
Q
  1. What commands are needed to enable Bridge Assurance on an interface?

a) Spanning-tree guard bridge default
b) Spanning-tree bridge assurance
c) Spanning-tree port type network
d) Spanning-tree port type bridge assurance

A
  1. What commands are needed to enable Bridge Assurance on an interface?

b) Spanning-tree bridge assurance
c) Spanning-tree port type network

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37
Q
  1. What features are supported in NX-OS 5.0 on Nexus 7000, but not on Nexus 5000?

a) Multiple Spanning Tree
b) UDLD
c) VDCs
d) BFD

A
  1. What features are supported in NX-OS 5.0 on Nexus 7000, but not on Nexus 5000?

c) VDCs
d) BFD

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38
Q
  1. What technologies are examples of Multichassis EtherChannel?

a) Virtual Port Channels
b) Virtual Switch Systems
c) Load balancing
d) Stackwise

A
  1. What technologies are examples of Multichassis EtherChannel?

a) Virtual Port Channels
b) Virtual Switch Systems

d) Stackwise

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39
Q
  1. How many active Nexus 7000 M1 module ports can be bundled into a port channel in NX-OS?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

A
  1. How many active Nexus 7000 M1 module ports can be bundled into a port channel in NX-OS?
    c) 8
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40
Q
  1. How many active Nexus 7000 F1 module ports or Nexus 5000 can be bundled into a port channel in NX-OS?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

A
  1. How many active Nexus 7000 F1 module ports or Nexus 5000 can be bundled into a port channel in NX-OS?
    d) 16
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41
Q
  1. Which command changes the port channel load balancing hash for module 4?

a) Port-channel module 4 load-balance Ethernet source-dest-port
b) Port-channel load-balance Ethernet source-dest-port module 4
c) Port-channel load-balance source-dest-port module 4
d) Port-channel module 4 load-balance Ethernet source-dest-port

A
  1. Which command changes the port channel load balancing hash for module 4?
    b) Port-channel load-balance Ethernet source-dest-port module 4
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42
Q
  1. What traffic does a virtual Port Channel peer link carry?

a) All traffic
b) VPC control traffic (CFSoE, BPDUs, LACP)
c) Flooded traffic
d) Orphan port traffic

A
  1. What traffic does a virtual Port Channel peer link carry?

b) VPC control traffic (CFSoE, BPDUs, LACP)
c) Flooded traffic
d) Orphan port traffic

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43
Q
  1. What First Hop Redundancy Protocol features are not recommended in an Active/Active VPC peer architecture?

a) Standby MAC address
b) Preemption
c) Priority
d) Standby IP address

A
  1. What First Hop Redundancy Protocol features are not recommended in an Active/Active VPC peer architecture?

b) Preemption
c) Priority

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44
Q
  1. What VPC command is used so both primary and secondary VPC peer switches send and process BPDUs using the same bridge ID?

a) Peer-gateway
b) Peer-switch
c) Peer-keepalive
d) Peer-domain

A
  1. What VPC command is used so both primary and secondary VPC peer switches send and process BPDUs using the same bridge ID?
    b) Peer-switch
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45
Q
  1. What command enables Cisco Fabric Services so a VPC domain can form?

a) Vpc peer-link
b) Vpc cfs peer
c) Vpc peer-cfs
d) Vpc cfs-link

A
  1. What command enables Cisco Fabric Services so a VPC domain can form?
    a) Vpc peer-link
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46
Q
  1. What features are recommended on the VPC peer link?

a) Bridge Assurance
b) UDLD
c) Root guard
d) Loop guard

A
  1. What features are recommended on the VPC peer link?

a) Bridge Assurance
b) UDLD

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47
Q
  1. What feature allows a VPC switch to act as the active gateway for packets addressed to the peer router MAC address to workaround some network-attached storage devices incompliant with Ethernet RFC standards regarding routing table lookups when responding to hosts on a different subnet?

a) Peer-gateway
b) Peer-switch
c) Peer-keepalive
d) Peer-domain

A
  1. What feature allows a VPC switch to act as the active gateway for packets addressed to the peer router MAC address to workaround some network-attached storage devices incompliant with Ethernet RFC standards regarding routing table lookups when responding to hosts on a different subnet?
    a) Peer-gateway
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48
Q
  1. Which Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender deployment model is supported by Nexus 7000 and has FEX uplinked to one switch with straight-through connections using a port channel and protects single-homed servers?

a) Straight-through using static pinning
b) Straight-through using dynamic pinning
c) Active-Active FEX using VPC
d) Active-Passive FEX using VPC

A
  1. Which Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender deployment model is supported by Nexus 7000 and has FEX uplinked to one switch with straight-through connections using a port channel and protects single-homed servers?
    b) Straight-through using dynamic pinning
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49
Q
  1. In NX-OS, what is the default auto-cost reference bandwidth for OSPF and IS-IS?

a) 100Mbps
b) 1Gbps
c) 10Gbps
d) 40Gbps

A
  1. In NX-OS, what is the default auto-cost reference bandwidth for OSPF and IS-IS?
    d) 40Gbps
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50
Q
  1. What interface-level command enables OSPF?

a) Ip router ospf 1
b) Ip router ospf 1 area 10
c) Ip ospf 1 area 10
d) Ip ospf 1

A
  1. What interface-level command enables OSPF?

b) Ip router ospf 1 area 10

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51
Q
  1. What commands enable Bidirectional Forwarding Detection on all HSRP groups on an interface?

a) Hsrp bfd
b) Bfd enable
c) Feature bfd
d) No ip redirects

A
  1. What commands enable Bidirectional Forwarding Detection on all HSRP groups on an interface?
    a) Hsrp bfd

c) Feature bfd
d) No ip redirects

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52
Q
  1. What are the Virtual Routing and Forwarding components?

a) L3 interfaces, RIB, FIB, and routing instances
b) L2 interfaces, MAC table, ARP table, and VLAN DB
c) L2 interfaces, RIB, FIB, and ARP table.
d) L3 interfaces, MAC table, ARP table, and routing instances.

