Josh's Medicine Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the aetiological agents for cat flu syndrome? 4

A
Major = Feline calicivirus (85%), feline herpesvirus (10%);
Minor = Bordatella bronchiseptica, Chylamidophila felis.
Secondary = Mycoplasma, streptococci, reoviruses, cowpox.
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2
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of feline herpes virus. 4

A

Cat - (virus introduced) Acute infection - Chronic Damage
Acute infection can also - clinical recovery - true recovery
Clinical recovery can result in carrier status (80-90%) with a latent virus and reactivation leads to shedding and sometimes clinical signs.

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3
Q

What are the clinical signs of FHV? 3

A

Anorexia, pyrexia, depression, marked nasal and ocular discharges.
Ocular signs common - acute and chronic conjunctivitis and ulcerative keratitis.

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4
Q

What are the similarities and differences between FHV and FCV? 6

A

FHV - One serotype, highly virulent, labile (<1d), incubation 2-17dd, disease course 2-4wk.
Sneezing, oculo-nasal discharge, karatitis, chronic rhinitis. 90% Latent carriers, intermittent excretion.

FCV - Many serotypes, variable virulence, can survive upto 7d, incubation 2-10dd, disease course 1-2wk.
Sneezing, oculo-nasal discharge, stomatitis, gingivitis. less than 50% carriers, continual excretion.

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5
Q

How do you diagnose and treat Chlamydophila felis? 4

A

Conjunctival swab for PCR (1st), bacterial isolation (die in transit), serology.
Treatment - Tetracyclines for 4 weeks, treat all cats in the household, topical 1% chlortetracycline ointment may be useful. Clearance may not occur.

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6
Q

What are the clinical signs of Bordatella bronchiseptica in cats? 3

A

Sneexing, nasal discharge, coughing uncommon, submandibular LN enlargement, pyrexia, bronchopneumonia/sudden death in kittens.

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7
Q

Describe a general treatment protocol for cat flu. 5

A

TLC (warm and quiet), consider appetite stimulants, prophylactic antibiotics, decongestants. With severe stomatitis test for FeLV and FIV, Corneal ulcerswith acyclovir, oral L-lysine suggested for FHV.

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8
Q

When would you use a killed/inactivated vaccine in cats? 3

A

Pregnant cats, immuno-suppressed cats (FIV), closed colonies of large cats in close contact with each other.

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9
Q

Describe the clinical signs associated with the various forms of FPV (feline panleukopaenia). 3

A

Per-acute - Severe depression, subnormal temps and rapid death <24hrs
Acute - Pyrexia, anorexia, depression, and marked abdominal pain. Vomiting and diarrhoea develop 24-72hrs after initial signs and may be haemorrhagic.
Infection in utero - First trimester results in fetal death and resorption; middle third results in cerebellar hypoplasia.

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10
Q

Why can the FPV vaccine fail? 1

A

Kittens are protected in the first few weeks of life by maternally derived antibodies and this can extend up to 12 weeks.

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11
Q

What is the pathogenesis of FIP? 4

A

Ingestion - Replication in pharyngeal, respiratory or intestinal epithelium. Two options
1 - Strong CMI/low virulence - asymptomatic or mild diarrhoea, virus eliminated.
2 - Viraemia, mutation of FCov allowing target cell infection (macrophage):
i) Weak CMI - Effusive FIP - many blood vessels involved resulting in increased vascular permeability and leakage of protein rich exudates.
ii) Moderate CMI - Non-effusive FIP - Fewer blood vessels affected, discrete pyogranulomas form throughout the body.

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12
Q

What factors determine whether a cat exposed to FCoV develops FIP? 4

A

Strain (different strains have different virulence)
Dose (higher dose more likely get FIP)
Stress (history 3-6weeks before FIP development)
Genetic Susceptibility

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13
Q

What are the clinical signs with wet and dry FIP? 3

A

Wet - Ascites, pleural effusion (dyspnoea), BAR or dull, weight loss.
Dry - Weight loss and inappetence, ocular lesions (keratitis, uveitis, hypopyon), CNS signs (nystagmus, paresis, head tilt, seizures), hepatic, splenic or renal enlargement.

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14
Q

Describe the difficulties with diagnosing FIP. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the various tests? 8

A

Biochemistry - Hyperglobulinaemia, low albumin:globulin ratio (35g/l, Alb:glob <5000/ml (neuts and macrophges)
Serology for FCoV - INTERPRET WITH CARE - high prevalence or seropositivity in general cat population, esp multicat households. Suggested more are killed through misinterpretation of serology than by FIP.
RT-PCR - In blood not conclusive as other conditions can still have positive RT-PCR, negative result does not rule it out. Effusion likely to be FIP but not diagnostic.
Histopathology - Only certain way.

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15
Q

What are the possible outcomes following FeLV infection? 6

A

1) Transient infection then recovery - most cases, only 10-20% persistently viraemic if exposed >6mths
2) Persistent viraemia and development of FeLV-related disease - no recovery from infection - time course variable.
3) Latent infection - Virus not detected in blood but still in bone marrow, controlled by neutralising antibodies. Most eventually eliminate infection but stress/IMS can resstart.

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16
Q

What diseases are associated with FeLV? 6

A

Malignant Diseases:

1) Lymphomas - Mediastinal, Multicentric, Alimentary, Extra-nodal.
2) Leukaemias - Lymphoid, myeloid and erythroid.

Non-Malignant

1) Anaemia - non-regenrative (pure red cell aplasia, myelofibrosis, myelopthesis).
- regenerative (co-infection with Mycoplasma haemofelis, IMTP/IMHA)
2) Immunosuppression
3) Others (Uveitis, Infertility, Glomerulonephritis, neuro, polyarthrisis).

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17
Q

Describe the different tests used for diagnosing FeLV. 5

How should you interpret these tests? 5

A

ELISA - p27 antigen - possible false positives but easy to use.
RIM assays - p27 antigen - as ELISA
Virus Isolation - Serum - Gold standard 7-10dd
Immunofluorescence - FeLV antigen in neuts and platelets - Gold Standard - smear important
PCR - Mat be too sensitive.
After ELISA/RIM - re-test in 12 weeks as may be transient, confirm with VI or IFA, test 12 weeks after exposure to known positive cat, false negatives rare.

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18
Q

What are the pros and cons of pre-vaccination blood testing with FeLV? 6

A

Pros - Infected cats identified and potentially treated; Vaccinating cats that already have it will have no benefit; Identification of viraemia likely to reflect subclinical infection, not vaccine failure.

Cons - Costs more; Prevalence in healthy cat population is low; in house kits not 100%; vaccination unlikely to do any harm to FeLV positive cat anyway.

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19
Q

What is the pathogenesis of FIV? 5

A

Inoculation via bite wound leading to an initial viraemia. Viraemia subsides then variable time course and then get future depletion of T and B cells. Immunodeficiency and FIV-related diseases ensue.

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20
Q

What are the difficulties in diagnosing FIV? 4

What are the gold standard tests? 3

A

No clinical signs are pathognomic, 10-15% with FIV have no detectable antibody due to early infection, terminal immune collapse, lack of antibody, failure of test to detect antibody.
IFA or Western Blotting. PCR now possible.

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21
Q

How should you manage FIV positive cats? 4

A

Try to stop them spreading the disease, keep stress free and treat infections early and aggressively. Use killed vaccines and keep up to date. FIV status is not an indication for euthanasia.

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22
Q

Compare FIV and FeLV. 9

A

FeLV: Retrovirus; Young cats (<4); 20x increased risk of neoplasia; anaemia is common and severe; most eliminate the virus; diagnose by detecting viral antigen/whole virus; prevent with vaccine; 80% die in 3yrs.
FIV: Lentivirus; middle aged to older roamers; 5x increase in neoplaisa; usually mild anaemia in 15-20%; no recovery from infection; diagnose by detecting viral antibody; no vaccine; may live for years.

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23
Q

What are the three pathogens involved in FIA in the UK? 3

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis; Candidatus M haemominutum; Candidatus M turicensis.

