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BIOL 107L > Lab Practical > Flashcards

Lab Practical Flashcards

1
Q

How do you calculate total magnification?

A

Occular lens magnification x objective lens magnification

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2
Q

Which whole colony shape is this?

A

Round

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3
Q

Which whole colony shape is this?

A

Irregular

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4
Q

Which whole colony shape is this?

A

Filamentous

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5
Q

Which whole colony shape is this?

A

Rhizoid

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6
Q

Which colony margin is this?

A

Smooth

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7
Q

Which colony margin is this?

A

Rhizoid

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8
Q

Which colony margin is this?

A

Irregular

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9
Q

Which colony margin is this?

A

Lobate

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10
Q

Which colony margin is this?

A

Filamentous

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11
Q

What colony elevation is this?

A

Convex

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12
Q

What colony elevation is this?

A

Umbonate

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13
Q

What colony elevation is this?

A

Plateau

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14
Q

What colony elevation is this?

A

Flat

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15
Q

What colony elevation is this?

A

Raised

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16
Q

What colony elevation is this?

A

Raised with spreading edge

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17
Q

What colony elevation is this?

A

Flat with raised margin

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18
Q

What colony elevation is this?

A

Growth into medium

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19
Q

What is part A?

A

Occular lens (10x magnification)

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20
Q

What is part B?

A

Diopter adjustment (raises or lowers the eyepiece in order to adjust the focus for each eye)

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21
Q

What is part C

A

Revolving nose piece (holds objective lenses and facilitates changing lenses)

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22
Q

What is part D?

A

Objective lens (scanning objective - 4x, low power - 10x, high dry power - 40x, oil immersion - 100x)

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23
Q

What is part E?

A

Slide clip (holds the slide in place on the stage)

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24
Q

What is part G?

A

Mechanical stage (place where the slides are placed for microscope viewing)

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25
Q

What is part H?

A

Iris diaphragm (allows the intensity of the light reaching the microscope slide to be adjusted by moving the lever from side to side)

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26
Q

What is part I?

A

Condenser (gathers light from the microscope’s light source and concentrates it into a cone illuminating the specimen)

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27
Q

What is part J?

A

Lamp (provides illumination for the compound light microscope)

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28
Q

What is part K?

A

Base

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29
Q

What is part L?

A

Arm (supports the occular lenses, the objective lenses, and stage of the microscope; connection between the uppermost parts of the microscope and the base)

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30
Q

What is part M?

A

Coarse adjustment (used to adjust the focus when using the scanning objective lens)

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31
Q

What is part N?

A

Fine adjustment (used to adjust the focus when using the low power, high dry power, and oil immersion lenses)

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32
Q

What is part O?

A

Light switch (controls the microscope’s lamp)

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33
Q

In what range does the coefficient in scientific notation have to fall?

A

Between 1 and 10

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34
Q

What is the dilution factor formula?

A

Dilution factor = [volume of original concentrated solution] / [total volume after dilution including solution and diluents]

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35
Q

Which broth growth pattern is this?

A

Turbid (cloudy)

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36
Q

Which broth growth pattern is this?

A

Flocculent

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37
Q

Which broth growth pattern is this?

A

Pellicle

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38
Q

Which broth growth pattern is this?

A

Sediment

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39
Q

Describe the cocci bacterial shape

A

Spherical or generally round shaped

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40
Q

Describe the bacilli bacterial shape

A

Rod shaped

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41
Q

Describe the spirilla bacterial shape

A

Curve shaped

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42
Q

What are the (2) categories of variations in bacterial cell shapes?

A

1) Vibrios; 2) spirochetes

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43
Q

What are vibrios?

A

Vibrios are an arc-shaped variation of bacilli bacteria

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44
Q

What are spirochetes?

A

Spirochetes are a spiral shaped variation of spirilla bacteria

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45
Q

What color will a positive cell wall turn in a gram stain?

A

Purple

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46
Q

What color will a negative cell wall turn in a gram stain?

A

Pink

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47
Q

What are (5) categories of bacterial cell arrangement?

A

1) Diplo; 2) strepto; 3) tetrad; 4) sarcina; 5) staphylo

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48
Q

Describe the diplo arrangement

A

Pair of cells

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49
Q

Describe the strepto arrangement

A

Chain of cells

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50
Q

Describe the tetrad arrangement

A

Group of 4 cells

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51
Q

Describe the sarcina arrangement

A

Group of 8 cells

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52
Q

Describe the staphylo arrangement

A

Irregular cluster of cells

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53
Q

Which stain does this image represent?

