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Dia Lab - DeLuca > Lab written final > Flashcards

Lab written final Flashcards

1
Q

feces is plural of latin term faex which means

A

residue

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2
Q

a newborns first feces

A

meconium

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3
Q

study of feces

A

scatology or caprology

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4
Q

feces contents

A

intestinal secretions: mucous
bile pigments and salts
bacteria and inorganic material
epithelial cells, leukocytes

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5
Q

what is the macroscopic examination volume of stool?

A

<200 gms/day

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6
Q

human fecal color is from

A

combo of bile and bilirubin

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7
Q

diarrheau mixed with mucous and blood is suggestive of

A

typhoid, amoebiasis, typhus, large bowel carcinoma

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8
Q

diarrhea mixed with mucous and pus is suggestive of

A

ulcerative collitis, regional enteritis, shigellosis, salmonellosis, acute diverticulitis, intestinal TB

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9
Q

pasty stool with high fat content is suggestive of

A

CBD obstruction, cystic fiberosis-butter stool

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10
Q

translucent gelatinous mucous clinging to the surface of formed stool is found in….

A

spastic constipation, excessive straining, mucous collitis

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11
Q

rice water stools which is colorless and odorless is suggestive of

A

cholera

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12
Q

stools may look like redcurrant jelly in

A

intussusception

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13
Q

how much undigested food, startch, eggs, cysts, parastic fragments, yeast, or leukocytes are normal in stool?

A

none

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14
Q

Large amounts of Leukocytes in stool is suggestive of

A

Chronic ulceratice collitis
Chronic bacillary dysentry
Localized Abscess,
Fistulas

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15
Q

mononuclear leukocytes in stool appear in

A

Typhoid

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16
Q

Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes in stool appear in

A

Shigellosis
Salmonellosis
Invasive E. coli diarrhea
Ulceratice collisis

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17
Q

absent leukocytes in stool are in

A 
cholera
viral diarrhoea 
non-specific diarhea
amoebic collitis
giardiasis
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18
Q

ex of hookworm

A

anyclostoma duodenale

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19
Q

ex of roundworm

A

ascaris lumbricoides

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20
Q

ex of tapeworm

A

taenia solium

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21
Q

ex of whipworm

A

trichuris trichura

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22
Q

ex of pinworm

A

enterobius vermicularis

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23
Q

stool pH

A

5.8-7.5

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24
Q

gram negative normal microbes of stool

A 
E.Coli
Enterobactor
Proteus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Bacterioides
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25
Q

gram positive normal microbes of stool

A

Clostridia
Lactobacilli
enterococci
anaerotic streptococci

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26
Q

Perioxidase action of hemoglibin in blood converts hydrogen peroxide to water and nascent oxygen. this oxygen oxides benzidine in acid medium to form green to blue complex

A

Benzidine test

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27
Q

the pituitary gland is located in the

A

sella tursica

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28
Q

blood supply to the pituitary gland

A

superior and inferior hypophseal arteries

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29
Q

secretes various trophic hormones

disease in this region may result in syndromes of hormone excess or deficiency

A

anterior pituitary gland

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30
Q

more of a terminus of axons of nuerons in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus
- storehouse for hormones
the main consequence of diesease in this area is disordered water homeostatis

A

Posterior pituitary gland

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31
Q

6 hormones of anterior pit gland

A 
PRL
GH
ACTH
LH
FSH
TSH
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32
Q

name the deficieny:

hypocortisolism

  • malaise
  • anorexia
  • weight loss
  • gastrointestinal disturbances
  • hyponatremia
  • pale complexion
A

ACTH deficiency

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33
Q

name the deficiency:

  • hypothyroidism
  • atrophic thyroid gland
A

TSH

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34
Q

name the deficiency:

inability to lactate postpartum
often 1st manifestation of Sheehan syndrome

A

Prolactin

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35
Q

when should you suspect pituitary apoplexy?

A

patient presents with variable onset of severe headache, nausea and vomitting, meningismus, vertigo

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36
Q

Hypopituitarism can be diagnosed by…

A

low levels of trophic hormones in the setting of low target hormones

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37
Q

how does prolactin differ from LH/FSH in regard to hypothalamic control?

A

Tonic hypothalamic inhibition by Dopamine

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38
Q

most common functional pituitary tumor

- usually a microadenoma

A

Prolactinoma

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39
Q

what type of tumors are most prolactinomas?

A

Microadenomas

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40
Q

Prolactin levels >200 almost always indicate what?

A

Prolactinoma

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41
Q

Do prolactin levels correlate with tumor size?

A

Yes, in macroadenomas

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42
Q

how do you screen for acromegaly?

A

check for high IGF-1 levels (>3 U/ml)

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43
Q

the neurohypophysis

  • major blood source : the inferior hypophyseal arteries
  • directly innervated by hypothalamic neurons
  • sensitive to neuronal damage to lesions that affect the pituitary stalk or hypothalamus
A

Posterior Pituitary Gland

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44
Q

what hormones does the posterior pituitary gland produce?