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24
Q

Describe the pathogensis and epidemiology of FIA. 3

A

Pathogenesis - Cycles of parisatamia at regular intervals with 6 dd between episodes. PCV falls, oraganism cleared quickly, PCV rises over next few days.
Epidemiology - Spread by fleas? Most asymptomatic.

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25
Q

What are the mechanisms behind the anaemia? 4

A

Sequestration in the spleen; Anti-body mediated haemolysis; Erythrophagia by splenic macrophages; decreased RBC lifespan.

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26
Q

What are the four types of Mycobacterium infections in cats? 4

A

1) Tuberculosis mycobacterium
2) Feline Leprosy
3) Non-tuberculosis mycobacterium
4) Opportunistic mycobacterium

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27
Q

What are the factors that influence the severity of CPV-2 infections? 5

A

Maternally-derived antibodies are protective upto 18 weeks but can go in 8 weeks with some puppies.
Vaccination status; Stress factors; Presence of other enteric pathogens; Viral load.

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28
Q

What are the blood results with a PCV-2 infection? 2

A

Panleukopaenia, normal or reduced PCV (HGE - increased, helps to differentiate).

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29
Q

How do you treat parvo? 6

A

Aggressive IVFT and correct electrolytes.
Anti-emetics
Antibiotics
Analgesia
Recombinent interferon
Supportive nursing and nutritional support.

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30
Q

What are the clinical signs of classical canine distemper? 5

A

Conjunctivitis, Dry cough that can progress to a wet, productive cough (bronchopneumonia), mucopurulent ocular and nasal discharges develop, pyrexia (>40), anorexia. Gastroenteritis signs or opportunistics may follow respiratory signs.

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31
Q

What are the “chronic” signs of canine distemper? 3

A

Hyperkeratosis of the nose and footpads 3-6wks after infection.
Enamel hypoplasia can suggest previous CDV infection
Neurological signs - seizures, ataxia, paresis/paralysis - 1-3 weeks after recovery from systemic illness.

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32
Q

What are the serovars and which are vaccinated for in canine leptospirosis? 5

A

icterohaemmorhagica, canicola, grryptotyphosa, pomona, bratislava. Ictero and canicola vaccinated against.

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33
Q

What is the pathogenesis of leptospirosis? 3

A

Direct contact with urine, penetrates mucosal surfaces and damaged skin, replicate in bloodstream and spread to renal and hepatic tissue and replicate further.

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34
Q

How can you diagnose leptospirosis? 5

A

Historical clues, blood tests can show leucocytosis and thrombocytopaenia, increased liver enzymes, bile acids and bilirubin, increased urea/creatinine, coagulopathies (DIC).
Dark-field microscopy.
Serology - Microscopic agglutination test - 4x increase over 4 weeks.

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35
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with leptospirosis? 6

A

Peracute - Pyrexia, muscle pain, shock, DIC and death coagulation.

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36
Q

What should you do to treat and prevent leptospirosis? 6

A

Penicillin effective at terminating leptospiraemia.
Move on to doxycycline for two weeks after penacillin to remove carrier state.
Supportive - IVFT, anti-emetics; treat renal failure.
Prevention - Killed vaccines, protect disease but subclinical infection can still occur and other serovars present, duration of immunity can be less than a year as well.

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37
Q

What is the cause and what are the clinical signs of infectious canine hepatitis? 5

A

Lethargy, depression, anorexia, reluctance to move.
Abd pain, hepatomegaly and jaundice (40%).
Pale mucous membranes, occ petechial haemorrhages.
Corneal oedema blue eye approx 7dd post infection (20%).

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38
Q

How can you prevent canine infectious hepatitis? 2

A

Vaccinate with CAV-2 as CAV-1 associated with side-effects (blue-eye). CAV-2 cross protective.

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39
Q

What are the most prevalent infectious agents associated with canine infectious tracheobronchitis? 5

A

Bordatella bronchiseptica, Parainfluenza; Canine adenovirus 1 and 2; CDV; (CHV, reoviruses, mycoplasmas, canine influenza virus).

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40
Q

How do you treat kennel cough? 4

A

Tetracyclines, amoxyclav and fluroquinolones work against Bordatella. Cough suppressants (not conseidered helpful); Expectorants and mucolytics; Bronchodilators.

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41
Q

What is the life cycle of Angiostrongylus vasorum? 4

A

Infective L3 ingested from intermediate host; Larvae develop and migrate through the alimentary tract, abd LNs, venous system and right heart into the pulmonary artery. Mature and lay eggs that go to alveoli, L1 in capillaries, hatch and move to alveolus and out and coughed up and swallowed. L1 eaten by intermediate.

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42
Q

What are the main signs of European Heartworm? 3

A

Coughing (47%); Dyspnoea (42%); Haemorrhagic diatheses (29%); Collapse (22%); Exercise intolerance (20%); GI signs (20%); lethargy (18%).

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43
Q

How can you diagnoses Angiostrongylus vasorum infection? 5

A

L1 in faeces by Baermann sedimentation (intermittent excretion, 3 samples over 7 days)
L1 in BAL samples; FNA of lungs; Coagulation (Prolonged APTT and OSPT, elevated D-dimers and FDPs, occ decreased vWF) plus other non-specific findings such as anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, eosinophilia etc.

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44
Q

What is the pathogenesis of tetanus? 4

A

Spores of Clostridium tetani enter wounds, usually a penetrating wound. The spores germinate, toxins are released and travel in the bloodstream and then enter the peripheral nerves. Two exotoxins produced, bind to neuronal cell bodies of inhibitory interneurones, preventing GABA and glycine release reulting in spastic paralysis.

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45
Q

Describe the more common clinical signs of tetanus in the cat. 3

A

Increased stiffness of a muscle or entire limb in close proximity to affected site. Stiffness can spread to opposite extremity. Process eventually involves all of the CNS.

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46
Q

How do you treat tetanus? 4

A

1) Antitoxin - neutralise unbound or toxin yet to be formed. More effective if given intrathecally. Beware anaphylaxis.
2) Antibiotics - Kill vegetative bacteria in wound to prevent further toxin production. Penicillin G best.
3) Sedatives - Control excitability and spasticity.
4) Nursing - essential, beware aspiration pneumonia and pressure sores.

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47
Q

What are the clinical signs of Borrelia burgdoferi infection? 4

A

Experimentally infected dogs the clinical signs occurred in 2-5 months after tick exposure.
Systemic - Fever, lymphadenopathy, anorexia and general malaise.
Arthritis - Polyarthritis.

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48
Q

What are the clinical signs of the furious form and dumb form of rabies? 3,3

A

Furious - Hyperexcitability, pyrexia, pica and aggression.
Dumb - Timid, affectionate, dysphonia, drooling and dysphagia. (can still be aggressive)
Both result in paralysis and death.

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49
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of leishmaniasis.

A

Non-flagellated forms multiply in cells of mononuclear phagocyte system and infected macrophages are transferred to mouthparts of sandfly. In vector, parasite multiplies and develops into flagellated form, transferred back to skin or bloodstream which are phagocytosed by macrophages, revert to previous form and multiply and invade local tissues.

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50
Q

What are the clinical signs of leishmaniasis? 6

A

Waxing and waning; lethargy, anorexia and pyrexia.
Dermatological changes such as exfoliative dermatitis, hyperkeratosis of the footpads, excessive claw growth, periorbital alopecia.
Spread to visceral organs results in visceral leishmaniasis
Generalised mild lymphadenopathy, Splenomegaly, pallor, panophthalamitis, immune-mediated nephropathy.

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51
Q

How do you diagnose and treat Leishmaniasis? 6

A

Diagnosis: 1) Demonstrate parasite in impression smears; 2) Serology; 3) PCR testing; 4) Clinicopathological - sigf hyperglobulinaemia, leucocytosis, thrombocytopaenia, non-regen anaemia, severe proteinuria.
Treatment - Cure unlikely and can only suppress clinical signs - It is zoonotic so consider euthanasia.

