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Jessica: Nutrition > Lab markers, diagnostic signs, buzz words > Flashcards

Lab markers, diagnostic signs, buzz words Flashcards

-AI

1
Q

Cullen sign

A

Acute pancreatitis

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2
Q

Grey-Turner sign

A

Acute pancreatitis

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3
Q

CA 19-9

A

GB adenocarcinoma

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4
Q

HLA-DQ2

A

Celiac disease

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5
Q

tTGA IgA, EMA

A

Celiac disease

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6
Q

Cobblestoning

A

Crohn’s disease

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7
Q

Lead pipe

A

UC

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8
Q

Hasselbach’s

A

Direct inguinal hernia

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9
Q

High pitched tinkling sounds

A

Intestinal obstruction

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10
Q

Rome Criteria

A

12 w in past 12 months have 2/3 sxs:

  • relieved by defecation
  • change in frequency of stool
  • change in form of stool
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11
Q

Technetium-99 radioisotop

A

Use in:
Meckel’s diverticulum
Grave’s Dz

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12
Q

CEA marker

A

CRC

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13
Q

GGT increased

A

cholestasis

alcoholism

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14
Q

AFP marker

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

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15
Q

diffuse ST elevation

A

acute pericarditis

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16
Q

irregularly irregular pulse

A

A fib

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17
Q

diastolic rumble

A

mitral or tricuspid stenosis

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18
Q

diastolic “opening snap”

A

mitral stenosis

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19
Q

crescendo-descrescendo ejection murmur

A

aortic or pulmonic stenosis

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20
Q

holosystolic murmur

A

mitral or tricuspid regurg

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21
Q

decrescendo diastolic murmuc

A

aortic or pulmonic regurg

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22
Q

LD1>LD2

A

MI

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23
Q

ApoA1 is good or bad

A

good

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24
Q

Apo B is good or bad

A

bad

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25
Q

Apoa is good or bad

A

bad

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26
Q

Delta wave

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White

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27
Q

anti microsomal =

A

TPOAb

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28
Q

Chvostek’s sign

A

Hypoparathyroidism

Facial movement

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29
Q

21-hydroxylase enzyme defect

A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

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30
Q

acquired hemolytic anemia - warm

A

IgG

“gloves keep you warm”

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31
Q

acquired hemolytic anemia - cold

A

IgM

“mayonnaise should be cold”

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32
Q

direct and indirect coombs

A

Extravascular tests for hemolytic anemia

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33
Q

basophilic stippling

A

alpha-thalassemia

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34
Q

Heinz bodies and bite cells

A

G6PD

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35
Q

JAK2 mutation

A

Polycythemia vera

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36
Q

Increased PT (INR) and PTT

A

DIC

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37
Q

Prolonged PTT, normal INR

A

Hemophilia

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38
Q

VIII deficinecy

A

Hemophilia A

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39
Q

hemorrhage in the joints

A

Hemophilia A

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40
Q

IX deficiency

A

Hemophilia B

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41
Q

Normal INR and PTT w suden onset petechiae

A

ITP

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42
Q

Vitamin K factors

A

II, VII, IX, X, protein C & S

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43
Q

PT elevated

A

Vitamin K deficiency

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44
Q

Increased PTT

A

Von Willebrand disease

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45
Q

inability to stabilize facor VIII

A

von willebrand disease

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46
Q

Urine porphobilinogen

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

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47
Q

Ferrochelatase def

A

Erythropoietic protoporphyria

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48
Q

Roth and cotton wool spots

A

AML

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49
Q

Virgin B cells

A

CLL

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50
Q

Reed-sternberg cells

A

hodgkin lymphoma

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51
Q

M-spike

Punched out lytic lesions

A

Multiple myeloma

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52
Q

antigp120

A

HIV/AIDS

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53
Q

bamboo spine

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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54
Q

