Lab Practical Review Flashcards

1
Q

Blood agar-

Result: area ajacent to bacteria appears green when held up to light?

A

alpha hemolytic bacteria

hemolysins destroyed RBC’s

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2
Q

Blood agar-

Result: Area adjacent to bacteria appears clear when help up to light

A

Beta-hemolytic bacteria

Hemolysins were able to partially destroy RBC’s

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3
Q

Blood agar-

Result: Area adjacent to bacteria appears red

A

Gamma-hemolytic bacteria

No hemolysins were released

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4
Q

Phenylethyl Alchohol Agar

Result: Growth looks same as TSA

A

Gram positive

Cell wall remains intact

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5
Q

Phenylethyl Alchohol Agar

Result: No growth/less than on TSA

A

Gram-negative

Cell wall destroyed

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6
Q

Mannitol Salt agar-

Result: Growth and color change of media

A

S. aureus

Sugar in agar has been fermented which results in color change

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7
Q

Mannitol Salt agar-

Result: Growth and no color change

A

Any other staphylococci bacteria

Sugar in media hasnt been fermented

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8
Q

MacConkey agar-

Result: Growth, colonies are red/pink

A

Gram-negative, Lac +

Lactose in media has been fermented which changes the ph and results in color change

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9
Q

MacConkey agar-

Growth, colonies are white/colorless/golden/brown

A

Gram-neg, Lac -

Lactose in media has no been fermented

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10
Q

MacConkey agar-

No growth

A

Gram positive

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11
Q

Eosin-methyline blue agar-

Growth, colonies are purple-black (sometimes with a dark center)

A

Gram-neg, Lac +
Same as MacConkey
Lactose in media has been fermented which changes the ph and results in color change

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12
Q

Eosin-methyline blue agar-

Growth, colonies has metallic green color

A

Gram-neg, Lac +

E.coli

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13
Q

Eosin-methyline blue agar-

growth, colonies are colorless

A

Gram-neg, Lac -

Lactose in media has no been fermented

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14
Q

Eosin-methyline blue agar-

No growth

A

Gram positive

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15
Q

Starch Hydrolysis

After addition of iodine, blue black color in innoculation zone

A

Negative result

Starch is still present

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16
Q

Starch Hydrolysis

Colorless are in innoculation zone

A

Positive

Starch has been broken down

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17
Q

Lipid Hydrolysis-

Innoculation zone is opaque/cloudy

A

negative result

Lipids are still present

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18
Q

Lipid Hydrolysis-

Innoculation zone is clear

A

Postive

Lipids have been broken down

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19
Q

Casein Hydrolysis-

Innoculation zone is opaque/cloudy

A

Negative

Casein is still present

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20
Q

Casein Hydrolysis-

Inocculation zone is clear

A

Positive

Casein has been broken down

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21
Q

Gelatin Hydrolysis-

Medium remains solid

A

Negative

Gelatin is still present

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22
Q

Gelatin Hydrolysis-

Medium has liquidified

A

Positive

Gelatin has been broken down

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23
Q

Agar is?

A

a chemical derived from seaweed that solidifies into a jellylike semisolid

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24
Q

What is a medium?

A

a liquid gel designed to support bacterial/cell growth

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25
Q

Why do you innoculate near the Busen burner?

A

Creates a vaccum near plates so microbes in the air done contaminate the swab/loop

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26
Q

What is a subculture?

A

transfer of a microbe from one medium to another

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27
Q

What is a pureculture?

A

Culture containing bacteria from only one strain

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28
Q

An obligate areobe needs?

A

oxygen to survive

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29
Q

What are the 4 objectives on the microscobe?

A

4x, 10x, 40x, and 100x

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30
Q

Oil changes the _________________ of the light.

A

refractory pattern

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31
Q

An electron microscope uses a _____________ to illuminate a specimen and produce a magnified image.