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52
Q

What are the signs associated with acute and chronic forms of babesiosis? 3,3

A

Acute - Haemolytic anaemia, icterus, haematuria, hepatoslenomegaly, collapse, shock DIC and death.
Chronic - Pyrexia, weight loss, atypical signs such as joint pain, swellings and GI signs.

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53
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with monocytic ehrlichiosis (E.canis) and granulocytic ehrlichiosis (A. phagocytophilum)? 3,3

A

Monocytic - Depressin, weight loss, bleeding tendencies, ophthalmic signs, neuro signs, hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy, bone marrow suppression, hyperglubulinaemia.
Granulocytic - Fever, depression, anorexia, reluctance to move, lameness of one or more limb, joint swelling, limb oedema, meningitis.

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54
Q

Describe the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis and the diseases it causes. 3,4

A

Adult worms in pulmonary artery, microfilaria in blood, ingested by mosquito, larvae develop, incubated in dog.
Disease - Pulmonary end-arteritis, eosinophilic peumonia, pulmonary hypertension and RSHF.

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55
Q

How do you treat Dirofilaria immitis? 4

A

Manage consequences of infestation
Adulticide therapy (preds maybe should be given prior)
Microfilaricide treatment - Milbemycin three to four weeks later.
Prophylaxis - Monthly milbemycin and ivermectin one month before exposure.

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56
Q

What fungi affect dogs and cats? 4

A

Aspergillus and penicillium in dogs.

Cryptoccoccus neoformans or maduromycosis in cats.

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57
Q

How can you diagnose fungal rhinitis? 4

A

1) Fungal organism is not always present in material taken for culture for positive cases and may be in 40% clinically normal dogs.
2) Serological agar gel double diffusion test and ELISA tests are of value.
3) Radiological signs - Loss of trabecular pattern due to turbinate destruction, especially rostral portion leading to radiolucency. Mixed pattern or truncate lucencies.
4) Endoscopy, maybe with biopsies.

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58
Q

What intranasal tumours are seen in the cat and dog? 4

A

Dogs - adenocarcinoma most common, fibrosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma and SCC seen.
Cats - Lymphosarcoma most commonl, but others seen.

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59
Q

What adventitious sounds are present in respiratory disease? 4

A

Crackles - intermittent, non-musical explosive sounds.
Wheezes - continuous musical or whistling sounds.
Pleural friction rub - Combination of continuous and discontinuous sounds produced by inflamed pleura rubbing together.
Silent lung - Pneumothorax, pleural effusion, diaphragmatic hernia, SOL, consolidated lung, obesity, shallow breathing.

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60
Q

What are the differential diagnoses with acute coughing? 3

A

Infectious tracheobronchitis; Airway irritation; Bronchopneumonia; Allergic lung disease; Inhaled FB; Pulmonary oedema/haemorrhage; Airway trauma.

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61
Q

Explain some causes of bronchopneumonia. 5

A

Infectious - Secondary to kennel cough, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, ciliary dyskenesia; FB inhalation; 1’ neoplaisa; immunocompromised.
Aspiration - Secondary to megaoesophagus, swallowing disorders or laryngeal paralysis, aspiration of liquid paraffin; smoke or allergen inhalation; broncho-oesophageal fistula; chronic rhinitis.

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62
Q

How do you treat bronchpneumonia? 9

A

1) Ensure patient airway
2) Oxygen therapy if in severe distress
3) Keep environment warm and moist - do not stress
4) IVFT, nebulisation, do not over-hydrate.
5) Antibiotics - early high dosages.
6) Bronchodilators if bronchospasm
7) Expectorants may help
8) Physiotherapy - coupage and mild exercise
9) Surgery if limited to one lobe.

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63
Q

What are the causes for chronic or persistent coughing? 5

A

Chronic bronchitis; Bronchopneumonia; Allergic lung disease; Bronchiectasis; LSHF; Oslerus osleri; Auerulostrongylus abstrusus; Angiostrongylus vasorum; FB; 1’ or 2’ neoplasia; 1’ abscess/granuloma; Airway pressure; Tracheal collapse.

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64
Q

Describe the aetiology of chronic bronchitis. 4

A

Associated with excessive mucous production, hyperplasia and infiltration of the bronchial mucosa, loss of cliliated epithelial cells and failure of mucociliary carpet. Associated with 1’ ciliary dyskenesia in young dogs.

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65
Q

What is the aetiology of feline asthma and how do you treat it? 8

A

Thought to be allergic but putative agents unknown, smoke, aerosol sprays, feathers and cat litter maybe?
Sudden onset paroxysmal dry coughing, dyspnoea and wheezing, often with marked expiratory dyspnoea and end-expiratory effort.
Treatment - Control obesity, control 2’ bacterial infection, GCC therapy may be dramatic; bronchdilators; nebulisation; supplemental oxygen in severe attack.

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66
Q

What is PIE? 2

A

Pulmonary Infiltrate with Eosinophils. Coughing primary complaint, tachypnoea and dyspnoea may be seen. Intersitial or alveolar infiltration.

67
Q

Describe the aetiology of bronchiectasis. 3

A

Chronic irreversible, saccular, cylindrical, cystic or varicose dilatations and constrictions of bronci and bronchioles which may contain large quantities of bronchial secretions.
Usually secondary to destructive inflammatory disease.

68
Q

What are the causes for a reduction of the thoracic cavity? 4

A

Pleural effusions - Hydrothorax, haemothorax, chylothorax, pyothorax, neoplastic, inflammatory.
Pneumothorax; Diaphragmatic hernia/rupture; Cardiac enlargement; Intrathoracic masses; Abdominal masses/fluid.

69
Q

What possible pleural effusions are there? 5

A

Transudate - Hypoproteinaemia
Modified transudate - Congestive cardiac failure, neoplaisa, lung lobe torsion, diaphragmatic rupture
Haemothorax - Trauma, coagulopathies
Chylothorax - Trauma, neoplasia, idiopathic
Pyothorax - Nocardia, bacteroides, tuberculosis
Inflammatory - FIP

70
Q

How should you manage a pyothorax? 4

A

Tube thoracostomy and antibiotic therapy with intermittent aspiration or continuous discharge.
Thoracic lavage helpful and intra pleural antibiotics at half systemic dosages.
Continue abts for 1-3 months following removal of tube.
Surgery as a last resort.

71
Q

What is the aetiology of a chylothorax? 5

A

Neoplasia, traumatic, CHF, Infectious, Lung lobe torsion, spontaneous.

72
Q

What are the causes of a loss of pulmonary exchange capacity? 4

A

Bronchopneumonia, pulmonary oedema, pulmonary haemorrhage/contusion, metastatic neoplasia, Pulmonary thrombosis, paraquat posioning, pulmonary emphysema.

73
Q

What can cause airway obstruction? 4

A

Nasal cavity - Stenotic nares, FB, chronic rhinitis, aspergillosis, intra-nasal neoplasia
Pharynx/larynx - Soft palate obstruction, laryngeal paralysis, laryngeal oedema/collapse.
Trachea - Collpase, hypoplastic, haemorrhage, Oslerus osleri, FB

74
Q

Describe the differences between pharyngeal retching, regurgitation and true vomiting. 6

A

Pharyngeal retching: Food and saliva brought back immediately, difficulty (maybe pain) ad distress on attempted swallowing. Repeated unsuccessful attempts at swallowing. Aspiration common
Regurgitation: More passive than vomiting, lowers head with no abdominal effort. No reflex. Can be soon after feeding or delayed several hours. Aspiration common.
True vomiting: Active reflex involving reflex and muscular contractions, usually preceded by nausea, forceful ejection. Aspiration unusual.

75
Q

What are the differentials for pharyngeal retching? 6

A

Oropharyngeal trauma, foreign body, inflammation, mass.
Salivary mucocoele, polyp, abscess.
Neurological and muscular problems:
Masticatory myositis, cranial nerve deficits (V, VII, IX), pharyngeal dysphagia.
Botulism, rabies, myasthenia gravis, cricopharyngeal achalasia, idiopathic hypersialosis.