Edrophonium test

A

Myasthenia gravis

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55
Q

Racoon eyes

Gottrons patches

A

Polymyositis/dermatomyositis

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56
Q

HLA B-27

A

Reactive arthritis

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57
Q

HLA-DR4

A

RA

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58
Q

anti-SSA/Ro

anti-SSB/LA

A

Sjogren

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59
Q

Schirmer test

A

Sjogren

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60
Q

HLA B8/DR

Anti-dsDNA

A

SLE

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61
Q

Anaphylaxis EPI dose

A

0.3-0.5 1:1,000 EPI IM

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62
Q

Anaphylaxis Diphenhydramine dose

A

50 mg IM or IV q 4-6 hrs

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63
Q

Pulm fungal infection east of the Mississippi

A

Blastomycosis

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64
Q

Valley fever
Cali
Will see after earthquakes
skin infxn = good prognosis

A

Coccidiodomycosis

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65
Q

Pulm fungal infection in Ohio and Mississippi

A

Histoplasmosis

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66
Q

Trachea deviates towards lesion

A

Atelectasis

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67
Q

Blue bloater

increased pCO2

A

chronic bronchitis

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68
Q

Pink puffer

reactive polycythemia

A

Emphysema

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69
Q

asbestos starts in: upper or lower lobes and takes _ years to develop sxs

A

lower

10 years

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70
Q

silicosis starts in: upper or lower lobes and takes _ years to develop sxs

A

upper

20 years

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71
Q

bronchopneumonia pathogen

atypical - patchy consolidation

A

mycoplasma

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72
Q

lobular pneumonia pathogen

A

streptococcus pneumonia

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73
Q

trachea deviates away from lesion

A

pneumothorax

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74
Q

pink frothy sputum

A

pulmonary edema

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75
Q

Homans sign

A

pulmonary embolism

discomfort while squeezing calf

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76
Q

pulmonary HTN values

A

> 25 at rest

>30 w exercise

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77
Q

non-caseating granulomas

A

sarcoidosis

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78
Q

Horner syndrome

A

pancoast tumor

IL lid lag, miosis (pinpoint pupil), IL anhidrosis

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79
Q

descending symmetric flaccid paralysis

A

botulism

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80
Q

Negi bodies

A

rabies

81
Q

ascending and symmetrical motor weakness

A

Guillain-Barre

82
Q

Multinucleated giant cells on Tzanck test

A

Herpes zoster

examination of fluid from a bullae

83
Q

muscle rigidity in a descending pattern

A

tetanus

84
Q

worst HA of my life

A

cerebral aneurysm

85
Q 
seizure:
unresponsive for 5-10 seconds
can occur up to 100 times/day
blinking
eye-rolling
A

Absence seizure

aka petit mal

86
Q 
seizure:
localized to one part of brain
pt is aware 
UL muscle contraction
lip smacking
A

Focal/partial seizure

87
Q 
seizure:
prodrome of irritability
tonic muscle contracts >
violent jerking >
tongue biting
elevated serum CK
A

Generalized seizure

aka grand mal

88
Q

degeneration of anterior horn cells (motor neurons)

A

ALS

89
Q

Accumulation of defective proteins in neurons

Chorea

A

Hunington’s

90
Q

CNS demyelination

A

MS

91
Q

anterior horn destruction causing asymmetrical permanent muscles weakness
may also see fever

A

Post-polio syndrome

92
Q

brain CA in frontal lobe

A

astrocytoma

93
Q

CA in brain stem

A

Glioma

94
Q

Tumors near meninges

A

meningioma

95
Q

pustules w/ burning sensation and ruddy complexion

involves pilosebaceous units

A

Acne rosacea

96
Q

multiple openings

larger than a boil

A

carbuncles

97
Q

Tznack smear shows multinucleated giant epithelial cells

A

Herpes Simplex

98
Q

Yellow honey crusted exudate, surround by erythema

A

Impetigo vulgarious (nonbullous)

99
Q

Clear yellow turbid fluid, no surround erythema

A

Bullous impetigo

100
Q

6 P’s: pruritic, polygonal, planar, purple, papules, plaques

A

Lichen planus

101
Q

Pain out of proportion to clinical findings

Diagnosis made clinically and tx should begin ASAP

A

necrotizing fasciitis

102
Q

Nits

A

Pediculosis (lice)

103
Q

Lipoma description

A

moveable, soft, rubber

104
Q

“stuck on” appearance

waxy papule appearance

A

seborrheic keratosis

105
Q

Acanthosis nigricans is a marker of

A

insulin resistance

106
Q

Eczema is a __ mediated rxn

and on __ surfaces

A

IgE

Flexor

107
Q

Bull’s eye pattern

A

Erythema multiforme

108
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris is a __ reaction

and is ___ (superficial or deep)

