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Instrument > Instrument > Flashcards

Instrument Flashcards

1
Q

Documents Required for Flight

A 
A - Airworthiness
R - Registration
R - Radio Licencse
O - Operating Limits
W - Weight and balance
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2
Q

Maintenance Required

A 
A - Annual
V - Vor(30days)
1 - 100hours
A - Altimeter (24 months)
T - Transponder (24 months)
E - ELT (12 months)
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3
Q

IMSAFE

A 
I - Illness
M - medication
S - Stress
A - Alcohol
F - Fatigue
E - Emotion
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4
Q

Preflight info required for IFR

A 
W - Weather
K - Known traffic delays
R - runway lengths
A - Alternates
F - Fuel requirements
T - Take off and landing distances
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5
Q

Instrument Proficiency

A

6 approaches, holds, intercepts, tracking, in the previous six months

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6
Q

Requirements to carry passengers

A

3 landings and takeoffs int he same category and class of aircraft in the last 90 days, if at night 3 take-offs and landings to full stop 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before in previous 90 days

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7
Q

IFR minimums in mountainous terrain

A

2,000 above highest obstacle within 4nm of course

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8
Q

IFR minimums in non mountainous terrain

A

1,000 ft above highest obstacle within 2nm of course

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9
Q

When do you need an alternate

A

123 - 1 hour before and after, 2,000 ft ceilings and 3 miles visibility

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10
Q

Alternate minimums

A

P - 600ft ceilings and 2 miles visibility

NP - 800ft ceilings and 2 miles visibility

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11
Q

Holding Speeds

A

0-6,000 – 200IAS
6,001-14,000 – 230IAS
14,001 - 60,000 – 265IAS

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12
Q

Holding Lengths

A

Below 14,000 - 1 min

Above 14,000 - 1.5 min legs

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13
Q

Mandatory Reporting Points

A 
M - Missed approach 
􏰁A - Airspeed ±10kt / 5% change       of filed TAS 
􏰁R - Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude) 
􏰁V - VFR on top
􏰁E* - ETA change ±3 min 
􏰁L - Leaving a holding fix/point 
􏰁O* - Outer marker 
U - Unforecasted weather 
􏰁S - Safety of flight 
􏰁V - Vacating an altitude/FL 
􏰁F* - Final approach fix 
R - Radio/Nav failure (§91.187)
􏰁C* - Compulsory reporting points
􏰁500 - unable climb/descent 500 fpm 
*required only in a non-radar environment
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14
Q

DA/H

A

Decision altitude/ Height

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15
Q

MAA

A

Minimum Authorized Altitude

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16
Q

MCA

A

Minimum Crossing Altitdue

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17
Q

MDA

A

Minimum Decent Altitude

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18
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude

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19
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearence Altitude:

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20
Q

MORA

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude

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21
Q

MRA

A

Minimum Reception Altitdue

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22
Q

MVA

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude

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23
Q

OROCA

A

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude

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24
Q

Lost Comm (alt)

A

M - Minimum Height
E - Expected height
A - last assigned

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25
Q

Lost Comm (proc)

A

A - Assigned
V - Vectors
E - expected
F - Filed

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26
Q

When can you descend below an MDA

A
  1. The aircraft is in a position that it can descend to land at a normal rate and using normal maneuvers
  2. The flight visibility is not less than the prescribed visibility for the instrument approach
  3. One of the visible references is clearly visible
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27
Q

Visual references for runway

A 
a. The approach light system, except you may descend below 100 feet above the
touchdown zone only if the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.                     b. The threshold.
c. The threshold markings.
d. The threshold lights.
e. The runway end identifier lights.
f. The visual approach slope indicator.
g. The touchdown zone or its markings.
h. The touchdown zone lights.
i. The runway or runway markings.
j. The runway lights.
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28
Q

Aircraft Approach CAT

A 
A - less than 90 - 1.3nm
B - 90-120 - 1.5 nm
C - 121-140 - 1.7 nm
D - 141-165 - 2.3nm
E - Greater than 165 - 4.5
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29
Q

When can you descend to the next instrument approach segent

A

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of an approved approach course