A

Vasopressin and Oxytocin

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45
Q
  • acts on the renal tubules to reduce water loss by concentrating urine
  • deficiency causes diabetes insipidus, characterized by the production of large amounts of dilute urine
A

Vasopressin

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46
Q
  • stims postpartum milk letdown in response to sucking
A

Oxytocin

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47
Q

true or false

pituitary tumors are usually macroadenomas

A

true

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48
Q

true or false

lack of galactorrhea essentially rules out a prolactinoma

A

false

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49
Q

true or false

prolactin levels correlate with the size of a prolactinoma

A

true

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50
Q

true or false

prolactin level of 230 in a nursing woman is probably due to prolactinoma

A

true

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51
Q

true or false

an enlarged sella tursia can be seen in a hypothyroid patient

A

true

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52
Q

inflammation and ____ increase during cardio injury

A

lipids

53
Q

F2-IsoPs is associated with

A

oxidation

54
Q

prostaglandin-like compounds formed from free radical mediated oxidation of arachidonic acid and excreted in the urine

A

F2-Isoprostanes (F2-IsoPs)

55
Q

measures protein damage due to oxidatative modification of the ApoB subunit on LDL cholesterol

A

Oxidized LDL

56
Q

high _____ levels precede development of metabolic syndrome and insulin insensitivity

A

OxLDL

57
Q

________ maintains endothelial health and is cardioprotective.
- reduced LDL oxidation, artery wall thickening, and free rad formation, and others

A

nitric oxide

58
Q

the quantificiation of small amounts of _____ in the urine can identify microvascular integrity and endothelial dysfunction

A

microalbumin

59
Q

which protein is a highly sensitive quantification that is in the acute phase and may be ass w/ heart disese

A

C-reactive

60
Q

compared to CRP (c -reactive protein), ______ testing can more accurately detect LOWER CONCENTRATION of CRP making it more useful in predicting a healthy persons risk for cardio disease
- marker of general and cardiac-related inflammation

A

hsCRP

61
Q

_____ activitiy can tell us if there is active inflammation within the vessel wall that could contribute to vulnerable plaque formation

A

Lp-PLA2

62
Q

_____ can be used to tell us if circulating white blood cells are being activiated in response to fissures, erosions or warming plaque

A

MPO

63
Q

bound to dense LDL, this releases chemicals and generates an immune response to damaged LDL. it is also associated with the dev of rupture prone plaque

A

Lp-PLA2

64
Q

enzyme produced and stored within polymorphonuclear (PMSs) leukocytes and monocytes

A

Myeloperoxidase (MPO)

65
Q

gut dysfunction:

____ promotes

  • impaired reverse cholesterol transport
  • cholesterol accumulation
  • foam cell formation
  • increased CV risk
  • ***IT IS A GUT DERIVED METABOLIC FORM FORM DIETARY NUTRIENTS
A

TMAO

66
Q

how many autosome pairs + 2 sex pairs are there?

A

22

67
Q

number of base pairs in the haploid genome

A

3.2 billion

68
Q

what type of DNA has much information and high complexity

A

single copy DNA

69
Q

what type of gene disorder is sickle cell, cystic fibrosis, and tay-sachs?

A

single gene

70
Q

what type of gen disorder is down syndrome?

A

chromosome

71
Q

prenatial diag test where the doctor removes a sample of _____ which are small projections that make up part of the placenta

A

chorionic villus

72
Q

a sample of amnoitic fluid is removed and tested for alpha-fetoprotein level

A

amniocentesis

73
Q

an abnormal gene can be swapped for a normal gene through _____

A

homologous recombination

74
Q

an abnormal gene can be required though _____, returning the gene to its normal function

A

selective reverse mutation

75
Q

instead of total hormone, _____ hormone which is metabolically active is tested to monitor hypothyroidism

A

free

76
Q

free thyroxine assays use ______ antibodies

A

anti T4

77
Q

used to diagnosie and follow thyrotoxic patients, not hypothyroid patients

A

total T3

78
Q

what two things are used in the diagnosis and monitoring of Graves

A

TSI and TBII

79
Q

TSH is lower particulary in 1st trimester. so ______ in pregnancy is unreliable

A

Free T4

80
Q

TSH upper and lower limits

A

4.12 and 0.45

81
Q

patients with _____ should be treated with L-thyroxine monotherapy (L-T4)

A

hypothyroidism

82
Q

what are the 4 oxidative stress markers?

A

glutathione, lipid peroxides, 8-OHdG, Coemzyme Q10

83
Q

classical inflammatory mediator like macrophases release lymphokines producing ____

A

IL-1

84
Q

what produces IL-2?

A

T-lymphocytes

85
Q

what are the 4 antioxidant nutrients?