A
  1. What are the Virtual Routing and Forwarding components?

a) L3 interfaces, RIB, FIB, and routing instances

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53
Q
  1. What NX-OS data structure on Nexus 7000 and 5500 adds Layer 2 rewrite data to the RIB?

a) Central Arbitrator
b) Adjacency Manager
c) Unicast Forwarding Distribution Module
d) Adjacency Forwarding Distribution Module

A
  1. What NX-OS data structure on Nexus 7000 and 5500 adds Layer 2 rewrite data to the RIB?
    b) Adjacency Manager
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54
Q
  1. What NX-OS data structure on Nexus 7000 and 5500 distributes forwarding data from the RIB to the Unicast FIB on the supervisor and modules?

a) Central Arbitrator
b) Adjacency Manager
c) Unicast Forwarding Distribution Module
d) Adjacency Forwarding Distribution Module

A
  1. What NX-OS data structure on Nexus 7000 and 5500 distributes forwarding data from the RIB to the Unicast FIB on the supervisor and modules?
    c) Unicast Forwarding Distribution Module
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55
Q
  1. What feature is mandatory when configuring redistribution on Nexus 7000 and 5500?

a) Ip prefix-list
b) Ip community-list
c) Route-map
d) Ip as-path access-list

A
  1. What feature is mandatory when configuring redistribution on Nexus 7000 and 5500?
    c) Route-map
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56
Q
  1. Instead of normal unicast routing destination-based decisions, what feature allows routing decision based on other characteristics such as source IP address, TCP/UDP port, or packet length?

a) Performance Routing
b) FIB-based Routing
c) Policy-Based Routing
d) CEF-based Routing

A
  1. Instead of normal unicast routing destination-based decisions, what feature allows routing decision based on other characteristics such as source IP address, TCP/UDP port, or packet length?
    c) Policy-Based Routing
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57
Q
  1. What NX-OS command shows FIB content programmed into hardware?

a) Sh ip cef
b) Show forwarding ipv4 base
c) Show forwarding ipv4 route
d) Show forwarding ipv4

A
  1. What NX-OS command shows FIB content programmed into hardware?
    c) Show forwarding ipv4 route
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58
Q
  1. What NX-OS command would assist troubleshooting which entry is used for a specific flow in an equal cost route situation?

a) Show equal cost multipathing
b) Show routing hash
c) Show routing forwarding
d) Show equal cost path

A
  1. What NX-OS command would assist troubleshooting which entry is used for a specific flow in an equal cost route situation?
    b) Show routing hash
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59
Q
  1. Which of the following virtualization models best describes VDCs?

a) Data plane virtualization
b) Data plane and control plane virtualization
c) Data plane, control plane, and management plane virtualization
d) Data plane, control plane, and operating environment virtualization with resource control

A
  1. Which of the following virtualization models best describes VDCs?
    d) Data plane, control plane, and operating environment virtualization with resource control
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60
Q
  1. Which of the following deployment scenarios are enabled by VDCs?

a) Split core for migrations and mergers
b) Access layer expansion for increased numbers of access switches
c) Multiple aggregation blocks for management and policy separation
d) Service insertion for increased security and fault isolations
e) Collapsed core for reduced management points

A
  1. Which of the following deployment scenarios are enabled by VDCs?
    a) Split core for migrations and mergers

c) Multiple aggregation blocks for management and policy separation
d) Service insertion for increased security and fault isolations

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61
Q
  1. How many VDCs are supported on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

a) Four equal VDCs, which control a subset of switch resources.
b) Eight VDCs, which control a subset of switch resources.
c) One default VDC, which controls the entire switch and three non-default VDCs with limited control over a subset of switch resources.
d) One default VDC, which controls the entire switch and seven non-default VDCs with limited control over a subset of switch resources.
e) None. VDCs are only supported on Cisco Nexus 5000 switches.

A
  1. How many VDCs are supported on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
    c) One default VDC, which controls the entire switch and three non-default VDCs with limited control over a subset of switch resources.
62
Q
  1. Which of the following resources can be assigned to a specific VDC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

a) A percentage of CPU capacity
b) Individual interfaces or port groups on I/O modules
c) A dedicated slice of the supervisor DRAM
d) The out-of-band management interface

A
  1. Which of the following resources can be assigned to a specific VDC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
    b) Individual interfaces or port groups on I/O modules
63
Q
  1. Which of the following resources can be limited through a VDC resource template?

a) Number of VLANs
b) Number of switched port analyzer (SPAN) sessions
c) Amount of space on the supervisor compact flash in megabytes
d) Power consumption for the ports assigned to the VDC
e) Amount of supervisor memory assigned to IPv4 routes in megabytes
f) Amount of supervisor memory assigned to MAC addresses and access-list entries

A
  1. Which of the following resources can be limited through a VDC resource template?

a) Number of VLANs
b) Number of switched port analyzer (SPAN) sessions

e) Amount of supervisor memory assigned to IPv4 routes in megabytes

64
Q
  1. When you change a value in a resource template, it is automatically applied to all VDCs that use the resource template.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. When you change a value in a resource template, it is automatically applied to all VDCs that use the resource template.
    b) False (must be re-applied to update)
65
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when you cannot create a VDC?

a) There are not enough resources available to create the VDC
b) Your user account does not have the vdc-admin role
c) You are attempting to create more than two VDCs.
d) The Cisco Fabric Services protocol has placed a lock on the VDCs
e) You are not logged into the default VDC
f) Your user account does not have the network-admin role

A
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when you cannot create a VDC?
    a) There are not enough resources available to create the VDC

e) You are not logged into the default VDC
f) Your user account does not have the network-admin role

66
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when you cannot delete a VDC?

a) The VDC is in use
b) You are trying to delete the default VDC
c) The Cisco Fabric Services protocol has placed a lock on the VDC
d) Licensed features have been enabled in the VDC
e) The VDC still has interfaces allocated to it

A
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when you cannot delete a VDC?
    b) You are trying to delete the default VDC
67
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when you cannot allocate an interface to a VDC?

a) You are trying to allocate an interface that is a part of a port-group on a N7K-M132XP-1x I/O module to a VDC without also allocating the other port group interfaces
b) The Cisco Fabric Services protocol has placed a lock on the VDC
c) The interface is assigned to a non-default VDC
d) The interface has an IP address assigned to it

A
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when you cannot allocate an interface to a VDC?
    a) You are trying to allocate an interface that is a part of a port-group on a N7K-M132XP-1x I/O module to a VDC without also allocating the other port group interfaces
68
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when a VDC remains in the failed state?

a) A higher priority VDC has claimed resources that were assigned to the VDC
b) The VDC no longer has interfaces allocated to it
c) Not enough resources were available when the VDC was created
d) The high availability policy for the VDC was set to bringdown and a VDC failure occurred.