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30
Q

Standard rate of turn

A

divide by 10 plus 5

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31
Q

Contact approaches

A

must remain clear of clouds
Must initiate yourself
1sm visibility

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32
Q

Visual aproach

A

1,000ft ceilings 3 miles visibility

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33
Q

Minimum VFR equipment

A 
A-Altimeter
T- Tachometer for each engine.
O- Oil temp indicator for each engine
M- Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine
A- Airspeed indicator
T- Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine 
O- Oil Pressure gauge for each engine
F- Fuel quantity gauge for each tank
L- Landing gear position lights (if retractable gear)
A- Anticolision lights 
M- Magnetic direction indicator
E- ELT, if required by §91.207
S- Safety belts / shoulder harnesses
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34
Q

Minimum Night Equipment list

A 
F- Fuses (spare set)
L- Landing light (if for hire) 
A- Anticolision light
P- Position lights (navigation lights) 
S- Source of power (such as battery)
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35
Q

Minimum IFR equipment

A 
G- Generator/alternator
R- Radios 
A- Altimeter(sensitive) adjustable for barometric pressure B- Ball (slip-skid indicator)
C- Clock
A- Attitude indicator
R- Rate of turn indicator
D- Directional gyro (Heading indicator)
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36
Q

Terminal VOR

A

1,000-12,000 - 25miles

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37
Q

Low VOR

A

1,000-18,000 - 40 miles

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38
Q

High VOR

A

1,000 - 60,000

1,000 - 14,500 - 40 miles
14,500 - 18,000 - 100 miles
18,000 - 45,000 - 130 miles
45,000 - 60,000 - 100 miles

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39
Q

VOR signoff

A

Date
Error
Place
Signature

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40
Q

Rate of descent for a 3degree glidescope

A

ground speed x10 divided by 2

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41
Q

Weather Min Class B

A

3 miles clear of clouds

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42
Q

Weather min Class C

A

3, 1,000 above, 500 feet below, 2,000ft horizontal

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43
Q

Weather Min Class D

A

3, 1,000 above, 500 feet below, 2,000ft horizontal

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44
Q

Weather Min Class E

A

Below 10,000 = 3, 1,000 above, 500 feet below, 2,000ft horizontal
Above 10,000 = 5, 1,000ft above, 1,000 feet below and 1 statue mile between.

45
Q

Weather Min Class G

A 
1,2000 or below DAY: 1, CoC
1,2000 or below NIGHT: 3, 152
1,2000+ below 10,000 DAY: 1, 152
1,2000+ below 10,000 NIGHT: 3, 152
10,000 + 5, 111
46
Q

Convective Sigmets

A
  • issued 55 min past the hour
  • Valid for 2 hours
  • thunderstorms
  • Tornadoes
  • Surface winds greater than 50 knots
  • always imply turbulence, icing, and LL wind shear
47
Q

Sigmets

A
  • Valid for 4 hours
  • Turbulance or icing not associated with thunderstorms
  • A non scheduled advisory
48
Q

Airmets

A

Zulu - Icing
Tango - Turbulance
Sierra - Mountain obscuration/ IFR conditions
Valid for 6 hours

49
Q

Metar

A

-Published Hours

50
Q

TAF

A
  • Terminal Area Forecast
  • published every 4 hours
  • good for 24-30 hours
  • 5 SM radius around the station
51
Q

Area Forcast

A
  • Issued 3 times a day

- covers various states

52
Q

Surface Analysis Charts

A
  • Shows surface conditions, iso-bars

- generated every 3 hours

53
Q

Weather Depiction Chart

A
  • shows areas of VFR, MVFR, and IFR
54
Q

Life Cycle of a thundrstorm

A
  • Cumulus Stage = Lifting action begins
  • Mature Stage = precipitation begins to fall, down/updrafts increase
  • Dissipating stage = Strong downdrafts as the thunderstorm dies
55
Q

Radiation Fog

A

Occurs at calm clear nights when the ground cools rapidly due to the release of ground radiation.

56
Q

Advection Fog

A

warm, moist air moves over a cold surface. Winds are required for advection fog to form.

57
Q

Steam Fog

A

Cold, dry air moves over warm water. Moisture is added to the airmass and steam fog forms.