A

C (Ascorbate)
E (Tocopherols)
Selenium
Glutathione

86
Q

signifigant bacteria in the urine is at least

A

10^5 bacteria/ml

87
Q

infection of anterior urethral tract. dysuria, urgency and frequency of urination

A

urethritis

88
Q

infection to the urinary bladder

- dysuria, frequency and urgenc, pyuria and hematuria

A

cystitis

89
Q

infection of one/both kidneys, sometimes lower tract also.

  • pyruia, fever, painful micturition
A

acute pyelonephritis

90
Q

> 3 symtomatic UTI’s within 12 months following clinical therapy is known as

A

recurrent

91
Q

acute, chronic, and interstitital pyleonephritis
renal abscess
perirenal abscess

– these are what class of UTI?

A

upper

92
Q

cystitis, prostatatis, and urethritis are what class of UTI?

A

lower

93
Q

S. Saprophyticus is restricted to infections in what people?

A

young sexually active women

94
Q

what is the most common route of infection of UTI

A

ascending

95
Q

blood borne spread to kidneys

- occurs in bacteraemia…mostly S.aureus

A

hematogenous spread

96
Q

which type of UTI has the typical stuff plus pelvic discomfort and abdominal pain?

A

cystitis

97
Q

which type of UTI is invasive, gives fever and chills, white blood cell casts, back pain, nausea and vomitting

A

pyleonephritis

98
Q

normal pH range of urine

A

4.6-8

99
Q

2 drugs of choice for UTI with renal failure

A

penicillins and cephalosporins

100
Q

enzyme and isoenzyme tumor markers

A

ALP, PAP

101
Q

hormone tumor marker

A

calcitonin

102
Q

oncofetal antigens tumor markers

A

AFP, CEA

103
Q

carb epitope recognized by monoclonal antibodies tumor markers

A

CA 15-3, 19-9, 125

104
Q

receptor tumor markers

A

estrogen, progesterone

105
Q

what two mutations can happen that are tumor markers

A

BRCA 1 and 2

106
Q

this enzyme tumor marker is seen with primary and secondary liver cancer. its level may be helpful in evaluating metastatic cancer with bone or liver involvment.

A

Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)

107
Q

this enzyme tumor marker is used for staging prostate cancer and for monitoring therapy. increased levels may be seen in osteogenic sarcoma

A

Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP)

108
Q

this antigen is used for screening and detection of ealry cancer. found mainly in prostatic tissue

A

Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)

109
Q
  • elevated levels of this is ass w/ medullary thyroid cancer
  • levels correlate with tumor volume and metastasis
  • useful for monitoring treatment and detecting the recurrence of cancer
A

calcitonin

110
Q

a glycoprotein that appears in pregnancy.

- high levels are useful markers for tumors of placenta and some tumors of testes

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

111
Q

what are the 2 most reliable markers oncofetal antigens?

A

alpha fetoprotein and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

112
Q

marker for hepatocellular and germ cell carcinoma

A

alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

113
Q

cell surface protein and well defined tumor marker

- marker for colorectal, GI, lung and breast carcinoma

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

114
Q

these markers either are antigens on the tumor cells surface or are secreted by tumor cells

A

carbohydrate markers

115
Q

which carb marker is the one for breast carcinoma?

A

CA 15-3

116
Q

which carb tumor marker is for ovarian and endometrial carcinomas?

A

CA 125

117
Q

which carb tumor marker is for both colorectal and pancreatic carcinoma

A

CA 19-9

118
Q

what are the 4 protein tumor markers?

A

B2-microglobulin, ferritin, thryoglobulin, and immunoglobulin

119
Q

what protein tumor marker marks multiple myeloma, Hodgkin lymphoma, and also increases chronic inflammation and viral hepatitis?

A

B2 microglubulin

120
Q

which protein tumor marker is for Hodgkin lymphoma, leukemia, liver, lung and breast cancer?

A

Ferritin

121
Q

which protein tumor marker is for detection of differentiated thyroid cancer?

A

Thyrogloblulin

122
Q

_____ is a free monoclonal immunoglobulin light chain in the urine and is a reliable marker for MM

A

Bence-Jones protein

123
Q

receptor for epidermal growth factor (EGF)

A

C-erbB2 (HER-2 Neu)

124
Q

cancer genes:

responsible for normal cell growth and differentiation

A

protooncogenes

125
Q

cancer genes:

involved in recognition and repair of damaged DNA

A

tumor suppression genes

126
Q

cancer genes:

responsible for regulation of apoptosis

A

apoptosis-related genes

127
Q

cancer genes:

alterations on these genes may lead to tumor development

A

DNA repair genes

128
Q

what 3 genes are susceptible tumor suppressor genes:

A

Retinoblastoma gene
P 53 gene
P 21 gene

129
Q

c-myc gene has been found to be translocated from chromosome 8 to 14. chromosom and than become activated in _______

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

Dia Lab - DeLuca (1 decks)

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