A

Type II

Superficial

109
Q

Pemphigus pemphigoid is a __ reaction

and is ___ (superficial or deep)

A

Type II

Deep

110
Q

Nikolsky’s sign

Asboe-Hansen sign

A

Pemphigus vulgaris
nikolsky (rubbing causes separation of epidermis)
asboe (lateral pressure to bulla causes it to extend laterally)

111
Q

Auspitz sign

A

Psoriasis

112
Q

Urticaria is a __ reaction

A

IgE

113
Q

sandpaper-like texture

A

actinic keratosis

114
Q

Most common malignancy in humans

A

BCC

115
Q

red-purple papules that ulcerate

associated with immunodeficiency

A

Kaposi sarcoma

116
Q

favors upper lip

A

BCC

117
Q

favors lower lip

A

SCC

118
Q

initially presents as non-healing ulcer

A

SCC

119
Q

90% of breast cancer is in __

A

ductal epithelium

120
Q

Screening mammography should be performed every __ years from ages __

A

2-3 years

50-74

121
Q

Most aggressive breast cancer

A

inflammatory carcinoma

122
Q

most common breast cancer

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

123
Q

Mastitis pathogen

A

Staph aureus

124
Q

Painless vaginal bleeding
Snowstorm appearance on US
increased hCG

A

Hyatidiform mole

125
Q

Group B strep should be screen at __ weeks

A

35-37

126
Q

Toxoplasmosis can be transmitted in __ trimester

A

third

127
Q

T/F: TIBC is elevated in pregnant

A

True

128
Q

Folate deficiency anemia can cause __ defects in __ trimester

A

Neural tube

First

129
Q

Gestational diabetes can occur in ___ weeks and plasma glucose is > __

A

24-48

10.3

130
Q

Polyhydraminos is > ___ cc of amniotic fluid and has __ x __ cm pocket of fluid on US

A

2000

8 x 8

131
Q

In pregnancy:
HTN > 140/90
Proteinuria > 300
Pitting edema

A

Pre-eclampsia

132
Q

Separation of placenta after 20 weeks

A

Abruptio placenta

133
Q

Marginal placenta previa has a risk of __

A

hemorrhage

134
Q

Painless bright red vaginal bleeding

A

Placenta Previa

135
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage is a blood loss of ___

A

> 500 mL

136
Q

Abortion likely happens prior to __ weeks

A

20

137
Q

If pt has threatened abortion, what amount of blood loss warrants ER

A

2 pads w/ blood per hour

138
Q

Bulls-eye rash

BL bell’s palsy

A

Lyme

139
Q

HLA-B27
dactylitis
nail pitting
CASPAR criteria

A

Psoriatic arthritis

140
Q

Paget disease has __ ALP and __ GGT

A

high

normal

141
Q

T score for osteopenia and osteoporosis

A

penia: -2.5 to -1
porosis: < -2.5

142
Q 
In osteomalacia you see high or low of the following:
Vit D
Phosphate
Ca
ALP
Parathyroid
A

Low D, phosphate and Ca

High ALP and parathyroid

143
Q

Depuytrens involves which fingers and joints

A

MP and IP flexion

4, 5, 3

144
Q

Trigger fingers involved

A

1, 3, 4

145
Q

most common location for cervical disc herniation

A

C6-7

146
Q

Most common location of cervical sponylosis

A

C5-6

147
Q

Kyphosis cobb angle

A

> 45

148
Q

Scoliosis angles for bracing and surgery

A

20-45 brace

>45 surgery

149
Q

Sciatica involves

A

L4-S3

150
Q

Spondylolisthesis involves

A

L5-S1

151
Q

Kemp sign and CT myelogram to diagnose

A

Spinal stenosis

152
Q

MSK mass that shows stippled or “popcorn” calcifications

A

Chondroma

153
Q

Most common benign bone tumor

A

Osteochondroma

154
Q

Onion-like skinning and moth-eaten appearance on XR

A

Ewings sarcoma

155
Q

benign scrotal masses that are painful

A

hematocele

varicocele

156
Q

benign scrotal masses that are painless

A

hydrocele
spermatocele
varicocele

157
Q

Prostate CA occurs in the ___ zone

A

peripheral

158
Q

Testicular CA is painful or painless?