58
Q

Clear ICE

A

most dangerous type. Heavy, hard and difficult to remove. Forms when water drops freeze slowly as a smooth sheet of solid ice.

59
Q

Rime ICE

A

Opaque, white, rough ice formed by small supercooled water drops freezing quickly.

60
Q

Mixed ICE

A

Clear and rime ice formed simultaneously.

61
Q

Hypoxic Hypoxia

A

insufficient supply of O2 to the body as a whole

62
Q

Hypemic Hypoxia

A

Inability of the blood to carry the O2 molecules

63
Q

Hystotoxic Hypoxia

A

Inability of the body cells to affectively use the O2 supplied by the blood

64
Q

Stagnant Hypoxia

A

Caused by the blood not flowing to a body tissue

65
Q

Oxygen requirements

A

12,500-14,000 - crew needs ox over 30 minutes
14,000 - Crew needs oxygen for the whole flight
15,000 - Passengers need oxygen the whole fight

66
Q

Acceleration Compass Errors

A

Accelerate
North
Decelerate
South

67
Q

Instrument Scan Errors

A

Ommision
Fixation
Emphasis

68
Q

Sqwak codes

A

7500 - Hijaking
7600 - Lost Comms
7700 - Emergency

69
Q

DECIDE Model

A 
Detect
Estimate
Choose
Identify
Do
Evaluate
70
Q

What reports must be made to ATC

A

M - Missed Approach
A - Altitude Changes VFR on top
T - True Airspeed change +/- 10 knots or 5%
H - Holding: time and altitude when entering or leaving the holding fix
C - Cannot maintain a 500fpm climb/descent
A - altitude and time when at holding fix or CLEARANCE LIMIT
L - Leaving an assigned altitude
L - Lost comm. nav, equipment
S - Safety of flight, including un-forecasted weather

71
Q

Position reports

A 
I-ID
P-Position
T-Time & Type of flight plan
A-Altitude
N-Name of next fix
E-ETA at that fix S-Supplemental Information
72
Q

STAR

A

Standard Terminal Arrival Route

73
Q

When do you need an instrument Rating

A
  • On an IFR flight plan
  • when carrying passengers at night or more than 50 miles
  • in class A airspace
  • Special VFR
  • In weather minimums less than VFR
74
Q

What do you need for an instrument rating

A
  • 40 hours of simulated instrument time, 15 of those need to be received from an instructor who holds an instrument rating
  • 3 hours of instrument training from an authorized instructor in a plane within 2 month of the practical test
  • an fir cross country of 250 miles or more
75
Q

Basic Med Limitaations

A

You can still fly in IMC, however you cannot carry more than 5 passengers, fly a plane of more than 6,000 pounds, fly a plane that is authorized for more than 6 people, fly above 18,000 feet or more than 250 miles an hour or for hire

76
Q

How can a pilot know if he or she is safe

A

Pilot- illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue.
Aircraft - airwort’hy, proficient in aircraft, performance capability.
enVironment - weather, terrain, airport.
External pressures - meetings, stress, passengers, desire to impress.

77
Q

Acceptable Weather Sources

A

Local weather services( apple weather)
Outlook breifing from FSS on the day of
Get a standard briefing from an FSS right before
Get an abbreviated briefing right before leaving
check forelight

78
Q

Low Pressure System

A

Bad weather, precipitation, clouds

79
Q

High Pressure System

A

Good weather, no clouds

80
Q

Cold Front

A

as the front passes = Towering cumulous, heavy rain, thunderstorms, poor visibility, gusting winds

81
Q

Warm Front

A

as the front passes = stratiform clouds, drizzle, low ceilings, rise in temp

82
Q

LIFR

A

Low IFR: ceilings less than 500ft and/or visibility less than 1 mile

83
Q

IFR

A

ceilings 500ft - 1000ft and/or visibility 1-3 miles

84
Q

MVFR

A

Marginal VFR: veiling 1,000ft -3000ft and/or visibility 3-5 miles

85
Q

VFR

A

Ceiling greater than 3,000 ft and visibility 5 miles sky clear

86
Q

Loss of equipment report

A
  • Any loss of VOR, TACAN, or low frequency navigation — receiver capabilities
  • GPS anomalies while using an IFR certified GPS
  • Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capabilities
  • Impairment of air/ground communication capabilities
  • loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair the safety or ability to operate under IFR
87
Q