76
Q

What are the differentials for regurgitation? 5

A

Oesophageal FB, Megaoesophagus, VRA, Gastroesophageal reflux, oesophagitis, stricture, hiatal hernia, oesophageal diverticulum, oesophageal and peri-oesophageal masses, gastroesophageal intussusception.

77
Q

What are the causes for acquired megaoesophagus? 3

A

Idiopathic; Myasthenia gravis; feline dysautonomia; labrador retriever myopathy; myositis; toxicity; brainstem disease; some peripheral neuropathies; Addison’s

78
Q

How can you diagnose megaoesophagus? 4

A

Chronic history of passive regurgitation
Aspiration pneumonia signs, concurrent oesophagitis can be present resulting in more discomfort.
Radiographs show dilated oesophagus, dorsal tracheal stripe sign, maybe tracheal depression.
Contrast XRs only if not seen on plain.
Oesophagoscopy best avoided unless underlying cause suspected.

79
Q

Describe the aetiology of VRAs? 3

A

.Number of possible VRAs, due to defects in normal development of arteries from the 6 pairs of fetal aortic arches.
Only clinical problem if constricts over the base of the heart.
95% reported cases causing problems are persistent right aortic arch resulting in oesophageal constriction as ligamentum arteriosum crosses to left sided main pulmonary artery.

80
Q

What are the causes of gastrooesophageal reflux? 3

A

Temporary or permanent gastroesophageal sphincter incompetence. Results in oesophagitis.
Causes - Chronic vomiting, post GA, hiatal hernias, gastric motility disorders, masses - overnight in sleep and early morning salivation and regurgitation.

81
Q

How do you treat:

a) Reflux 2; b) Oesophagitis 3; c) Stricture 3

A

a) Mild - sucralfate only and low fat diet; More severe: acid secretory inhibitors and prokinetics.
b) Early and aggressive essential to prevent aspiration. Mucosal protectants, acid secretory inhibitors, increase GOS tone (metaclopramide). Feed little and often with gruel.
c) Treat oesophagitis first if possible. Stretch with bougies or balloon catheter, often need multiple procedures. Ruptures following this have a poor prognosis. Preds after dilation for anti-inflam effects to prevent re-stenosis. Little and often high energy gruel.

82
Q

What are the different oesophageal diverticulum divided into? 3

A

Congenital - Bulldogs and Shar Peis - cranial thoracic loop normally.
Acquired - Pulsion (false), Outpouching of mucosa through tear in muscularis, presumed to be with pressure. Usually just prox to diaphragm.
Acquired - Traction (true), All layers of oesophageal wall, due to traction from an external, adhesed fibrous band secondary to inflammation outside the oesophagus.

83
Q

Describe the vomiting reflex. 3

What are the two pathways? 2

A

Reflex: 1) Nausea - increased salivation and swallowing and maybe tachycardia. Antiperistalsis of duodenum and jejunum and reduction in gastric tone.
2) Retching - Spasm of diaphragm, ICS muscles and abd muscles to overcome distal oesophageal sphincter pressure.
3) Vomiting - Distal oesophageal sphincter relaxes, food pushed out.
Two pathways - Neural pathway - X, sympathetic, IX, VIII, CRTZ.
Humoral - Stimulation of CRTZ by blood-borne substances. Outside BBB.

84
Q

What is the most important nervous input for normal gastric motility? 1

A

Vagal.

85
Q

What are the differentials for acute vomiting? 8

A

1) Central disorders: Stimulation of CRTZ; stimulation of CRTZ by CNS diseases (neoplasia, inflam, increased pressure, epilepsy); vestibular input to vomiting centre (cats) or CRTZ (dogs); stimulation by higher centres (fear, stress, pain)
2) Gastric (mayber intestinal) disease: Acute gastritis; Toxins; Infections; FB; GDV; Motility disorders; SI/LI FB, obstruction, volvulus, intussusception, inflam; HGE.
3) Extra-intestinal abdominal disease: Acute pancreatitis; acute hepatitis; acute renal disease, obstruction, uraemia; Pyometritis, peritonitis.
4) Metabolic/Endocrine disease: Addison’s; hypokalaemia; hypercalcaemia; diabetic ketoacidosis; hyperthyroidism (cats).

86
Q

What are the differentials for chronic vomiting? 8

A

1) Central disorders (chronic of acute ones)
2) Extra-gastric disease and metabolic/endocrine - chronic versions of acute.
3) Gastric disease: Chronic or intermittent scavenging, chronic gastritis; gastric ulceration; Chronic pyloric obstruction (FB, stenosis); Gastric motility disorder (pylorospasm, delayed emptying, gastroduodenal reflux); Gastric neoplasia.

87
Q

Describe 4 types of chronic gastritis. 4

A

Lymphocytic-plasmacytic - systemically well and no ulceration normally.
Eosinophilic - Systemically ill with ulceration normally.
Atrophic - Systemic well and no uceration normally.
Hypertrophic - Systemically ill with ulceration normally.

88
Q

How do you treat chronic gastritis? 4

A

1) Diet - starvation not appropriate, home-made novel protein source diet if inflam infiltrate and little and often.
2) Gastric acid secretory inhibitors indicated in all cases, obv ulceration sucralfate as well.
3) Effective endoparasite control, esp if eosinophilic.
4) Consider promotility drugs to encourage normal motility and reduce duodenal reflux.
5) Consider antibiotics for SIBO.
6) Surgery if hypertrophy with acquired pyloric stenosis.
7) If above not successful, add in preds at an anti-inflam dose for lymphocytic-plasmacytic and immunosuppressive for eosinophilic.

89
Q

What are the causes of gastric ulceration? 5

A

1) NSAIDs - Direct mucosal injury (ion trapping); Inhibit PG synthesis so reduce gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion, increase acid secretion. Some newer NSAIDs also anti angiogenic.
2) Steroids - Rarely on own - reduce mucosal renewal; Reduce PG synthesis.
3) Uraemia/Renal failure - Ammonia toxic to gastric mucosa; Reduces gastrin metabolism; reduces gastric blood flow.
4) Liver disease - Portal hypertension causes ischaemia; reduced epithelial cell turnover; reduced mucus.

90
Q

How can you treat gastic ulceration? 4

A

Treat underlying disease
Aggressive - Gastric acid secretion inhibitors, sucralfate, little and often low fat, low fibre, high quality protein, semi-liquid diet.
May also sometimes use: Antacids, synthetic prostaglandins, metoclopramide.

91
Q

What are the causes of pyloric outflow obstruction? 4

A

1) Gastric FB
2) Congenital pyloric stenosis - boxers, boston terriers.
3) Acquired pyloric stenosis - External compression, gastric lesion, acquired antral pyloric mucosal hypertropy in middle aged to old small breeds (rare).
4) Gastroduodenal intussusception (v v rare, one case reported)

92
Q

What can cause gastric motility disorders? 4

A

1) Mechanical obstruction - stenosis or FB
2) Functional obstruction - Result in abnormalities of gastric myenteric nerve or smooth muscle function and/or of co-ordination between stomach, pylorus and duodenum. Causes - Infection, inflam, ulcers, recovery from GDV, or metabolic/electrolyte abnormalities, iatrogenic.
3) Gastroduodenal reflux - bilious vomiting syndrome - often nervous dogs, prolonged contact of bile and gastric mucosa causing mucosal damage and focal antral gastritis.
4) GDV

93
Q

What are the different types of diarrhoea? 8

A

1) Osmotic - Commenest, increase in unabsorbed solutes causing an increase in faelca water. Stops when food withheld, no blood or PLE. (Dietary indiscretion/overload, laxative, gastric dumping, maldigestion/malabsorption)
2) Secretory - Increased secretion of fluids and ions (in crypts) or reduced absorption (villi), continues when food withheld, no blood or PLE. (Bacterial enterotoxins, viral damage to villous tips, undigested hydroxy fatty acids and bile salts. some laxatives, cardiac glycosides, some infiltrative diseases, hyperthyroidism in cats).
3) Permeability - Increased permeability of epithelial cells and tight junctions, improves with food withdrawal, if severe causes PLE and melaena. (Increased mucosal blood pressure, neoplasia, gluten enteropathy, infections, toxins).
4) Motility - Decreasing (or increasing) intestinal transit time, reduced rhythmical segmentation normally, tends not to be associated with PLE or melaena. (2’ to many inflam and parasitic diseases, feline and canine dysautonomia, IBS, hyperthyroidism cats).