A
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when a VDC remains in the failed state?
    d) The high availability policy for the VDC was set to bringdown and a VDC failure occurred.
69
Q
  1. Which of the following command is used to configure the first four Gigabit Ethernet ports on an I/O module of a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

a) Interface range Ethernet 1/1-4
b) Interface Ethernet 1/1-4
c) Interface range gigabitethernet 1/1-4
d) Interface gigabitethernet 1/1-4

A
  1. Which of the following command is used to configure the first four Gigabit Ethernet ports on an I/O module of a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
    b) Interface Ethernet 1/1-4
70
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the use of dedicated mode on the N7K-132XP-12 I/O modules?

a) The first port in the port group can use up to 10 Gbps. The other three ports in the port group are down and cannot be enabled.
b) One of the four ports in the port group can be configured to use up to 10 Gbps. The other three ports in the port group are down and cannot be enabled.
c) One of the ports in the port group can use up to 10 Gbps, but if you enable any of the other ports in the port group they share the bandwidth.
d) One of the ports in the port group can use up to 10 Gbps. If you enable any of the other ports in the port group all ports are error-disabled.
e) None of the above. Dedicated mode is only supported on the N7K-F132XP-15 modules.

A
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the use of dedicated mode on the N7K-132XP-12 I/O modules?
    a) The first port in the port group can use up to 10 Gbps. The other three ports in the port group are down and cannot be enabled.
71
Q
  1. When you change a command in a port profile, it is automatically applied to all ports that inherit that port profile.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. When you change a command in a port profile, it is automatically applied to all ports that inherit that port profile.
    a) True
72
Q
  1. Which of the following protocols can use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) for fast failure detection in NX-OS? (choose 5)

a) RIP
b) OSPF
c) VRRP
d) GLBP
e) HSRP
f) EIGRP
g) BGP
h) PIM
i) STP

A
  1. Which of the following protocols can use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) for fast failure detection in NX-OS? (choose 5)
    b) OSPF

e) HSRP
f) EIGRP
g) BGP
h) PIM

73
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid private VLAN types that can be configured for a VLAN?

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Closed
e) Community
f) Secure
g) Isolated

A
  1. Which of the following are valid private VLAN types that can be configured for a VLAN?
    a) Primary
    e) Community
    g) Isolated
74
Q
  1. Which of the following types of ports can a port in a private VLAN of type community communicate with?

a) Isolated ports
b) Community ports for all secondary VLANs
c) Community ports in the same secondary VLAN
d) Promiscuous ports

A
  1. Which of the following types of ports can a port in a private VLAN of type community communicate with?

c) Community ports in the same secondary VLAN
d) Promiscuous ports

75
Q
  1. What is the default type of Spanning Tree Protocol used by NX-OS?

a) PVRST+
b) PVST+
c) 802.1D-1998
d) MST
e) 802.1D-2004

A
  1. What is the default type of Spanning Tree Protocol used by NX-OS?
    a) PVRST+
76
Q
  1. Which types of ports send BPDUs when the bridge assurance feature is enabled on the port?

a) Designated ports only
b) Designated and root ports
c) Root ports and alternate ports
d) Any type of spanning-tree ports

A
  1. Which types of ports send BPDUs when the bridge assurance feature is enabled on the port?
    d) Any type of spanning-tree ports
77
Q
  1. Which of the following are common steps in a Layer 2 troubleshooting process?

a) Analyze spanning-tree to determine the Layer 2 path
b) Verify connectivity using ping and traceroute
c) Verify routing tables and FIBs.
d) Analyze MAC address tables
e) Analyze packet captures
f) Verify the adjacency table and Layer 3 to Layer 2 mappings

A
  1. Which of the following are common steps in a Layer 2 troubleshooting process?
    a) Analyze spanning-tree to determine the Layer 2 path

d) Analyze MAC address tables
e) Analyze packet captures

78
Q
  1. Which of the following technologies enable Multichassis EtherChannel (MEC)?

a) Virtual Port Channel (VPC)
b) Virtual Switching System (VSS)
c) Virtual Device Context (VDC)
d) Cisco FabricPath
e) Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
f) Cisco Stack Wise

A
  1. Which of the following technologies enable Multichassis EtherChannel (MEC)?

a) Virtual Port Channel (VPC)
b) Virtual Switching System (VSS)

f) Cisco Stack Wise

79
Q
  1. Which of the following header fields can be used in the port channel load balancing hash algorithm?

a) Destination IP address
b) Source MAC address
c) TCP flags
d) IP header length
e) ICMP type and code
f) TCP destination port

A
  1. Which of the following header fields can be used in the port channel load balancing hash algorithm?

a) Destination IP address
b) Source MAC address

f) TCP destination port

80
Q
  1. Match the VPC architecture components to their descriptions.

a) VPC peer link
b) VPC peer keepalive link
c) VPC
d) Cisco Fabric Services (CFS)

A
  1. Match the VPC architecture components to their descriptions.

a) VPC peer link - Carries control traffic between VPC peer devices
b) VPC peer keepalive link - Carries heartbeat messages to detect a dual-active condition
c) VPC - A port channel terminated on two different switches
d) Cisco Fabric Services (CFS) - Used to reliably synchronize VPC control plane data

81
Q
  1. A VPC domain cannot consist of more than two switches or VDCs.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. A VPC domain cannot consist of more than two switches or VDCs.
    a) True
82
Q
  1. Which of the following commands allows a VPC switch to forward traffic for the VPC peer router MAC address?

a) Peer-switch
b) Peer-gateway
c) Peer-link
d) Peer-mac
e) Peer-router

A
  1. Which of the following commands allows a VPC switch to forward traffic for the VPC peer router MAC address?
    b) Peer-gateway
83
Q
  1. Match the correct Cisco NX-OS command to the function.

a) Show port-channel summary
b) Show vpc consistency parameters vpc
c) Show vpc
d) Show vpc peer-keepalive

A
  1. Match the correct Cisco NX-OS command to the function.

a) Show port-channel summary - Verify port channel interface state, both on the VPC peer switches and on the connected downstream device.
b) Show vpc consistency parameters vpc - Verify VPC port channel configuration consistency across VPC peer switches.
c) Show vpc - Verify the VPC peer link is operational in addition to viewing global VPC parameters.
d) Show vpc peer-keepalive - Displays the peer-keepalive link state, which must be operational before the VPC peer link can come up.

