instrument missed questions Flashcards

0
Q

As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading accurate?

A

One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above facility.

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1
Q

What is expected of you as a pilot on IFR flight plan if descending or climbing in VFR conditions?

A

Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permit continuous visual scanning of the airspace around you.

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2
Q

What should the pilot suspect and what is the appropriate response after flying through icing: 1. Elevator control pulsing, oscillating or vibrating. 2. Abnormal nose down trim change. 3. Sudden nose down pitch when flaps lowered.

A

Suspect an icing induced tail plane stall. Correct by retracting flaps and apply nose up pressure. Use sufficient airspeed and power for no flap approach and landing.

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3
Q

What conditions are expected in area C of the chart?

A

Moderate turbulence at 32,000 feet MSL.

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4
Q

What are the operating hours of the Houston EFAS?

1200-0400Z (with cross symbol)

A

0600-2200

Houston is UTC -6(-5DT)

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5
Q

What is indicated by the localized course symbol at Jefferson County Airport?
(Shows an arrow symbol with one shaded side)

A

A published ILS localized course, which has an additional navigation function.

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6
Q

The avg height of the troposphere in the mid latitudes is…

A

37,000 feet

Varies with the seasons. Slopes from about 20k over the poles to 65k over the equator.

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7
Q

A pilots recent IFR experience expires on Jul 1st. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without needing an IPC?

A

Dec 31, this year

Six months

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8
Q

Which precip type indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?

A

Ice pellets.

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9
Q

How wide is an SDF course?

A

6 or 12 degrees

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10
Q

When the VOR portion of a VOR/DME is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of…

A

30 sec intervals on 1350Hz

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11
Q

What aircraft equipemnt code should be entered on the flight plan?
(Acft has. DME and xponder with mode C)

A

A

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12
Q

Where can the VOT freq for an arpt be found?

A

In the AFD and A/G Voice Comm Panel of the En Route Low Alt Chart

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13
Q

When making an instrument approach at the selected Alternate airport, what landing mins apply?

A

The landing mins for the type of procedure selected

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14
Q

To meet the experience requirements for IFR, a pilot enters sim instr time in the pilot logbook. What other info must be entered?

A

Location and type of each approach and the name of the safety pilot.

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15
Q

What are the reqs for a contact approach that has an IAP, if the pilot is IFR and clear of clouds?

A

Pilot must request approach, have 1 mi of vis, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.

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16
Q

As power increased to enter a 500fpm climb in s&l flight, what instruments are primary for pitch, bank and power?

A

Attitude Indicator, hdg ind, and tach or mp gauge

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17
Q

What types of airspace are depicted on En Route Low Altitude charts?

A

Limits of controlled airspace, MTRs and SUAS

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18
Q

What is primary bank instr when transitioning from s&l to std rate L turn?

A

Attitude indicator

19
Q

Operation in which airspace requires an IFR flight plan?
a. Class E with IMC and class A
B. any airspace when vis below 1mi
C. Positive control area, continental control area, and all other airspace if vis is less than 1 mi

A

A. Class E with IMC and class A

20
Q

A characteristic of the stratosphere is…

Relates to temp

A

Relatively small change in temp with increase in altitude

21
Q

For IFR on airways below 18,000ft, VOR navaids should be no more than…

A

80nm apart

22
Q

You are on glide slope and centered but airspeed is too high. What should be adjusted initially?

A

Power only

23
Q

Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan and clearance be used?

A

Encountering controlled airspace when IMC exists

24
Q

What relationship exists between winds at 2k agl and sfc winds?

A

Winds at 2k tend to parallel isobars while sfc winds cross isobars At an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker

25
Q

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even if a rule was not broken?

A

When priority has been given

26
Q

If an airplane is in an unusual attitude and the AI has exceeded it’s limits, which instruments should be relied on for pitch before recovery?

A

Airspeed and altimeter

27
Q

What causes northerly

Turning error in a mag compass?

A

Magnetic dip characteristic

28
Q

What is the max holding airspeed for turbojet aircraft above 14,000ft?

A

265 knots

200kias from MHA to 6000, 230kias from 6001 to 14000

29
Q

What weather combination results in cumiliform clouds, good vis, rain showers and possible clear icing in clouds?

A

Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting

30
Q

Steady precip, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of…

A

Stratiform clouds and little to no turbulence

31
Q

The body of a TAF covers an area within…

A

5sm radius from the center of an airport rwy complex

32
Q

When should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

A

When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later

33
Q

How can you determine, for an ILS with MALSR, that there may be a penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid obstacles?

A

The published vis is no lower than 3/4 SM

Vis above 3/4 SM may indicate at least one obstacle penetrates the 34:1 OIS

34
Q

What is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?

A

With a warm front, the most critical time is before the front passes the airport.
(For a cold front, the more hazardous wind shear occurs after the passage of the front)

35
Q

What is an indication for an on glide slope indication from a two bar vasi?

A

The near bar is white, the far bar is red.

36
Q

For climbs commanded by ATC more than 1000ft, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

A

As rapid as possible to 500ft above/below the assigned altitude, then 500fpm

37
Q

When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the…

A

360 radial

360 from or 180 to

38
Q

If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?

A

Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more, and lasting 1 min or more

39
Q

What facilitates, if any, may be substituted for an inop MM during an ILS approach without affecting the minimums?

A

Substitution not necessary, mins do not change

40
Q

What morse code identifier is used to identify a specific interim standard microwave landing system?

A

A three letter morse code identifier preceded by the morse code for the letter M

41
Q

Aircraft approach categories are based on…

A

1.3 times the stall speed in landing config at MGLW

42
Q

What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?

A

Precip begins to fall from the cloud base

43
Q

A “cruise four thousand feet” clearance means the pilot is authorized to…

A

Vacate 4,000 ft without notifying ATC

44
Q

What is the min navigation equipment required for IFR flight?

A

Nav equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used

45
Q

Thrust is managed to maintain airspeed and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics will be observed when a headwind shears to a constant tailwind.

A

Pitch: decrease
Thrust: increased, then reduced
VS: increases
IAS: decreases, then increases to approach speed

46
Q

What aero info sources, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g. Rwy closures, rwy lighting, snow conditions)?

A

AFD, D NOTAMs and L NOTAMs