A

Positive gram stain

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54
Q

Which stain does this image represent?

A

Negative gram stain

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55
Q

How many colonies does a “countable” plate contain?

A

30 - 300

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56
Q

What two types of dilutions are used in a Standard Plate Count procedure?

A

Simple dilution (first transfer of stock sample) and compound dilution (each successive transfer)

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57
Q

What is the Dilution Factor (Df) equation?

A

Df = [Amount of Sample Transferred] / [Total Volume After Transfer]

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58
Q

What is the Dilution (Concentration) Formula?

A

V1 x D1 = V2 x D2 [where V1 and D1 are the volume and dilution of the concentrated broth; and V2 and D2 are the volume and dilution of the completed dilution]

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59
Q

How is the total dilution calculated?

A

Multiply the dilution factor of each of the stages in the dilution series

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60
Q

What is the Original Cell Density (OCD) formula?

A

OCD = CFU / D x V [where CFU is the # of colony forming units; V is the volume transferred to the associated plate; D is the total dilution of the plated sample relative to the stock sample]

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61
Q

What are the volume ranges of the micropipettes available in our lab?

A

1) 2 - 20 microliters; 2) 20 - 200 microliters; 3) 100 - 1,000 microliters

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62
Q

What do the three numbers on the smallest volume micropipette represent?

A

Tens, ones, tenths

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63
Q

What do the three numbers on the midsize volume micropipette represent?

A

Hundreds, tens, ones

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64
Q

What do the three numbers on the largest volume micropipette represent?

A

Thousands, hundreds, tens

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65
Q

How is the micropipette prepared for use?

A

1) Pop up plunger and spin dial until numbers read amount required; 2) lock the plunger back in place; 3) insert appropriately sized pipette tip onto end of pipette shaft; 4) press plunger trigger down to 1st step to suck solution into pipette; 5) press plunger trigger the rest of the way down to dispense solution; 6) release used pipette tip using associated lever

66
Q

What type of stain does this image represent?

A

Capsule stain

67
Q

What type of stain does this image represent?

A

Negative stain

68
Q

What type of stain does this image represent?

A

Endospore stain

69
Q

What type of stain does this image represent?

A

Acid-fast stain

70
Q

What type of stain does this image represent?

A

Flagella stain

71
Q

Does this image represent a successful streak for isolation plate?

A

Yes

72
Q

What type of stain does this image represent? And which growth is positive for lactose fermentation?

A

EMB (eosin methlylene blue) agar stain; growth A is positive for lactose fermentation

73
Q

What type of stain does this image represent? Which specimen is S. aureus and how do you know that?

A

MSA (manitol salt agar); specimen A is S. aureus as indicated by the yellow colonies due to fermentation

74
Q

What are hemolysins?

A

Substances, such as antibodies or bacterial toxins, that cause the destruction of red blood cells (thereby liberating hemoglobin)

75
Q

What is hemolysis?

A

The destruction of red blood cells

76
Q

What are the three categories of hemolysis?

A

1) Beta; 2) alpha; 3) gamma

77
Q

What is the result of beta hemolysis?

A

The complete destruction of red blood cells and hemoglobin resulting in a clearing around growth on the blood agar plate

78
Q

What is the result of alpha hemolysis?

A

The partial destruction of the red blood cells and hemoglobin resulting in a greenish discoloration of the blood agar plate

79
Q

What is the result of gamma hemolysis?

A

No hemolysis and no change of the medium

80
Q

How is a positive catalase test identified?

A

Bubbles or froth form

81
Q

What does a catalase test differentiate for?

A

It differentiates between pathogenic Staphylococcus aureus and other Micrococcaceae (including other species of Staphylococcus)

82
Q

What are two examples of catalase-positive bacteria?

A

Staphylococci and micrococcus

83
Q

What is catalase?

A

Enzyme able to break hydrogen peroxide down into water and oxygen gas

84
Q

What is the purpose of a fermentation test?

A

It’s a family of differential tests used to detect the ability of an organism to ferment various carbohydrates, especially gram-negative enteric bacteria

85
Q

What does the media of a fermentation test include?

A

A single fermentable carbohydrate, peptone ( a soluble protein formed in the early stage of protein breakdown during digestion), and a pH indicator

86
Q

Which pH indicators is used in the fermentation test?

A

Phenol red

87
Q

Phenol red turns which colors under which conditions?

A

Red above pH 7.4; yellow below pH 6.8

88
Q

What is a Durham tube?