84
Q
  1. The VPC peer-keepalive link must be operational before the VPC peer link can come up.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. The VPC peer-keepalive link must be operational before the VPC peer link can come up.
    a) True
85
Q
  1. All routing protocols require the Enterprise Services license on the Nexus 7000.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. All routing protocols require the Enterprise Services license on the Nexus 7000.
    b) False
86
Q
  1. Which of the following commands is used to configure a VRF static route?

a) (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1 vrf RED
b) (config-if)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1
c) (config-if)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1 vrf RED
d) (config-vrf)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1

A
  1. Which of the following commands is used to configure a VRF static route?
    d) (config-vrf)# ip route 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.1.1
87
Q
  1. Match the Cisco Nexus 7000 unicast routing architecture components to their descriptions.

a) UFDM
b) RIB
c) FIB
d) TCAM

A
  1. Match the Cisco Nexus 7000 unicast routing architecture components to their descriptions.

a) UFDM - Exists on the active supervisor and distributes the forwarding path data to the I/O modules
b) RIB - Contains routing data learned through routing protocols and other sources
c) FIB - Builds the data used for the hardware forwarding engine.
d) TCAM - Specialized hardware that contains forwarding data used in packet header lookups

88
Q
  1. Which of the following commands is used to filter routes when redistributing between routing protocols?

a) Redistribute eigrp 200 route-map EIGRP-TO-OSPF
b) Redistribute eigrp 200 prefix-list EIGRP-TO-OSPF
c) Redistribute eigrp 200 access-list name EIGRP-TO-OSPF
d) Redistribute eigrp 200 distribute-list name EIGRP-TO-OSPF

A
  1. Which of the following commands is used to filter routes when redistributing between routing protocols?
    a) Redistribute eigrp 200 route-map EIGRP-TO-OSPF
89
Q
  1. What happens to a packet that matches one of a route-map match statement with a DENY action?

a) The packet is dropped
b) The next entry in the route map is processed
c) The packet is forwarded using normal destination-based routing
d) None of the above. “DENY” is not a valid route-map keyword

A
  1. What happens to a packet that matches one of a route-map match statement with a DENY action?
    c) The packet is forwarded using normal destination-based routing
90
Q
  1. Which of the following commands are used to start an OSPFv3 process and enable it on interface Ethernet 1/1?

a) (config)# feature ospfv3
b) (config)# router ospfv3 1
c) (config)# ipv6 router ospfv3 1
d) (config-router)# address-family ipv6 unicast
e) (config)# interface Ethernet 1/1
f) (config-if)# ipv6 router ospfv3 1 area 0
g) (config-router-if)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255. area 0
h) (config-router-af)# interface Ethernet 1/1 area 0

A
  1. Which of the following commands are used to start an OSPFv3 process and enable it on interface Ethernet 1/1?

a) (config)# feature ospfv3
b) (config)# router ospfv3 1

e) (config)# interface Ethernet 1/1
f) (config-if)# ipv6 router ospfv3 1 area 0

91
Q
  1. Which Cisco NX-OS command is used to determine the path used by a specific IP flow when multiple equal cost paths are present in the routing table?

a) Show ip cef exact-route
b) Show ip route internal ecmp
c) Show forwarding ipv4 flow
d) Show routing hash
e) Show ip fib exact

A
  1. Which Cisco NX-OS command is used to determine the path used by a specific IP flow when multiple equal cost paths are present in the routing table?
    d) Show routing hash
92
Q
  1. Which of the following protocols can be used for intra-domain IP multicast routing on a Cisco Nexus 7000?

a) MSDP
b) MBGP
c) MOSPF
d) PIM Spare Mode
e) PIM Dense Mode
f) PIM SSM
g) PIM BiDir
h) IGMPv2
i) IGMPv3

A
  1. Which of the following protocols can be used for intra-domain IP multicast routing on a Cisco Nexus 7000?
    d) PIM Spare Mode

f) PIM SSM
g) PIM BiDir

93
Q
  1. Which of the following commands are used to enable IGMPv3 on an interface?

a) Ip pim spare-mode
b) Ip igmp
c) Ip igmp version 3
d) Ip igmp enable
e) Ip igmp querier 10.1.1.1

A
  1. Which of the following commands are used to enable IGMPv3 on an interface?
    a) Ip pim spare-mode
    c) Ip igmp version 3
94
Q
  1. Which of the following options can be used to distribute PIM RP data in a PIM spare mode deployment?

a) Static RP configuration
b) MSDP
c) MBGP
d) Auto-RP
e) CFS
f) BSR
g) MOSPF

A
  1. Which of the following options can be used to distribute PIM RP data in a PIM spare mode deployment?
    a) Static RP configuration
    d) Auto-RP
    f) BSR
95
Q
  1. Which of the following commands is required to enable IGMP snooping for all VLANs on a Cisco Nexus switch?

a) (config)# ip igmp snooping
b) (config)# ip igmp snooping vlan 1-4094
c) (config-vlan)# ip igmp snooping
d) None of the above. IGMP snooping is enabled for all VLANs by default

A
  1. Which of the following commands is required to enable IGMP snooping for all VLANs on a Cisco Nexus switch?
    d) None of the above. IGMP snooping is enabled for all VLANs by default
96
Q
  1. Which of the following commands can be used to view the multicast forwarding state for the multicast group 239.1.1.1?