IFR Clearance

A 
Clearence limit
Route
Altitude
Frequency
Transponder
88
Q

Obstacle Departure Procedure

A

(Obstacle departure Procedures): departure procedure used to depart from an airport with obstacle surrounding it. Must be at least 35ft above the end of the runway, climbing to 400ft above the departure end of the runway before making the initial turn, and climbing at a minimum of 200ft per nautical mile

89
Q

What are the different methods of checking a VOR

A
  • VOR test signal check: +- 4
  • Radio repair station test signal: +- 4
  • Vor ground checkpoint at departure airport: +-4
  • VOR airborne checkpoint +-6
  • Dual vor check maximum difference +-4
90
Q

Where is an altitude encoding transponder equipment required?

A
  • At or above 10,000ft
  • within 30 miles of Class B airspace primary airport
  • within and above all class C airspace
91
Q

What is DME

A

Distance measuring equipment. reliable up to 199nm line of sight.

92
Q

What is DME slant error

A

One miles from the facility for ever 1,000 feet up

93
Q

How many GPS do you need

A

3 sat - yields a latitude and longitude position only
4 sat - latitude, longitude, and altitude
5 sat - 3d and RAIM
6 sat - 3d and RAIM isolates corpus signals and removes from navigational signs

94
Q

What is WAAS

A

Wide Area Augmentation System. It is a satellite navigation system that enhances the standard GPS to be more accurate and precise. 38 different was stations send information to 3 master stations about GPS locations and account for any errors, these are then sent to 3 orbiting satellites that help for a more precise GPS system

95
Q

What is the difference between DME and GPS DME

A
  • DME is slant range distances, and GPS is the distance horizontally from an object
  • the difference is greater the higher up and the closer to the NAVAIDS
96
Q

What is BARO Aiding

A

Baro aiding used the planes Pitot Static System to determine altitude since the GPS altitude can have a lot of error in it

97
Q

What are the designated altitudes in the VOR airway system

A

-1,200 feet above the surface and below 18,000ft

98
Q

Lateral limits of VOR airways

A

4nm each side of centerline

99
Q

When can you descend to an IAP

A

Upon receiving an approach clearance you must remain on your last clearance altitude until established on a route or published IAP course

100
Q

When is a procedure turn not required

A

Straight in approach has been cleared by ATC
Holding pattern replaces the procedure turn
Arc - when flying a DME arc
Radar vectored to the final approach course
Procedure turn barb is absent in the plan view or a NOPT symbol is there
Timed approach - when conducting a timed approach from a hold
Teardrop procedure turn is depicted and a course reversal is required.

101
Q

Important ILS Components

A

Guidance information - localizer, glidscope
Range Information - DME
Visual information - approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights

102
Q

What is a no gyro approach

A

A no gyro approach is when you lose youre gyro instruments so you no longer have a heading indicator. the controller will tell you to start turning and keep turning until he tells you to stop. all turns should be standard rate until you are on final then half

103
Q

If no FAF is published when does the final approach segment begin

A

when the procedure turn intercepts the final approach course inbound

104
Q

What are the different types of GPS approaches

A

LNAV - lateral navigation only. minimums shows as MDA
LNAV/VNAV - lateral/vertical guidance. Requires baro-VNAV
LPV - Localizer performance with vertical Guidance.

105
Q

What is LPV

A

Localier performance with vertical guidance is a super of approach that uses WASS generated guidance to have vertical and lateral guidance.
LP acronym on approach charts indicate the minimums when using this tip of approach

106
Q

What does it mean when an approach is followed by a letter and not a number VOR-A

A

It means that straight in minimums are not published, only circle to land

107
Q

What is RAIM

A

Random Autonomous integrity Monatoring. basically makes sure that you are receiving a GPS signal

108
Q

When do you need to update your GPS for IFRq

A

28 days

Instrument (1 decks)

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