A

Painless

159
Q

Prehn’s sign is positive in __ and negative in ___

A

Epididymitis

Testicular torsion

160
Q

List the male repro emergent conditions

A

Paraphimosis
Testicular torsion
Prostatitis

161
Q

BPH occurs in the __ zone

A

transitional

162
Q

Proliferative types of glomerulonephritis

A

IgA neph/ Berger’s
acute proliferative
membranoproliferative
Rapidly progressing

163
Q

Non-proliferative types of glomerulonephritis

A

minimal-change

membranous

164
Q

most common type of Ki stone

A

Calcium

165
Q

Ca oxalate
Cystine
Uric acid
are from urine acidic or alkaline?

A

acidic

166
Q

ca phosphate from urine too acidic or alkaline?

A

alkaline

167
Q

which Ki stone cannot be seen on XR

A

Uric acid

168
Q

Nephritic s/sx mneumonic

A 
PHAROH
proteinuria
hematuria
azotemia
RBC casts
Oliguria
HTN
169
Q

Nephrotic s/sx mneumonic

A 
PALE
proteinuria > 50
hypoAlbuminemia
hyperLipidemia
Edema
170
Q

Kidney’s w/ moth eaten appearance on US

A

Polycystic Ki Disease

171
Q

waxy casts on UA

A

renal failure

172
Q

Hunner’s ulcers in cytoscopy is gold standard for:

A

interstitial cystitis

173
Q

chocolate cysts and/or mulberry spots on laparoscopy

A

endometriosis

174
Q

strawberry cervix

A

trichomoniasis

175
Q

pressure on eyelid produces toothpaste-like secretion

A

chalazion

176
Q

most common cause of reversible blindness

painless

A

cataracts

177
Q

most common cause of permanent visual loss in elderly

A

macular degeneration

178
Q

progressive central vision loss

A

macular degeneration

179
Q

may see flashes of light, blackness in peripheral field, loss of central vision, floaters

A

retinal detachment

180
Q

elevated intraocular pressure (>21)

NO redness or pain

A

Primary open angle glaucoma

181
Q

extremely elevated intraocular pressure (>40)

Red AND painful

A

primary angle-closure glaucoma

182
Q

microaneurysms in the eye is an early clinical sign of

A

diabetic retinopathy

183
Q

sudden UL loss of vestibular function and hearing

A

Labyrinthitis

184
Q

recurring episodic vertigo and low frequency hearing loss

A

meniere dz

185
Q

2 forms of conduction hearing loss

A

AOM

Otosclerosis

186
Q

Schwart’z sign

Carhart notch

A

Otosclerosis
schwart’z - faint pint TM
Carhart - audiometric artifact

187
Q

pellagra is __ and associated with ___

A

Niacin def

Diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis

188
Q

Heberden’s nodes located on

A

DIP

189
Q

Bouchard’s nodes located on

A

PIP

190
Q

cogwheel rigidity
pill rolling
shuffling gait

A

Parkinson’s

191
Q

For urinary incontinence you want to use a muscarinic agonist or antagonist

A

antagonist

use tolterodine

192
Q

fifths disease
Parvovirus B19
slapped-cheek appearance

A

Erythema infectiosum

193
Q

ABRUPT loss of fever, then RASH appears – pink pruritic maculopapules starting at neck and trunk

A

Roseola infantum

194
Q

forchheimer’s spots

pink/discrete maculopapular rash, painful post LA

A

Rubella (German Measles)

Forchheimer’s spots = red spots in mouth

195
Q

Paramyxovirus, 4 day pre and post rash – starts at hairline, 3 c’s: cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
Koplik spots

A

Rubeola (Measles)

196
Q

Rash that spares the mouth, but has strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever

197
Q

R to L shunt (congenital heart defects)

A

Tetralogy of fallot

198
Q

L to R shunt (congenital heart defects)

A

ASD
VSD
Coaractation
PDA

199
Q

EDTA used to chelate

A

Lead

Jessica: Nutrition (8 decks)

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