a) Show ip igmp group 239.1.1.1
b) Show ip pim topology 239.1.1.1
c) Show ip mroute 239.1.1.1
d) Show ip mcast 239.1.1.1
e) Show forwarding ipv4 mcast 239.1.1.1

A
  1. Which of the following commands can be used to view the multicast forwarding state for the multicast group 239.1.1.1?
    c) Show ip mroute 239.1.1.1
97
Q
  1. Which of the following commands are used to start a BGP process?

a) (config)# feature bgp
b) (config)# router bgp 65000
c) (config)# ip bgp router 1
d) (config-router)# address-family ipv4 unicast
e) (config-router)# neighbor 10.10.10.2 bgp 65000
f) (config)# interface Ethernet 1/1
g) (config-router-af)# network 10.10.10.0/24
h) (config-router-af)# interface Ethernet 1/1 neighbor 10.10.10.2
i) (config-router)# neighbor 10.10.10.2 remote-as 65000
j) (config-router-neighbor)# address-family ipv4 unicast

A
  1. Which of the following commands are used to start a BGP process?

a) (config)# feature bgp
b) (config)# router bgp 65000

d) (config-router)# address-family ipv4 unicast
g) (config-router-af)# network 10.10.10.0/24

i) (config-router)# neighbor 10.10.10.2 remote-as 65000
j) (config-router-neighbor)# address-family ipv4 unicast

98
Q
  1. Which of the following protocols can be used to distribute multicast source data between routing domains on Cisco Nexus 7000?

a) MSDP
b) MBGP
c) MOSPF
d) PIM Spare Mode
e) PIM Dense Mode
f) PIM SSM
g) PIM BiDir
h) IGMPv2
i) IGMPv3

A
  1. Which of the following protocols can be used to distribute multicast source data between routing domains on Cisco Nexus 7000?

a) MSDP
b) MBGP

99
Q
  1. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) requires which license?

a) Enterprise Services on Nexus 7000
b) Enterprise Services on Nexus 5500
c) Layer 3 Base on Nexus 7000
d) Layer 3 Base on Nexus 5500

A
  1. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) requires which license?
    a) Enterprise Services on Nexus 7000
    d) Layer 3 Base on Nexus 5500
100
Q
  1. Match route filtering options with functions.

a) Prefix lists
b) AS-path lists
c) Community lists
d) Route maps

A
  1. Match route filtering options with functions.

a) Prefix lists can be used to permit or deny ranges of IPv4 and IPv6 prefixes.
b) AS-path lists can be used to select BGP routes based on BGP AS-path attribute.
c) Community lists can be used to select BGP routes based on BGP community attributes.
d) Route maps can be used to permit or deny routes to match specific selection criteria.

101
Q
  1. Which of the following are common steps in a Layer 3 troubleshooting process?

a) Analyze spanning-tree to determine the Layer 2 path
b) Verify connectivity using ping and traceroute
c) Verify routing tables and FIBs.
d) Analyze MAC address tables
e) Analyze packet captures
f) Verify the adjacency table and Layer 3 to Layer 2 mappings

A
  1. Which of the following are common steps in a Layer 3 troubleshooting process?

b) Verify connectivity using ping and traceroute
c) Verify routing tables and FIBs.

e) Analyze packet captures
f) Verify the adjacency table and Layer 3 to Layer 2 mappings

102
Q
  1. Which feature can be configured with a configuration session? (3-15)

a) Access control lists
b) All security features
c) DHCP snooping
d) Port security

A
  1. Which feature can be configured with a configuration session? (3-15)
    a) Access control lists
103
Q
  1. Which security feature can restrict inbound traffic from a specific set of MAC addresses known as secure MAC addresses? (3-20)

a) DHCP snooping
b) Dynamic ARP Inspection
c) Port security
d) IP Source Guard

A
  1. Which security feature can restrict inbound traffic from a specific set of MAC addresses known as secure MAC addresses? (3-20)
    c) Port security
104
Q
  1. You are implementing DHCP snooping and the support of metropolitan Ethernet-access environments where DHCP centrally manages the IP addresses for many subscribers. Which option should be supported on the DHCP server so it permits the DHCP server to assign an IP address based on any parameters configured?(3-23)

a) 80
b) 81
c) 82
d) 83

A
  1. You are implementing DHCP snooping and the support of metropolitan Ethernet-access environments where DHCP centrally manages the IP addresses for many subscribers. Which option should be supported on the DHCP server so it permits the DHCP server to assign an IP address based on any parameters configured?(3-23)
    c) 82
105
Q
  1. Which of the following are disadvantages of traditional data center interconnect technologies? (3-48)

a) Overhead associated with additional headers
b) Complex operations
c) Low bandwidth
d) Transport dependent

A
  1. Which of the following are disadvantages of traditional data center interconnect technologies? (3-48)
    b) Complex operations
    d) Transport dependent
106
Q
  1. Match the technology to the characteristics. (3-51)

Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV)
Traditional data center interconnect (DCI) technologies

a) MAC address learning based on flooding
b) Control plane based MAC learning
c) Dynamic encapsulation
d) Pseudo wires and tunnels
e) Complex dual-homing
f) Native automated dual-homing

A
  1. Match the technology to the characteristics. (3-51)

Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV)

b) Control plane based MAC learning
c) Dynamic encapsulation
f) Native automated dual-homing

Traditional data center interconnect (DCI) technologies

a) MAC address learning based on flooding
d) Pseudo wires and tunnels
e) Complex dual-homing

107
Q
  1. Which statement best describes an OTV overlay interface? (3-54)

a) One of the uplinks of the OTV edge device
b) One of the interfaces on the edge device that faces the site and carries at least on OTV-extended VLAN
c) A new virtual interface that contains all the OTV configuration
d) A special type of Layer 3 interface that sends and receives packets on a virtual IP-based ring