94
Q

Which of the normal gut motility mechanisms do most motility disorders affect? 1

A

Rhythmic segmentation.

95
Q

Describe the causes of transient diarrhoea. 5

A

1) Dietary change, indiscretion, overfeeding - kittens esp
2) Dietary intolerance/allergy - lactose intolerance
3) Infections - CPV, CDV, feline panleucopaenia, canine and feline corona, FeLV and FIV associated enteritits, salmonella, campylobacter, clostridia, E. coli?, crypto, giardia etc.
4) HGE
5) Functional/neurotic

96
Q

How should/can you treat transient diarrhoea? 8

A

1) Fluids most important
2) Consider starving 24-48 hours, then re-introduce bland, digestible food little and often, novel protein for allergy development, oral rehydration compunds.
3) Check effective endoparasite control.
4) Antidiarrhoels and absorbants - limited usefulness, CONTRAINDICATED if infectious cause.
5) Antibiotics - avoid unless specific indicator, indicated in acute HGE and parvo-viral enteritis where significant mortality with gram negative septicaemia.

97
Q

Which bacteria are most prevalent as a cause of diarrhoea? 4

A

1) Campylobacter jejuni - especially kennelled dogs - more likely to cause disease in young dogs and significant association with stress, over-crowding and other concurrent infections. Usually self-limiting.
2) Salmonella - usually S. enteritidis serotype typhimurium, both cats and dogs. Usually young, stressed or diseased animals. Especially raw meat diet.
Others - Clostridium perfringens, can be pathogenic, uncertain how much. Diagnose by finding enterotoxin in faeces.
- E. coli - may need to serotype to see how important it is.

98
Q

What protozoal causes of diarrhoea are there? 3

A

1) Giardia - usually SI diarrhoea, epithelial damage, loss of brush border enzymes and 2’ SIBO. Zoonotic.
2) Tritrichomonas Foetus - 14% cats, usually young (<1yo) pedigrees and multi cat households.
3) Coccidia - isospora and cryptosoridium - Signs if high load or young/immunosuppressed.

99
Q

How does HGE come about and how should you treat it? 4

A

Unknown aetiology, usually 2-4 yrs small breeds, no obvious trigger. Disease due to sudden, marked increase in intestinal permeability with loss of plasma proteins and blood into bowel lumen. 2’ clostridial and endotoxaemia.
Treatment is NPO and IVFT at shock rates for 30 mins and electrolytes (esp K+) and broad spectrum antibiotics. Then reintroduction of low fat, easily digestible food with novel protein source. Prognosis good.

100
Q

What are the differences between small and large intestinal diarrhoea? 6

A

SI - Vomiting common, weight loss common, polydipsia common. Increased or reduced appetite. Watery/bulky faeces, faecal volume increased, 1-3x daily; faecal fat and starch may be present.
Tenesmus not present, urgency not present, mucus not present, blood present - melaena, minimal flatulance.

LI - Sometimes vomit (30%), usually no weight loss, no polydipsia, appetite normal, faecal type varies, volume normal or increased, defaecate >6x day, no faecal fat.
Tenesmus often present, urgency often present, mucus often present, if blood it is fresh, flatulence common.

101
Q

What are the differentials for chronic SI diarrhoea? 7

A

.1) Dietary - Chronic or intermittent scavenging; Chronic dietary intolerance (lactose, gluten, others).

2) Chronic infections - Salmonella, Campylobacter, Trichuris, Giardia esp.
3) SI disease - IBD; SIBO; ARD; neoplasia; partial obstruction; lymphangectasia; increased permeability due to portal congestion; rare brush border deficits; short bowel syndrome.
4) Pancreatic disease - EPI, chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic adenocarcinoma.
5) Liver disease - portal congestion and maybe lack of bile salts.
6) Renal disease - due to uraemia and maybe hypoalbuminaemia/oedema of nephrotic syndrome.
7) Endocrine disease - HAC dogs, hyperthyroidism cats.
8) Misc. toxaemias - pyometra, drugs.

102
Q

What initial investigations should you perform for chronic SI diarrhoea? 6

A

1) Faeces sample - Gross inspection, occult blood test, C & S, flotation and/or ELISA for Giardia.
2) Routine blood tests - Haem and biochem, amylase and lipase for acute pancreatitis dogs, plasma proteins, urinalysis if indicated.
3) Vitamin B12, folate and trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI):
TLI - low indicates EPI, very high pancreatitis cats and dogs.
Folate - absorbed jejunum, reduced in jejunal disease causing malabsorption. Increased in some SIBO cases but controversial.
B12 - Absorbed ileum - Reduced in SIBO as bacteria bind it, also EPI, partly due to SIBO and partly due to decreased intrinsic factor.

103
Q

What are the possible aetiologies for SIBO? 5

A

Commonest form is 1’ in young, large breed dogs esp GSDs - probably as a result of aberrant host immune response. Steroids can worsen it.
Deranged SI/gastric motility (gastric dumping, SI ileus).
Increase in unabsorbed nutrients (IBD, EPI).
Reflux of bacteria from colon if ileocaecocolic valve has been surgically removed.

104
Q

Why does SIBO/ARD result in clinical signs? 4

A

Bacterial deconjugation of bile salts reducing fat emulsification so digestion. Deconjugated bile salts cause colonic irritation and secretory diarrhoea.
Bacterial breakdown of fat to hydroxy fatty acids which also causes secretory diarrhoea in colon.
Inteference with brush border enzymes and enterocyte function.
Potential for certain bacterial antigens to cause aberrant immune responses/IBD.

105
Q

Describe the aetiology of IBD. 3

A

Poorly understood - likely multifactorial representing interaction between host gut immunity, luminal bacterial antigens, parasites and food allergy. Probably genetic inherent susceptibility..

106
Q

How is IBD defined? 5

A

Chronic (>3wk) persistent or recurrent GI signs.
Histopathological evidence of mucosal inflammation.
Inability to document other cause of inflammation.
Inadequate response to dietary, antibiotic and anthelmintic therapies alone.
Clinical response to anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressive agents.

107
Q

What types of IBD are there? 2

A

Lymphocytic-plasmacytic enteritis - most common. Can be 2’ to other conditions. Severe - PLE.
Eosinophilic enteritis - Usually more severe - need to rule out intestinal parasitism.

108
Q

How do you treat IBD? 3

A

1) Hypoallergenic diet.
2) Antibiotics appropriate to ARD.
3) May give giardia dose of panacur to be sure.
4) Above do not work - anti-inflam dose of steroids for LP, immunosuppressive for eosinophilic.
5) Predominately large bowel can use sulphasalazine in dogs, cats still steroids.
6) Alt immunosuppresives and anti-inflams limited usefulness in dogs, chlorambucil in cats.

109
Q

What are the commonest causes of PLE? 3

A

Commonest: Eosinophilic or severe LP enteritis; Intestinal lymphosarcoma; Lymphangiectasia.

110
Q

Describe lymphangiectasia in dogs. 4

A

.Acquired show blockage, dilation, leakage and rupture of lymphatics with surrounding granulomatous inflammation but underlying cause unknown.
Results in loss of lymph into the gut (fat, protein and lymphocytes) so low TP, lymphopenia and hypocholesteraemia.
Weight loss, ascites/pleural effusion/ oedema, diarrhoea variable.
Little and often fat, high quality protein diet. May need to add medium chain triglycerides whcih are absorbed directly into capillaries - coconut oil, 1/4-4tsps in divided doses. Anti-inflam steroids can help.