A

Refractory pattern

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32
Q

B. cereus is a?

A

common cause of food posioning

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33
Q

P. vulgaris is?

A

a common cause of UTI and wound infections

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34
Q

P. Aeruginosa is?

A

Cause of infections & sepsis but can cause death if found in longs or kidneys

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35
Q
Wet mount resuluts-
Bacterium           Motility               Morphology 
B. cereus          
P. Vulgaris 
P. Aeruginosa
A

Wet mount resuluts-
Bacterium Motility Morphology
B. cereus True motility rod
P. Vulgaris Brownian Mov. rod/bacillis
P. Aeruginosa true motility cocco bacillus `

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36
Q

What is brownian movement?

A

Appearance of movement, but really just molecules bombarding the bacteria

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37
Q

Why do we incubate the plates at 37 degrees C and then 4?

A

Because 37 degrees C is the temp of the human body and will allow bacteria to grow and reproduce, then incubation is at 4 degrees to preserve

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38
Q

Simple staining can be used to identify more than the morphological characteristics of microorganisms.
T/F

A

False

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39
Q

What are the 3 main categories of bacteria shapes

A

Rod, Cocci, Spiral

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40
Q

What does every staining technique start with?

A

a bacterial smear

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41
Q

What are the two types of dyes for a bacterial smear?

A

methaline blue, crystal violet

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42
Q

A gram stain is a type of ______________.

A

differential staining

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43
Q

The primary stain is?

A

Used to stain all cells on the slide

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44
Q

The decolorizing step is used for?

A

removing the stain for different types of cells

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45
Q

The counter stain is used for?

A

staining newly decolorized cells but has no effect on cells holding primary stain

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46
Q

The gram stain reaction is based on the amount of _________ found in the cell walls of bacteria.

A

peptidogylcan

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47
Q

Gram ___________ cells many layers of peptidoglycab in their cell walls.

A

positive

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48
Q

Gram ________ cells have one layer of peptidogylcan in their cell walls.

A

one layer

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49
Q

What is the agent used for the primary stain in a gram stain?
What color would Gram +/- be?

A

crystal violet

-both purple at this stage

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50
Q

What is the agent used for the mordant/fixative and what color will gram +/- be?

A

iodine

both still purple

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51
Q

What agent is used for decolorizing?

What color will the gram +/- be?

A

alchohol
Gram + =purple
Gram-= clear

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52
Q

What agent is used for the counter stain?

What color will gram + /- be?

A

Safranin
Gram + =purple
Gram - =red/pink

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53
Q

Gram + / -?

B. cereus

A

Gram +

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54
Q

Gram + / -?

S. aureus

A

Gram +

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55
Q

Gram + / -?

E. coli?

A

Gram -

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56
Q

Bacterial growth occurs via?

A

binary fission

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57
Q

What occurs during binary fission?

A

Gather nutrients
Duplicates nucleic acids and proteins
Splits into two daughter cells/clones of itself

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58
Q

Which bacterial phase are bacteria acclimating to their new enviroment and getting ready for cell division?

A

lag phase

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59
Q

Which bacterial phase are bacterial cells duplicating at a constant rate and are metabolically active?

A

Log phase

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60
Q

What bacterial phase are bacterial cells experiencing cell death and cell growth simulataniously and toxic waste products are generated in large amounts?

A

Stationary phase

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61
Q

What bacterial phase are cells autolysing and used up surrounding nutrients?

A

Death phase

62
Q

What are some physical factors needed for bacterial growth?

A

pH, Temp., moisture, O2, osmotic pressure

63
Q

What are some nutritional factors needed for bacterial growth?

A

Carbon source, nitrogen source

64
Q

What needs to be present in the medium for cell growth?

A

sulfur, phosphorous, Trace minerals and vitamins

65
Q

Explain procedure for a bacterial smear

A

Obtain slide. Using slide holder, pass slide through flames a couple times to get rid of oil on slide. Sterilize innoculation loop, and use it to obtain culture. Tap innoculation loop in middle of slide. ALLOW SLIDE TO DRY COMPLETLY or cell will lyse. Heat fix smear by passing it over top of the flame.

66
Q

After a _______ stain all bacteria will be the same color.

A

simple

67
Q

After a ________ stain all the bacteria will be different colors.

A

Differential

68
Q

What does TSA Stand for?