A
  1. Which statement best describes an OTV overlay interface? (3-54)
    c) A new virtual interface that contains all the OTV configuration
108
Q
  1. OTV edge devices can perform fragmentation to allow jumbo frames to be carried across an IP transport network with a smaller MTU. (3-56)

a) True
b) False

A
  1. OTV edge devices can perform fragmentation to allow jumbo frames to be carried across an IP transport network with a smaller MTU. (3-56)
    b) False
109
Q
  1. Which protocol is used as the OTV control protocol? (3-58)

a) OSPF
b) IS-IS
c) BGP
d) MSDP
e) CFS

A
  1. Which protocol is used as the OTV control protocol? (3-58)
    b) IS-IS
110
Q
  1. Which commands need to be configured on the OTV overlay interface for OTV to fully operational? (3-73)

a) Otv join-interface interface Ethernet 1/1
b) Otv site-vlan 200
c) Otv extended-vlan 100-199
d) Otv control-group 239.1.1.1
e) Otv isis group 239.1.1.1
f) Otv ssm-group 232.1.1.0/24
g) Otv data-group 232.1.1.0/24
h) Ip igmp version 3
i) Ip pim sparse-mode
j) No shutdown

A
  1. Which commands need to be configured on the OTV overlay interface for OTV to fully operational? (3-73)
    a) Otv join-interface interface Ethernet 1/1

c) Otv extended-vlan 100-199
d) Otv control-group 239.1.1.1

g) Otv data-group 232.1.1.0/24
j) No shutdown

111
Q
  1. Which entity is part of the Cisco TrustSec network? (3-38)

a) Local switch
b) Supplicant
c) Authenticator
d) Authorization server

A
  1. Which entity is part of the Cisco TrustSec network? (3-38)
    c) Authenticator (already part of the TrustSec network)
112
Q
  1. When implementing QOS, which type of traffic should be classified so no frames are dropped due to its exchange-based behavior? (3-87)

a) SCSI I/O
b) File transfer
c) SMTP traffic
d) Voice

A
  1. When implementing QOS, which type of traffic should be classified so no frames are dropped due to its exchange-based behavior? (3-87)
    a) SCSI I/O
113
Q
  1. When policing traffic on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, how many colors or conditions can be applied? (3-90)

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

A
  1. When policing traffic on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, how many colors or conditions can be applied? (3-90)
    b) 3
114
Q
  1. Which is the default type of class-map when no specific type is specified? (3-98)

a) Type policing
b) Type queuing
c) Type scheduling
d) Type qos

A
  1. Which is the default type of class-map when no specific type is specified? (3-98)
    d) Type qos
115
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding mutation mapping? (3-102)

a) On ingress, mutation mapping occurs after traffic classification and all other actions
b) On egress, mutation mapping occurs after traffic classification and all other actions
c) On ingress, mutation mapping occurs before traffic classification and all other actions
d) On egress, mutation mapping occurs after traffic classification and before the other actions

A
  1. Which statement is correct regarding mutation mapping? (3-102)
    d) On egress, mutation mapping occurs after traffic classification and before the other actions
116
Q
  1. Which type of policy map is used to mark, shape, and queue packets? (3-108)

a) Type policing
b) Type queuing
c) Type scheduling
d) Type qos

A
  1. Which type of policy map is used to mark, shape, and queue packets? (3-108)
    b) Type queuing

***Type qos is used to mark, apply mutations, set ingress port trust state, and police packets

117
Q
  1. What are the 5 main aspects of NX-OS software security? (3-4)

a) Traffic integrity, control plane protection, access control, path selection, and data confidentiality
b) Traffic integrity, control plane protection, access control, admission control, and data confidentiality
c) Traffic integrity, control plane protection, access control, admission control, and hardware control
d) Hardware integrity, control plane protection, access control, admission control, and data confidentiality

A
  1. What are the 5 main aspects of NX-OS software security? (3-4)
    b) Traffic integrity, control plane protection, access control, admission control, and data confidentiality
118
Q
  1. Control plane protection security features include? (3-4)

a) Authentication of control protocols seen through the device
b) Policing control plane traffic
c) Source verification for packets
d) Enhanced access control lists
e) Separation of the control and data plane

A
  1. Control plane protection security features include? (3-4)

a) Authentication of control protocols seen through the device
b) Policing control plane traffic

e) Separation of the control and data plane

:Source verification for packets – Traffic integrity
:Enhanced access control lists – Access control feature

119
Q
  1. Cisco Nexus 7000 supports what access control list feature that Nexus 5000 do not? (3-8)

a) Selective hardware programming for better scalability and resource usage
b) Verify-commit programming paradigm for better usability and management
c) Atomic configuration update with no traffic interruption for continuous operations
d) ACL matching using Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 header fields using IPv4, IPv6, ARP, and MAC access lists
e) ACL syntax improvement including slash notation for IP addresses

A
  1. Cisco Nexus 7000 supports what access control list feature that Nexus 5000 do not? (3-8)

a) Selective hardware programming for better scalability and resource usage
b) Verify-commit programming paradigm for better usability and management
c) Atomic configuration update with no traffic interruption for continuous operations

120
Q
  1. From an access control list configuration session, what command is recommended to apply the test configuration? (3-15)

a) Exit
b) Abort
c) Commit
d) Verify

A
  1. From an access control list configuration session, what command is recommended to apply the test configuration? (3-15)
    c) Commit

***Exit – this will leave the session active

121
Q
  1. Access control list processing is as follows: (3-17)
Policy-based routing (PBR)
Port access control list (PACL)
Router access control list (RACL)
Security group access control list (SGACL)
VLAN access control list (VACL)

a) PACL, ingress RACL, ingress VACL, SGACL, Egress RACL, Egress VACL
b) PACL, ingress VACL, ingress RACL, SGACL, Egress RACL, Egress VACL
c) PACL, ingress VACL, ingress RACL, SGACL, Egress VACL, Egress RACL
d) Ingress VACL, ingress RACL, PACL, SGACL, Egress RACL, Egress VACL

A
  1. Access control list processing is as follows: (3-17)
Policy-based routing (PBR)
Port access control list (PACL)
Router access control list (RACL)
Security group access control list (SGACL)
VLAN access control list (VACL)

b) PACL, ingress VACL, ingress RACL, SGACL, Egress RACL, Egress VACL

122
Q
  1. Additional ACL features are: (3-17)

a) ACLs are processed in software
b) ACLs are processed in hardware
c) The CPU is protected by using an available CPU ACL
d) The CPU is protected by using an available rate limiter