111
Q

What does soluble and insoluble fibre do in the colon? 4

A

Soluble - Fermented to butyrate which provides 50% energy to colonocytes. Important for colonic health.

         - Fermented to SCFAs which lower colonic pH favouring beneficial bacteria and reducing ammonia absorption.
         - Binds water which renders faeces more solid.
         - Binds bile acids so reduce enterohepatic circulation but also reduce colonic mucosal irritation.

Insoluble - Stretches colon and encourages normal motility in both constipation and diarrhoea.

112
Q

What are the contra-indications for high fibre diets? 3

A

SI diarrhoea as impair nutrient absorption and brush border enzyme activity.
Pancreatic disease as interfere with pancreatic enzyme function and stretch stomach so increase pancreatic enzyme release.
Gastritis as delays gastric emptying.
Need lots of fluids or causes constipation.
Bind minerals so beware deficiencies.

113
Q

List the differential diagnoses for chronic colitis. 8

A

Dietary indiscretion/abrasion.
Chronic inflammatory colitis - LP, eosinophilic, granulomatous, histiocytic.
Infections - campylobacter, salmonella, clostridia, E. coli, giardia, trichuris.
Uraemic colitis.
2’ to SI fat maldigestion/malabsorption.
2’ to local irritation - peritonitis, extra-colonic mass
Colonic neoplasia or polyps
Colonic motility disorder (IBS)

114
Q

Define tenesmus, constipation and obstipation. 3

A

Tenesmus - Painful or ineffectual straining during urination or defaecation.
Constipation - Infrequent or difficulty evacuation of faeces.
Obstipation - Intractable constipation refractory to cure or control.

115
Q

What are the differentials for constipation? 5

A

Dietary - bones, hairs, FBs
Behavioural - change of environment, dirty litter tray.
Painful defaecation - anorectal disease, trauma
Mechanical obstruction - extraluminal or intraluminal
Neurological disease
Muscle disease?? Idiopathic feline megacolon??
Metabolic/endocrine - hypercalcaemia, hypokalaemia, poss hypothyroidism, dehydration.
Drug-induced - anticholinergics, antihistamines, opioides, diuretics.

116
Q

Describe the aetiology of feline megacolon. 4

A

Dilated - diffuse colonic dilation and hypomotility with permanent loss of function - usually idiopathic.
Hypertrophic - colonic dilation and hypermotility as a result of obstruction. Initially reversible.
2’ to chronic constipation in 40% cases of cats - needs to be severe, recurrent amd chronic obstipation.
Most commonly constipated due to behavioural and dietary causes, dehydration, RTAs causing pelvic fracture and/or neuro disease.

117
Q

How do you treat feline constipation? 5

A

Ensure well hydrated and add dietary fibre.
Treat underlying cause if possible (pelvic osteotomy if malunion #)
Laxatives - most useful probs lubricant laxatives.
Enemas if necessary.
Cisapride in early stages of feline idiopathic megacolon but now withdrawn - ranitidine and misoprostol??

118
Q

What diseases result in secondary hepatopathies? 8

A

.RSHF; Hypoxia (IMHA, shock); GCC, esp in dogs, ALP marked increase, mild ALT, AST and bile acids.
Diabetes mellitus; hyperlipidaemia; hyperthyroidism (cats),.
Non-hepatic inflammatory disease: Toxaemia, sepsis, GI disease, pancreatitis.
Drug induced - phenobarbitone

119
Q

What are the clinical signs for chronic liver disease? 4

A

Dogs: Vomiting and/or diarrhoea and occ haematemesis and malaena.
Inappetance; Weight loss; PUPD and poorly conc urine.
Ascites; Jaundice; Hepatic encephalopathy (acq shunting)
Bleeding diathesis - uncommon but very serious.

Cats: Anorexia, weight loss, lethargy, vomiting, pyrexia, abd pain, jaundice uncommon, palpable hepatomegaly (50% only), ascites uncommon.

120
Q

List the potential causes of acute hepatocellular necrosis in dogs and cats. 10

A

Acute massive hepatocyte necrosis:
Toxic/drug induced - Paracetamol (esp cats), carprofen (esp labs), diazepam in cats, mebendazole (dogs), mercury.
Infectious - CAV-1, neonatal CHV, bacterial
Endotaxaemia; Thermal (heat stroke); Metabolic (acute hepatic necrosis in young Bedlingtons with copper storage disease.

Acute hepatic necrosis: mild to moderate, focal:
Milder forms of toxic and drug-induced necrosis
Hypoxia - cardioresp disease, severe anaemia.
Cholestasis; Septicaemia (focal and diffuse); Pancreatitis; IBD.
Infectious - FIP, salmonella, lepto, clostridia, ehrlichia, toxoplasma, disseminated aspergillosis.

Acute loss of hepatocyte function with minimal necrosis:
Hepatic lipidosis in cats, diffuse tumour infiltrate (lymphoma).

121
Q

How do you support an animal through acute hepatitis? 8

A

Specific treatment if cause known.
NPO 1-3 days then exclusion diet on dietary protein or soy protein, additional anti-oxidant support during recovery may be helpful.
IVFT very carefully - dextrose saline often best but often hypokalaemic as well. Measure blood glucose often. Do not over infuse. Strict asepsis around all catheters due to increased susceptibility to infections.
Treat coagulopathy as necessary.
Treat acute HE.
Treat any GI ulceration.
Treat ascites if it occurs with spironolactone and/or additional furosemide.
Antibiotics - consider in all cases and reduced immunity.

122
Q

Compare liver disease between cats and dogs. 5

A

Concurrent biliary tract disease, pancreatitis and IBD possible in either species but more likely in the cat due to anatomy.
Cats more susceptible to toxic liver damage than dogs and more sensitive to many potentially hepatotoxic drugs due to relative deficiency of glucuranyl transferase.
Steroids or HAC result in increased ALP in dogs, but not cats. Mild raise in ALP in cats significant.
Cats rapidly develop protein-calorie malnutrition if on protein restricted diet. Arginine deficiency contributes to hyperammonaemia in cats. Taurine, arginine and protein deficiency can contribute to pathogenesis of hepatic lipidosis in cats.
1’ hepatic lipidosis major cause of liver disease in cats, 2’ hepatic lipidosis can happen in dogs or cats but more significant in the cat.

123
Q

What are the causes of chronic liver disease in cats? 6

A

Chronic lymphocytic cholangitis.
Hepatic lipidosis - 1’ or 2’.
Infections - esp FIP associated hepatitis, occ toxo.
Vascular disorders - congenital PSS and others.
Neoplasia - 1’ and 2’ esp lymphosarcoma
Amyloidosis - usually multi-organ inc renal involvement.

124
Q

What is the pathogenesis of 1’ hepatic lipidosis? 3

A

Poorly understood:
Excessive lipid mobilisation, esp during anorexia, illness or stress.
Deficiency of dietary proteins and other nutrients results in reduced hepatic production of lipid transport proteins and reduced hepatic mobilisation of fat. (esp arginine, taurine and methionine and carnitine)

125
Q

What causes 2’ hepatic lipidosis? 4

A

DM; pancreatitis; IBD; 1’ hyperlipidaemia.

126
Q

How do you treat hepatic lipidosis? 5

A

Relies on intensive feeding:
Treat any underlying cause ASAP.
Combine with nutritional support such as oesophagostomy tube, maybe up to 6 weeks - high protein especially needed.
Anti-emetics and promotility agents.
IVFT early on - monitor blood glucose and also electrolytes.
Parenteral vitamin K may be needed if there is a coagulopathy.

127
Q

What are the causes of suppurative cholangitis? 3

A

Ascending infection from SI - most common is E. coli; Streptococcus spp, Clostridium spp and even salmonella may be involved.