A

Trypticase soy agar

69
Q

Sterilization?

A

kills all microbiological contaminents (only fails once in a billion times)

70
Q

Disinfection?

A

Kills most microbes

71
Q

A light microscope can have up to a _____ objective.

A

1000x

72
Q

An electron microscope can have up to ___________ magnification.

A

10 million

73
Q

What is the purpose of a serial dillution?

A

To count the number of bacterial cells for volume and when doing a smear plate from the serial dillition it allows us to see single colonies

74
Q

T/F The catalytic activity of enzymes essential to ensure and regulate cellular metabolism?

A

True

75
Q

What is the formula for number of viable cells?

A

N x 10^ Absolute value of x

76
Q

N stands for?

A

Number of colonies you count

77
Q

x stands for?

A

dilution the plate represents

78
Q

What type of media contains extra/higher concentrations of nutrients, vitamins and trace elements that allow fastidious/finicky microbes to grow?

A

Enriched

79
Q

What type of media allows all microbes to grow in such a way as to allow them to be distingushed/categorized by their growth?

A

Differential

80
Q

What type of media has added chemicals that will inhibit the growth of some microbes but not others?

A

Selective

81
Q

What type of media contains chemical formulas which inhibit almost every microbes except one genus or a few species?

A

Highly selective

82
Q

TSA is a type of?

A

General medium

83
Q

Blood agar plates are a type of?

A

Differential

84
Q

What is the catabolism of RBC’s called?

A

hemolosis

85
Q

To digest blood agar, microbes release?

A

hemolysins

86
Q

PEA plates are a type of?

why?

A

Selective media, because they dissolve lipoploysaccrides of Gram-negative bacteria

87
Q

Mannitol salt agar is what type of media?

What does it do?

A

highly selective media

only allows Staphlyococci bacteria to grow

88
Q

MacConkey agar is?

What is it designed for?

A

Differential and Selective

Designed to inhibit growth of Gram +

89
Q

When a bacteria ferment lactose, what happens to ph?

A

it decreases

90
Q

When a bacteria cannot ferment lactose, what occurs to pH?

A

It increases

91
Q

EMB plates are the same as?

A

MacConkey

92
Q

What are the enzymes needed to break down a single glucose molecule?

A

Amylase and maltase

93
Q

Starch is a high molecular weight, branching polymer composed of ______ molecules.

A

glucose

94
Q

To break down lipids, cells release enzymes (AKA _________) breaking the ______ by adding water molecules to form __________ and __________.

A

lipases; ester bonds; glycerol and fatty acids

95
Q

What lipid subtrait did we use to see if the cell could hydrolyze lipids?

A

tributyrin

96
Q

What is casein broken down by in what process?

A

proteases

Broken down in a process called protolyisis

97
Q

Gelatin is produced by the hydrolysis of?

A

collagen

98
Q

What enzyme liquifies gelatin?

A

Gelatinase

99
Q

Aerobic cellular respiration is?

A

biooxidants in which oxygen can serve as the final e acceptor

100
Q

Anerobic respiration is?

A

biooxidants in which inorganic ions can serve as final e acceptor

101
Q

Fermentation is?

A

biooxidative process not requiring O2 in which organic substrate serves as final e-acceptor

102
Q

A carbohydrate can be?

A

sucrose or glucose

103
Q

On a bromocresol purple pH indicator what color is each?

ph 7?
ph 5.2?

A

pH 7=red

pH 5.2=yellow

104
Q

An inverted durham is used for?

A

testing gas production

105
Q

What are the Methyl red and Voges-Proskauer tests used for?

A

to test for glucose metabolism

106
Q

________ is a major substrate used by all enteric organisms for energy production.

A

Glucose

107
Q

End product of glucose metabolism depends on the the _______ _______ _______ present.

A

specific enzymatic pathways

108
Q

Methyl red specifically tests for differentiation between?

A

E. coli and E. aerogenes

109
Q

The pH indicator in Methyl red turns what color in extremely acidic solutions?
What color in less acidic solutions?