A
  1. Additional ACL features are: (3-17)
    b) ACLs are processed in hardware
    d) The CPU is protected by using an available rate limiter
123
Q
  1. Port security violation actions include: (3-20)

a) Log
b) Forward
c) Shutdown
d) Restrict
e) Protect

A
  1. Port security violation actions include: (3-20)

c) Shutdown – interface is put into an error disabled state; default action
d) Restrict – drop ingress traffic and maintain a dropped traffic count
e) Protect – continue learning until threshold reached, then disable learning and drop all ingress traffic from non-secure MAC addresses

124
Q
  1. In virtual device contexts (VDC), the DHCP snooping binding database is unique for each VDC. (3-23)

a) True
b) False

A
  1. In virtual device contexts (VDC), the DHCP snooping binding database is unique for each VDC. (3-23)
    a) True
125
Q
  1. Match features to function. (3-22)

DHCP snooping
Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
IP Source Guard
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF)

a) Acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers
b) Ensures only valid ARP requests and responses are relayed
c) Per-interface traffic filter that permits IP traffic only when the IP address and MAC address of each packet matches a binding source
d) Discards packets lacking a verifiable IP source address

A
  1. Match features to function. (3-22)

DHCP snooping - Acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers
Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) - Ensures only valid ARP requests and responses are relayed
IP Source Guard - Per-interface traffic filter that permits IP traffic only when the IP address and MAC address of each packet matches a binding source
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) - Discards packets lacking a verifiable IP source address

126
Q
  1. Traffic Storm Control features include (3-29)

a) Allows a controlled amount of storm traffic to be forwarded out a target port as a percentage of the total port bandwidth
b) Allows a controlled amount of storm traffic to be forwarded out a target port in configurable packets per second
c) Traffic in excess of the configured limit is queued
d) Traffic in excess of the configured limit is dropped

A
  1. Traffic Storm Control features include (3-29)
    a) Allows a controlled amount of storm traffic to be forwarded out a target port as a percentage of the total port bandwidth
    d) Traffic in excess of the configured limit is dropped
127
Q
  1. What traffic is redirected to CPU? (3-33)

a) All traffic
b) Outbound traffic
c) Packets with IP options set
d) DHCP snooping, DAI, and port-security packets

A
  1. What traffic is redirected to CPU? (3-33)

c) Packets with IP options set
d) DHCP snooping, DAI, and port-security packets

128
Q
  1. What feature complements control plane policing to protect the CPU? (3-35)

a) IP source Guard
b) DHCP ARP Inspection
c) Traffic Storm Control
d) Hardware-based rate limiters

A
  1. What feature complements control plane policing to protect the CPU? (3-35)
    d) Hardware-based rate limiters
129
Q
  1. Which feature is leveraged to build secure network architecture and provides wire-rate link-layer encryption via IEEE 802.1AE? (3-37)

a) IP Source Guard
b) DHCP ARP Inspection
c) Cisco TrustSec
d) Traffic Storm Control

A
  1. Which feature is leveraged to build secure network architecture and provides wire-rate link-layer encryption via IEEE 802.1AE? (3-37)
    c) Cisco TrustSec
130
Q
  1. The combination of Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) and First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRP) can result in suboptimal routing where inter-VLAN traffic between hosts at the same site crosses the overlay/WAN to be routed, then forwarded back across the overlay to the destination host. What steps must be taken to work around this problem? (3-75)

a) FHRP filtering
b) Don’t use FHRP
c) FHRP must be configured per site with static MAC address
d) FHRP must be configured per site with static MAC address and preemption

A
  1. The combination of Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) and First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRP) can result in suboptimal routing where inter-VLAN traffic between hosts at the same site crosses the overlay/WAN to be routed, then forwarded back across the overlay to the destination host. What steps must be taken to work around this problem? (3-75)
    a) FHRP filtering via VACL to block FHRP hellos across the overlay and OTV MAC route filter to block virtual FHRP MAC address announcement across the overlay.
131
Q
  1. What does the CMP provide for management access? (4-4)

a) Out-of-band management and monitoring dependent on the primary operating system
b) In-band management and monitoring independent of the primary operating system
c) Out-of-band management and monitoring independent of the primary operating system
d) Out-of-band management and monitoring dependent on the primary operating system

A
  1. What does the CMP provide for management access? (4-4)

c) Out-of-band management and monitoring independent of the primary operating system

132
Q
  1. How manymanagement IP addresses should be configured on a Cisco Nexus 7000 with dual supervisors? (4-6)

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A
  1. How manymanagement IP addresses should be configured on a Cisco Nexus 7000 with dual supervisors? (4-6)
    c) 3 - 1-each for 2 CMP and supervisors share 1 IP address
133
Q
  1. Which command would you use to connect to the CMP from the CP on the active supervisor module on the Cisco Nexus 7000? (4-7)

a) Connect cmp
b) Attach cmp
c) Cmp attach
d) Attach module 5 cmp

A
  1. Which command would you use to connect to the CMP from the CP on the active supervisor module on the Cisco Nexus 7000? (4-7)
    b) Attach cmp
134
Q
  1. How many CMP messages can be saved in the log file? (4-11)

a) 64
b) 128
c) 256
d) 512

A
  1. How many CMP messages can be saved in the log file? (4-11)
    c) 256
135
Q
  1. Which of the following is enabled by default on the CMP? (4-9)

a) SSH
b) Telnet
c) RDP
d) TACACS+

A
  1. Which of the following is enabled by default on the CMP? (4-9)
    a) SSH
136
Q
  1. Which of the following is a non-default role on the Cisco Nexus 7000?

a) Vdc-admin
b) Network-admin
c) Vdc-operator
d) Admin

A
  1. Which of the following is a non-default role on the Cisco Nexus 7000?
    d) Admin
137
Q
  1. How many user accounts can be configured on the Cisco Nexus 7000? (4-25)

a) 64
b) 128
c) 192
d) 256

A
  1. How many user accounts can be configured on the Cisco Nexus 7000? (4-25)
    d) 256
138
Q
  1. Which command is used to distribute the RADIUS configuration to all other switches in the fabric?