128
Q

What are the causes of chronic liver disease in dogs? 8

A

Chronic hepatitis - most common
True copper storage disease.
Congenital or early developmental disease (PSS, protal vein hypoplasia, lobular dissecting hepatitis in poodles)
Non-cirrhotic portal hypertension in GSDs and other breeds.
Chronic cholangitis - less common than in cats.
Chronic progression of acute hepatopathy.
Chronic viral and bacterial infections.
Chronic fungal infections.
Neoplaisa - 1’ and 2’, esp lymphoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, metastases, histiocytic neoplasia.

129
Q

How is chronic hepatitis defined? 2

A

Hepatic mononuclear or mixed inflammatory infiltrate with piecemeal necrosis and varying degress of fibrosis combined with clinical or biochemical evidence of hepatocellular dysfunction without improvement for 4-6 months.

130
Q

What is the most important sign in end-stage liver disease? 1

A

Portal hypertension.

131
Q

What are the signs associated with portal hypertension? 5

A

Ascites as hydrostatic pressure rises downstream of the portal vein in the splanchnic venous bed. Worsened by RAAS whcih occurs as a result of splanchnic pooling of blood reducing systemic BP. Results in further renal sodium and water retention causing more ascites.
GI wall congestion and oedema followed by ulceration which can result in haematemesis and malaena.
Development of acquired PSS - dogs not really cats - happens when portal pressure constantly higher than pressure in caudal vena cava - multiple vessels open up as escape valves between portal vein and caudal vena cava - hepatic encephalopathy ensues.

132
Q

What questions should you ask yourself with liver biopsy samples? 7

A

How much inflammation is there?
How much fibrosis is there?
How badlyis the architecture disrupted?
Is there any obvious cause?
Is there a secondary build-up of copper or iron?
Is there histological and/or clinical evidence of cholestasis?
Is there clinical evidence of portal hypertension?

133
Q

List a possible treatment plan for chronic hepatitis. 5

A

Intervene ASAP to try to stop fibrosis and cirrhosis.
Effective therapy made difficult by lack of aetiology in most cases.
Supportive and non-specific:
Palatable diet with high quality protein and added zinc, B vits and anti-oxidants. (Do not restrict protein unless HE)
Consider antifibrotics - steroids most effective but do not use without a biopsy.
Chochicine can be considered instead in dogs with severe fibrosis (can even combine with steroids).
Consider anti-oxidants in all cases (SAMe and Vit E).
Consider antibiotics.
End-stage - diet, anti-oxidants, UDA and treatments for ascites, GI ulceration and HE - do not use steroids here.

134
Q

Explain the aetiology of copper storage disease in Bedlington Terriers. 6

A

.Autosomal recessive - decreasing in occurrence.
Progressive pathological accumulation of copper in the lysozymes in hepatocytes starting in zone 3.
1’ - Copper is primary to disease process - important point as reflects the treatment recommendations in different breeds.
Specific defect in hepatic biliary copper excretion - MURR1 gene implicated but not the full story.
Progressive build up of hepatic copper (if acute - acute fulminant hepatic necrosis and copper in blood but this is rare).
Chronic - Persistent ALT high up to 1-2 yrs, no signs; Later random areas of hepatic necrosis - 1-2 yo but no clin signs. Then chronic hepatitis as more necrosis, leads to cirrhosis, usually around 4yo.

135
Q

How can you diagnose copper storage disease in Bedlington Terriers? 3

A

Genetic tests - MURR1 gene screening most accurate. Microsatellite marker used to be only option, need to interpret with breed of dog in mind.
Histological tests - More invasive, ideal age around 12 months as copper has built up enough but not chronic signs yet.

136
Q

How do you treat the various stages of copper storage disease? 6

A

Preventative in young animal:
Low copper diet with increased dietary zinc, avoid soft water and copper pipes etc. Anti-oxidants, consider chelation with penicillamine or 2,2,2-tetramine if copper levels high, stop when normal.
Acute crisis:
Intensive as for acute hepatitis, consider chelation with 2,2,2-tetramine (penicillamine takes weeks to work).
Chronic hepatitis:
Copper chelation if levels rising, low copper diet with zinc, consider anti-oxidants, avoid anti-fibrotics.

137
Q

What are the important points with non-cirrhotic portal hypertension, portal vein hypoplasia and non-inflammatory hepatic fibrosis? 5

A

Overlapping conditions, young dogs mostly, non-inflammatory.
Suggested all caused by intrahepatic portal hypertension a congential condition but could be a spectrum.
Conditions are not chronic hepatitis and do not need anti-inflams.
Portal hypertension needs symptomatic treatment, long term prognosis good, be care not to interpret as end stage and euthanase.

138
Q

What are the most common malignant 1’ liver tumours in the cat and dog? 2

A

Cat - Biliary carcinomas

Dog - Hepatocellular carcinomas

139
Q

What factors are involved in hepatic encephalopathy? 6

A

Ammonia - most important clinically - enterocyte catabolism of glutamine most important source, also from bacterial breakdown of undigested amino acids and purines in colon, bacterial and intestinal urease action on urea, endogenous hepatic protein metabolism.
Mercaptans - synergistic with ammonia - from colonic bacterial metabolism of methionine.
Short fatty chain acids - sigf?
Altered amino acid rations; Increased GABA (2’?) endogenous benzodiazepine receptor ligands.

140
Q

What factors precipitate hepatic encephalopathy? 6

A

High protein meal; Azotaemia; Inflam cytokines; GI bleeding or ingestion of blood; Metabolic alkalosis; Transfusion of stored blood; Hypokalaemia; Constipation; Dietary methionine; Catabolism/hypermetabolism; Sedatives/anaesthetics.

141
Q

What is the proposed aetiology of microvascular dysplasia? 2

A

Proposed shunting at microvascular level, may have concurrent PSS that does not improve as much as you want following surgery.

142
Q

How is the pancreas normally protected against autodigestion? 3

A

Synthesis and storage of enzymes as inactive precursors (zymogens) activated in SI.
Segregation in the cell in zymogen granules, separate from lysosomes.
Presence in zymogens of pancreatic secretory trypsin inhibitor which inhibits free trypsin.
Any pancreatic enzymes that escape into the circulation mopped up by alpha-antitypsin and alpha-macroglobulin in the circulation.

143
Q

What are the groups and subgroups of pancreatitis? 4

A

Acute - Neuts, necrosis, oedema - potentially reversible
Chronic - mononuclear cells and fibrosis - irreversible, tends to be recurrent.
Subgroups:
Acute necrotising - where there is surrounding fat necrosis.
Chronic active - Neutrophils as well as mononuclear cells combined with nodular pancreatic hyperplasia and fibrosis.

144
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis. 6

A

Incompletely understood:
Final common pathway - Inappropriate premature activation of trypsin in pancreas resulting in cascade of premature zymogen activation and therefore local digestion.
Results in pancreatic inflammation and acinar necrosis and peri-pancreatic fat necrosis. Free enzymes into abd resulting in local or generalised peritonitis.
Severe pancreatitis depletes clearing enzymes and results in significant local and systemic activation of neuts and mononuclear cells and resulting proinflam cytokine release. Very serious systemic inflam response, vasodilation, activation of fibrinolytic and coagulation systems and even DIC.

145
Q

What are the risk factors and their causes in pancreatitis? 8

A

Idiopathic - 90% - Cause unknown
Duct obstruction +/- hypersecretion +/- bile reflux into pancreatic duct - cause experimental, neoplasia, surgery, cholangitis/IBD, role in chronic pancreatitis.
Hypertriglyceraemia - Cause inherent abnormal lipid metabolism, endocrine (DM, HAC, hypothyroidism).
Breed/sex? - Cause terriers +/- spayed females.
Diet - Cause indiscretion/high fat, malnutrition, obesity?
Trauma - RTA, surgery, high rise syndrome.
Ischaemia/reperfusion - Surgery, GDV, shock, severe anaemia.
Hypercalcaemia - Experimental, hypercalcaemia of malignancy, 1’ hyperparathyroidism.
Drugs/toxins - Organophosphates, azathioprine, aspraginase, thiazides, furusemide, oestrogens, sulphs drugs, tetracycline, procainamide, steroids?
Infections - Toxo, FIP, others

146
Q

What signs are seen with severe, acute cases and low grade acute or chronic cases of pancreatitis? 10

A

Severe, acute - Vomiting, cranial abd pain, praying stance, concurrent colitis with passage of small amount of faeces with fresh blood common. Very severe - collapsed, dehydrated, shock, renal shutdown, resp distress, DIC.
Low grade acute or chronic - Anorexia +/- mild bouts clolitis and occ vomiting, increased borborygmi, and no or mild abd pain (commonest in cats).
Sequelae - dehydration, acidosis, major electrolyte disturbances with recurrent vomiting and anorexia, pre-renal azotaemia, SIRS, hypotension, resp distress and DIC.
Cats - hepatic lipidosis, cholangitis and cholangihepatitis can occur concurrently.