A

An inverted tube in a larger tube used to capture gas

89
Q

In a phenol red fermentation test, what does the result yellow broth with bubble signify?

A

Fermentation with acid and gas end products

90
Q

In a phenol red fermentation test, what does the result yellow broth with no bubble signify?

A

Fermentation with acid end products, but no gas produced

91
Q

In a phenol red fermentation test, what does the result red broth with no bubble signify?

A

No fermentation

92
Q

In a phenol red fermentation test, what does the result magenta broth with no bubble signify?

A

Degradation of peptone; alkaline end products

93
Q

In a blood agar test, what does clearing around the growth represent?

A

Beta-hemolysis

94
Q

In a blood agar test, what does greening around the growth represent?

A

Alpha-hemolysis

95
Q

In a blood agar test, what does no change in the medium represent?

A

Gamma-hemolysis

96
Q

What is the purpose of the nutrient gelatin liquidation test

A

To detect the ability of a microbe to produce hydrolytic exoenzymes called gelatinases

97
Q

What do gelatinase do?

A

Digests and liquefies gelatin through hydrolysis

98
Q

What does the gelatinase test medium contain?

A

Gelatin, beef extract, and peptone

99
Q

What method is used for inoculation in the gelatinase test?

A

A nutrient gelatin stab

100
Q

What indicates a positive result for a gelatinase test?

A

The medium liquifies

101
Q

What is a potential source of error in a gelatinase test, and what is the best way to control for it?

A

Nutrient gelatin stabs may liquefy naturally if the temperature of the room is too warm (above 82-degrees); the best way to control for natural liquefication is to leave an unoculated sample with the inoculated sample

102
Q

What is gelatin?

A

Gelatin is a protein found in connective tissue like collagen

103
Q

What is the purpose of the casease (milk) test

A

It is used to identify bacteria capable of hydrolyzing casein with the enzyme casease

104
Q

What is casein?

A

The protein molecule that gives milk its white color

105
Q

What method is used for inoculation in the casease test?

A

Spot method

106
Q

What is the result of a postive casease test?

A

The milk protein is broken down and it will lose the white color that makes it opaque and will appear clear (an area of clearing will appear around the bacterial growth)

107
Q

What is the purpose of the starch hydrolysis test?

A

It is used to differentiate bacteria based on their ability to hydrolyze starch with the enzyme amylase

108
Q

What is starch agar composed of?

A

beef extract, starch, agar

109
Q

What reagent identifies the presence of starch on a starch agar?

A

Iodine

110
Q

What indicates a positive result for a starch hydrolysis test?

A

There will be a clear zone around the bacteria where the starch has hydrolyzed

111
Q

What is the purpose of the urease test?

A

Urease broth is medium that tests the ability of an organism to produce an exoenzyme, callled urease, that hydrolyzes urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide

112
Q

What does the urease test broth contain?

A

Two pH buffers, urea, a small amount of nutrients for the bacteria, and pH indicator phenol red

113
Q

What color indicates a positive result in the phenol red urease test?

A

pink/fushia indicating an alkaline environment and that the urea in the broth is degraded and the ammonia is produced

114
Q

Steps of Scientific Method (6)

A

1) Observation; 2) Research; 3) Hypothesis; 4) Experiment; 5) Conclusion; 6) Share results

115
Q

Observation

A

All that can be observed with the five senses (smell, sight, taste touch, hearing)

116
Q

Research method

A

Use reliable sources to learn background information

117
Q

Hypothesis

A

Prediction of what you believe will occur (if, then, and be specific)

118
Q

Types of experiental data collected (2)

A

1) Qualitative; 2) quantitative

119
Q

Qualitative data

A

Relies on descriptions

120
Q

Quantitative data

A

Relies on numbers

121
Q

Types of variables used in experiment (2)

A

1) Independent; 2) dependent

122
Q

Independent variable

A

The thing you change

123
Q

Dependent variable

A

The thing you measure

124
Q

Experimental group

A

The group where the independent variable is altered

125
Q

Control group

A

Other “normal” or unaltered group used to compare against experimental group

126
Q

Types of groups used in an experiment (2)

A

1) Experimental group; 2) control group

127
Q

What is another name for the Antibiotic Sensitivity test?

A

Kirby-Bauer Method

128
Q

What is the purpose of the Kirby-Bauer Method?

A

To determine the susceptibility of bacteria to various antibiotics in order to prescribe the most suitable antibiotic therapy

129
Q

What is the principle of the Kirby-Bauer Method?