a) Commit radius-configuration
b) Commit radius
c) Radius commit
d) Copy running-configuration startup-configuration

A
  1. Which command is used to distribute the RADIUS configuration to all other switches in the fabric?
    c) Radius commit
139
Q
  1. How many AAA server groups can be configured in a VDC on the Cisco Nexus 7000? (4-32)

a) 50
b) 64
c) 75
d) 100

A
  1. How many AAA server groups can be configured in a VDC on the Cisco Nexus 7000? (4-32)
    d) 100
140
Q
  1. In which order are user role rules applied? (4-45)

a) Descending
b) Ascending
c) The order they were configured
d) The most explicit rule first

A
  1. In which order are user role rules applied? (4-45)

a) Descending - 3 > 2 > 1

141
Q
  1. Which command is used to enable Cisco Fabric Services distribution for NTP? (4-57)

a) Enable ntp distribute
b) Distribute ntp
c) Cfs ntp distribute
d) Ntp distribute

A
  1. Which command is used to enable Cisco Fabric Services distribution for NTP? (4-57)
    d) Ntp distribute
142
Q
  1. Which command is used to enable distribution of Cisco Fabric Services over IPv4? (4-59)

a) Cfs ip distribute
b) Cfs ipv4 distribute
c) Cfs distribute ipv4
d) Cfs distribute ip

A
  1. Which command is used to enable distribution of Cisco Fabric Services over IPv4? (4-59)
    b) Cfs ipv4 distribute
143
Q
  1. Which management tool automates the provisioning process in the data center? (4-87)

a) CLI script
b) XML Interface
c) DCNM
d) Scheduler

A
  1. Which management tool automates the provisioning process in the data center? (4-87)
    c) DCNM
144
Q
  1. Which feature is used to periodically automate maintenance tasks without user intervention? (4-77)

a) CLI script
b) XML Interface
c) DCNM
d) Scheduler

A
  1. Which feature is used to periodically automate maintenance tasks without user intervention? (4-77)
    d) Scheduler sets a maintenance timetable
145
Q
  1. Which licensable feature does not have a license grace period? (4-96)

a) Cisco TrustSec
b) VDCs
c) BGP
d) VPNs

A
  1. Which licensable feature does not have a license grace period? (4-96)
    a) Cisco TrustSec
146
Q
  1. The CMP uses which authentication method?

a) Local DB
b) Network-admin account
c) Same as CP
d) RADIUS, TACACS+, or local DB as configured separately than CP

A
  1. The CMP uses which authentication method?

c) Same as CP

147
Q
  1. What command is used to verify the CMP startup config? (4-12)

a) Show running-configuration cmp
b) Show startup-configuration cmp
c) Show cmp running-configuration
d) Show cmp startup-configuration

A
  1. What command is used to verify the CMP startup config? (4-12)
    b) Show startup-configuration cmp
148
Q
  1. The CP and CMP images always match. (4-14)

a) True
b) False

A
  1. The CP and CMP images always match. (4-14)
    b) False – the CP and CMP images are independent and may not match. Use “install all” from CP to ensure the CMP has the latest image. Extract the CMP image from the NX-OS system image: install module 5 cmp system bootflash:/n7000-s1-dk9.5.2.7.bin
149
Q
  1. Regarding user accounts, roles, and rules, what are the Cisco Nexus 7000 numbers? (4-24)

a) 256 user accounts with up to 64 user-defined roles (in addition to the 4 default) with up to 256 rules per role.
b) 64 user accounts with up to 256 user-defined roles (in addition to the 4 default) with up to 256 rules per role.
c) 256 user accounts with up to 256 user-defined roles (in addition to the 4 default) with up to 256 rules per role.
d) 256 user accounts with up to 64 user-defined roles (in addition to the 4 default) with up to 64 rules per role.

A
  1. Regarding user accounts, roles, and rules, what are the Cisco Nexus 7000 numbers? (4-24)
    a) 256 user accounts with up to 64 user-defined roles (in addition to the 4 default) with up to 256 rules per role.
150
Q
  1. User accounts have the 4 attributes below. (4-43)

a) Username, password, permissions, user role
b) Username, password, expiry date, rules
c) Username, password, permissions, rules
d) Username, password, expiry date, user role

A
  1. User accounts have the 4 attributes below. (4-43)

d) Username, password, expiry date, user role

151
Q
  1. By default, a user account role is allowed access to (4-45)

a) All interfaces, all VLANs, and all VRFs in the VDC
b) All interfaces and all VRFs in the VDC
c) All interfaces and all VLANs in the VDC
d) All VLANs and all VRFs in the VDC

A
  1. By default, a user account role is allowed access to (4-45)
    a) All interfaces, all VLANs, and all VRFs in the VDC
152
Q
  1. What steps are used to schedule a daily configuration backup? (4-79)

a) Feature scheduler
b) Feature timetable
c) Scheduler aaa-authentication username testuser password testpassword
d) Scheduler job name BACKUP-CFG
e) Scheduler job BACKUP-CFG
f) Copy running-config bootflash:/$(SWITCHNAME)-$(TIMESTAMP).cfg vrf management
g) Scheduler schedule name DAILYBACKUP
h) Timetable name DAILYBACKUP
i) Job name BACKUP-CFG
j) Time daily 21:00

A
  1. What steps are used to schedule a daily configuration backup? (4-79)
    a) Feature scheduler

c) Scheduler aaa-authentication username testuser password testpassword
d) Scheduler job name BACKUP-CFG

f) Copy running-config bootflash:/$(SWITCHNAME)-$(TIMESTAMP).cfg vrf management
g) Scheduler schedule name DAILYBACKUP

i) Job name BACKUP-CFG
j) Time daily 21:00

153
Q
  1. What is Cisco’s future direction to workaround SNMP shortcomings such as CPUHOG problems? (4-86)

a) Syslogs
b) SNMPv3
c) XML API
d) DCNM

A
  1. What is Cisco’s future direction to workaround SNMP shortcomings such as CPUHOG problems? (4-86)
    c) XML API

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