A

Extremely acidic= red

Less acidic=yellow

110
Q

Citrate test test for?

A

ability of bacteria to use citrate as the sole source of carbon

111
Q

Some organism will use citrate as their carbon source in the absence of?

A

glucose or lactose

112
Q

What enzyme facilitates transport of citrate in a cell?

A

citrate permease

113
Q

The citrate slant contains a ____ ________ which turns what color with positive citrate utilization?

A

pH indicator that turn from green to blue in for positive test for citrate utilization

114
Q

Nitrate reducation is?

A

a respiratory process that is microbially faciliated

115
Q

Nitrate —-_____________—>Nitrite ——__________—> Nitrogenous gases.

A

Nitrate reductase; Nitrite reductase

116
Q

And immediate color change to red after addition of A&B in the nitrate reduction test is considered

A

a partial reduction

117
Q

No color change after A & B, then a color change to red after the addition of zinc is considered a?

A

Negative test. None was reduced

118
Q

No color change after A & B, then no color change after the addition of zinc indicates?

A

Complete reduction because there is no nitrate left

119
Q

The oxidase test tests for?

A

the presence of the oxidase enzyme

120
Q

What is the large transmembrane complex found in bacteria that converts molecular oxygen into 2 molecules H20 via the e transport chain?

A

cytochrome oxidase

121
Q

What is the oxidase reagent used in the oxidase test?

A

tetramethyl p-phenyldiamine

122
Q

A change after 10 seconds to dark blue or purple in the oxidase test indicates?

A

+ for cytochrome oxidase

123
Q

The catalase test tests for?

A

if bacteria can degrade H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide)

124
Q

What does catalase break down hydrogen peroxide into>

A

Water and molecular o2

125
Q

Whats a positive test for the catalase enzyme?

A

Bubbling or fizzing with addition of H2O2

126
Q

Psycophiles has an optimum temp at?

A

12 degrees C

127
Q

Mesophiles has a optimum temp at?

A

37 degrees C

128
Q

Thermophiles have an optimum temp at?

A

62 degrees C

129
Q

Acidophiles have an optimum pH at?

A

3.5

130
Q

Neutrophiles have an optimum pH at?

A

7

131
Q

Alkalophiles have an optimum pH at?

A

10.5

132
Q

Aerobes?

A

require the presence of O2

133
Q

Microaerophiles require?

A

limited amounts of O2

134
Q

Obligate anaerobes require?

A

absence of free O2 for growth and will die if its present

135
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes?

A

do not need O2 because they do fermentation, but can survive in O2

136
Q

Faculative anaerobes?

A

can grow in presence or absence of oxygen

-preferentially prefer o2

137
Q

What media is used to test the oxygen requirements of a bacterium?

A

Melted agar medium

138
Q

Bacteriophages are made up of ________ surrounded b a __________.

A

nucleic acid core; protein coat

139
Q

________=absorbance

A

Optical density

140
Q

__________=0/1

A

Transmittence

141
Q

Percent transmittence is?

A

What percent of the incident light was actually able to pass through the bacterial culture

142
Q

If all the incident light passes through the test tube, then
Optical density=____
% Transmittance=_____

A

Optical density=0

% Transmittance=100%

143
Q

If no light is able to pass through the test tube, then
Optical density = ____
% Transmittance =_____

A

Optical density= 2

% transmittance=1%

144
Q

Define obligate intracellular parasite

A

obligate=must use host cell enzymes and nucleic acids
Intracelluar=react with in host cells
Parasite=exsist at expense of host

145
Q

Viruses that infect bacteria are?

A

bacteriophages

146
Q

What is a geometric shape with 20 triangular sides?

A

icosahedron

147
Q

What does UV light damage?

A

nucleic acids

148
Q

What is the major effect of UV damage?

A

thymine dimeritation

149
Q

An agent that either kills or inhibits growth of a microorganism is>

A

an antibiotic

150
Q

The general mechanisms of action of an antibiotic are?

A
Inhibits: an enzyme 
Interferes with:
cell membrane permeability 
cell wall synthesis 
DNA synthesis 
protein synthesis