A

If the organism is susceptible to the antibiotic, there will be a clear zone around the disk where the bacteria are inhibited

130
Q

What is the McFarland Turbidity Standard?

A

Provides a visual means of estimating the denisty of bacteria in an inoculated broth

131
Q

What is special about Mueller-Hinton agar?

A

It is used for antibiotic susceptibility testing of bacteria; it is considered “loose” agar and is a of a specific thickness (4mm) to allow the antibiotics to diffuse through the medium; it has a pH between 7.2 and 7.4

132
Q

How are the Mueller-Hinton tests evaluated

A

By measuring the antibotic inhibition zone diameter

133
Q

What causes two zones to appear to join and extend beyond the perimeters of their otherwise circular zones?

A

Synergistic effect of the two antibiotics

134
Q

What is the purpose of the Sulfur Reduction/Mobility Test

A

The test is used to identify those bacteria capable of reducing sulfur; it is useful in differentiating enteric organisms, primarily for differentiating Salmonella and Shigella

135
Q

What does the abbreviation SIM stand for?

A

Sulfur reduction; Indole production from tryptophan; and Motility

136
Q

What does the SIM medium contain?

A

Nutrients, iron, sodium thiosulfate (sulfur), peptone, and amino acids (from casein and animal tissue) including tryptophan

137
Q

What does a positive sulfur reduction result look like?

A

If it’s able to reduce sulfur to hydrogen sulfide (H2S), the hydrogen sulfide combines with the iron to form the black precipitate ferric sulfide

138
Q

How does a positive motility test present?

A

There is a hazy growth radiating from the inoculating stab

139
Q

What is the purpose of the Nitrate Reduction Test?

A

To detect the ability of an organism to reduce nitrate (NO3) to nitrite (NO2) or another nitrogenous compound (like N2), using the enzyme nitrate reductase

140
Q

What are the two phases of the Nitrate Reduction Test?

A

Phase 1: if the media turns red when sulfanilic acid and a-naphthylamine are added, it is positive for nitrite (nitrate reduction), if no color change is present, move to Phase 2; Phase 2: add zinc dust, if the media turns pink, it is a negative result as the zinc reacts with the un-reduced NO3 (nitrate), if there is no color change, that is a positive result as there was no NO3 for the zinc to react with

141
Q

What is the purpose of the Aggulation Reaction Test?

A

To detect either the presence of antigen or antibody in a sample

142
Q

What are agglutinates?

A

Visible clumps formed by antigens that combined with homologous antibodies

143
Q

What are the characteristics of type O blood?

A

Genotype ii; neither A nor B surface antigens; against A and B antibodies

144
Q

What are the characteristics of type A blood?

A

Genotype I^AI^A or I^AI^i; A surface antigen; against B antibodies (positive has Rh or I^i)

145
Q

What are the characteristics of type B blood?

A

Genotype I^BI^B or I^BI^i; B surface antigen; against A antibodies (positive has Rh or I^i)

146
Q

What are the characteristics of type AB blood (codominance - expressing both alleles equally)?

A

Genotype I^AI^B; A and B surface antigen; against neither A nor B antibodies

147
Q

What type of eukaryotic microbe is shown in this image, and how does it move?

A

Amoeba; it moves by employing cytoplasmic flow

148
Q

What eukaryotic microbe is shown in this image, and which method of locomotion does it employ?

A

Paramecium; it uses cilia to move

149
Q

What type of eukaryotic microbe is shown in this image, and what method does it employ to move?

A

Euglena; it uses flagella to move

150
Q

Which of these images is mold?

A

A

151
Q

Which of these images shows mold under a microscope?

A

B

152
Q

What is the size of Sample 2?

A

1.25 kb

153
Q

What dye is used in a capsule stain?

A

Congo red

154
Q

What dyes are used in an endospore stain?

A

Malichite green and safranin

155
Q

What substances are used to produce a flagella stain?

A

Mordant and silver nitrate

156
Q

What are two different methods used to create acid-fast stains; indicate primary and counterstains used for each

A

Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) (carbofuchsin, methylene blue) or Kinyoun (carbofuchsin, brilliant green)

157
Q

What dye is used to produce a negative stain?

A

Nigrosin

158
Q

Which flagella arrangement is this?

A

Monotrichous

159
Q

Which flagella arrangement is this?

A

Amphitrichous

160
Q

Which flagella arrangement is this?

A

Lophotrichous

161
Q

Which flagella arrangement is this?

A

Peritrichous

162
Q

What dyes are used in the gram staining process?

A

Crystal violet, safranin, and methylene blue

BIOL 107L (11 decks)

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