147
Q

Describe the clinicopathological results seen with pancreatitis. 8

A

CBC - neutrophilic leukocytosis with left shift, PCV increased if dehydrated though mild anaemia poss in cats. Hypokalaemia, concurrent hyperglycaemia, mild hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia.

     - Hypercholesteraemia and hypertriglycridaemia very common in fasting sample. Azotaemia common due to dehdration and toxins. Mild to mod increase in liver enzymes.
    - Amylase and lipase increased in dogs; PLI for dogs as well. Neither good in cats - use fTLI and fPLI but not reliable.
148
Q

What are the “pillars of treatment” for acute pancratitis? 6

A

Aggressive IVFT
Analgesia
Early enteral nutrition
Dogs - intra-jejunal feeding reduced bacterial translocation and produced better gut wall integrity when compared to parenteral nutrition. Pre-pyloric tube been shown to be well tolerated in dogs with acute pancreatitis. Low fat canine diet with added pancreatic enzymes and medium-chained triglycerides.

149
Q

How is chronic pancreatitis defined? 2

A

Continuing inflammatory disease characterized by the destruction of pancreatic parenchyma leading to progressive or permanent impairment of exocrine or endocrine function or both.

150
Q

What breeds are more represented with idiopathic chronic pancreatitis and autoimmune chronic pancreatitis? 3

A

Idiopathic - CKCS, Cockers, Collie, Boxers.

Autoimmune - English cockers.

151
Q

What are the causes of canine and feline exocrine pancreatic insufficiency? 3

A

Canine EPI - Pancreatic acinar atrophy (immune mediated in GSDs, no DM but does not respond to immunosuppressants) or end-stage chronic pancreatitis.
Cats EPI - Chronic pancreatitis, concurrent DM possible.
Pancreatic neoplasia occasionally.

152
Q

Describe the clinical signs associated with EPI. 4

A

Chronic diarrhoea and cachexia but ravenous appetite.
Diarrhoea usually steatorrhoea due to fat maldigestion but is variable.
May have chronic seborrhoeic skin disease due to deficiency of essential fatty acids and cachexia.
EPI due to chronic pancreatitis, may see signs of concurrent DM.

153
Q

How do you diagnose EPI? 2

A
Low TLI (cats and dogs), and B12 and folate.
Difficult to interpret TLI in end-stage chronic pancreatitis and a few cases of subclinical EPI with low TLI but no signs.
\+/- faecal tests but lots of problems.
154
Q

How should you manage EPI? 8

A

Long term pancreatic enzyme replacement - powder, tablet or capsules sprinkled on food.
Fresh, raw pancreas as an alternative to above - dose titrated to individual, lots lost due to stomach acid.
If concurrent SIBO need long course of appropriate antibiotics and cases with low serum cobalamin need parenteral B12 injections for satisfactory recovery.
May need insulin for concurrent DM.
Dietary:
Lack of lipase and SIBO presence results in disruption of fat digestion. Low fat diet but this maymake weight gain difficult in cachexic animals. Rplace fat may be possible with medium chain triglycerides such as coconut oil fed between meals.
Many owners give up if no quick improvement so low fat diet at first then maybe higher fat diet later on. Once better, SIBO may come under control and then less enzyme replacer may be needed.
Want low fibre diet as this impairs pancreatic enzymes.
Vitamins - may need B12, esp if SIBO present.
Do not allow dog to scavenge, two meals a day, low fat, low fibre and highly digestible.

155
Q

What are the general rules with lower urinary tract disease? 5

A

Increase fluid intake.
Reduce stress.
Consider diet which can affect: urine pH; urine volume; urine solute load; urine concentration of inhibitors and promotors.
Aim for pH 5.5-6.0 in dogs with struvite
Aim for pH above 7.5 with cysteine calculi

Identify stone, treat specifically for that stone.

156
Q

What non-immune mechanisms of non-specific dietary intolerance are there? 3

A

Any new diet introduced suddenly.
Lactose intolerance - relatively common in cats and dogs - reduction in lactase following weaning and osmotic diarrhoea ensues. No immune mech.
Non-specific vasoactive anime release - Food contains many vaso-active amines or can result in histamine from the gut non-specifically resulting in dramatic allergic like signs in the GI tract.

157
Q

How do you formulate a homemade hypoallergenic diet? 5

A

1) Novel protein source - cottage cheese, fish rabbit, venison.
2) Carbohydrate with no gluten such as rice or potato.
3) Feed diet only and no tit-bits/treats.
4) Feed diet long enough - at lesat 3 weeks.
5) Re-challenge to confirm dietary hypersensitivity.

158
Q

How should you feed a dog with diabetes mellitus? 6

A

Regular routine, constant diet (ideally complete dried or tinned), good energy levels as most dogs are thin, obese dogs need calorie control.
Idea diet is high in complex carbohydrates (starch and fibre to maintain constant glucose peak), devoid of simple sugars, restricted in fat.

159
Q

What should you feed a cat with diabetes mellitus with? 4

A

Manage on weight reduction diet but not protein restricted if obese, if thin, aim to get weight on.
Very important that diabetic cats are not made anorexic.
Ad-lib ok, just keep daily intake constant.
High protein diets are very effective at reducing the insulin dose in cats with type 2 DM.
Avoid foods high in simple sugars such as semi-moist foods.

160
Q

Describe, in short, how you should feed an animal with cardiac disease. 6

A

Treat obesity and cachexia/anorexia with the appropriate dietary modifications.
Omega-3 supplementation is recommended, esp if anorexic.
Moderate sodium restiriction once CHF develops and other electrolytes should be monitored closely.
Likely to be an increase in anti-oxidant use in the future, and coorect any nutritional deficiencies but these are rare.

161
Q

List the objectives of a diet for renal disease. 4

A

Meet energy and nutrient requirements.
Alleviate clinical signs of uraemia.
Minimise electrolyte, vitamin and mineral disturbances.
Slow progression of disease, if possible.

162
Q

What should you change for a renal diet? 8

A

Protein - Highly digestible, high biological value - no evidence to say it slows the progression of disease in dogs and cats.
Phosphorus - Restriction gives clinical benefits and may slow disease progression.
Fat - Increased to increase energy density and palatability.
Fibre - Increase soluble fibre to act as nitrogen trap in the gut - theoretically reduces uraemia in renal failure.
Sodium - Traditionally restricted in renal diets but recent study shows it lowered GFR in cats - feed normal amount.
Potassium - Monitor levels, can be hypo or hyper or normo, if hypo can add to diet.
Calcium - Do not supplement unless you are sure the dog is hypocalcaemic and phosphate is normal.
B vitamins - Increased as large loss with PUPD.

163
Q

How should you manage a diet for proteinuria/glomerulonephritis? 2

A

Moderately protein restricted diet.
Good theoretical evidence that feeding a diet high in omega-3 fatty acids as platelet aggregation is involved in pathogenesis of glomerulonephritis.

164
Q

When are increased omega-3 unsaturated fatty acids used? 5

A

Unproven but still used:
Cardiovascular disease; Hyperlipidaemia; Thromboembolic disease; Renal disease; Inflammatory disease (GI, skin).

Omega 6:omega 3 ratio of 5:1 or 10:1 used.