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Cross reference - year 5 > Last minute Path > Flashcards

Last minute Path Flashcards

1
Q

most common nephrotic syndrome in adults

A

focal segmental

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2
Q

JC virus reactivation

A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopahty

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3
Q

FFP vs cryoprecipitate

A 
FFP = all factors
Cryoprecipitate = F8, 13, vWF
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4
Q

factors that decrease in pregnancy

A

protein S and inhibitors of fibrinolysis

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5
Q

factors that increase in pregnancy

A

7, 10, 8, fibrinogen, fibrinolysis, vWF

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6
Q

commonest glial cell

A

astrocyte

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7
Q

hameochromatosis inheritance

A

AD

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8
Q

most common cause of pancreatitis

A

gallstone

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9
Q

effect of quinine on blood sugar

A

quinine = release of insulin = hypoglycaemia

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10
Q

features of Ab-mediated rejection

A

interstitial inflammation

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11
Q

reactivation risk for TB

A

10%

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12
Q

heart attack, now as[irate blood from pericardium?

A

ventricular rupture

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13
Q

coccidioides

A

fungus

valley flu

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14
Q

periorbital swelling, sinus pain, confusion

A

Rhizopus causing mucormycosis

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15
Q

what binds to CCR5

A

MIP-1a

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16
Q

increased risk of male VTE

A

x3

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17
Q

how are urgent diagnoses made in surgery?

A

frozen section

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18
Q

increase cytokine production in FMF

A

IL1 production

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19
Q

BBQ food poisoning

A

cryptosporidium

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20
Q

Whipple’s disease

A

acid-schiff (PAS) positive macropahges

  • malnutrition
  • abdo pain
  • stearrhoea
  • weight loss
  • arthralgia
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21
Q

dose of adrenaline

A

0.5mg 1:1000

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22
Q

complement important in chemotaxis

A

C5a

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23
Q

SLE type reaction

A

3

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24
Q

calculating clearance

A

urine conc x volime / plasma conc

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25
Q

SCID mutaiton

A

IL2R mutation

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26
Q

what does MHC III code?

A

C2, C4, FB

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27
Q

Aziathoprine side effect

A

hairloss

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28
Q

ulcer, doesnt heal

A

Leishmaniasis

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29
Q

LCA vs RCA

A

LCA (widow maker): most of L/atrium and ventricle

RCA (cardiac arrhythmia): inferior/posterior

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30
Q

H. pylori associated cancer

A

MALToma

adenocarcinoma

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31
Q

medulloblastoma

A

cerebellar signs

involves sub-arachnoid space

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32
Q

slate grey skin, joint pain, pancreatitis, liver deposits

A

haemochromatosis

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33
Q

CLL with p53

A

nad

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34
Q

cause of cellulitis (not staph aureus)

A

strep pyogenes

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35
Q

isolated elevated APT

A

Pagets

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36
Q

solubility test on sickle cell trait

A

some clouding

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37
Q

Type 2 vs Type 3

A

2: antibody-antigen on stationary wall
3: floating antigen-antibody complex

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38
Q

Waldenstrom’s macroglobinaemia

A

High IgM paraprotein

visual disturbances

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39
Q

High Ca and IVDU

A

Adult T cell lymphoma

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40
Q

incubation of campylobacter vs giardiasis

A

camp: 48-72 hours
Giardiasis: 7 days

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41
Q

rule about plasma and urine osmolality in SIADH

A

if urine osmolality is double plasma = SIADH

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42
Q

effect of pernicious anaemia on stomach

A

atrophic gastritis

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43
Q

most common breast cancer

A

invasive DCIS

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44
Q

E. cadherin +ve

A 
invasive ductal
(if negative = invasive lobular)
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45
Q

phyllodes

A

fibroepithelial

abudant stromal elements

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46
Q

deficiencies
+ve NBT
-ve NBT

A

+ve NBT = myeloperoxidase

-ve NBT = NAPDH oxidase def

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46
Q

deficiencies
+ve NBT
-ve NBT

A

+ve NBT = myeloperoxidase

-ve NBT = NAPDH oxidase def

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47
Q

IFN gamma receptor deficiency

A

TB

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48
Q

HELP blood film

A

MAHA

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49
Q

antibiotic in bronchiolotis

A

Ribavarin

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50
Q

what is the error prone step in HIV?

A

reverse transcriptase

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51
Q

Pembrolizumab

A

blocks PD1

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52
Q

TdT +ve cells

A

ALL

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53
Q

Hairy cells

A

filamentous projections

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54
Q

smudge cells

A

all cells smuched

cannot read peripheral blood smear

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55
Q

drug induced angiooedema

A

ACEi and NSAID

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56
Q

most common malignant vs benign tumour of ovary

A
  • malignant: serous carcinoma

- benign: serous cystadenomina

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57
Q

lyme disease vector

A

Ixodes

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58
Q

leishmaniasis vector

A

sandfly

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59
Q

trapanomsoma vector

A

tsetse fly

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60
Q

dengue/yellow fever vector

A

aedes

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61
Q

infection that causes peri/neonatal illness but no damage to fetus if infected antenatally

A

enterovirus

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62
Q

most common cause of HAP

A

Staph Aureus

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63
Q

full name of RANK-L

A

Receptor Activator of Nuclear Factor Kappa B Ligand

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64
Q

poor uptake on thyorid scn

A

Viral de Quervain’s

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65
Q

Rasburicase can trigger?

A

G6PDDD

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66
Q

psoriasis treatment

A

treat with TNF, IL-17, IL12-23`

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67
Q

type of amyloid in myeloid

A

Amyloid Light chain (AL) amyloidosis

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68
Q

unique cells in RA

A

Grimley-Sokoloff cells (hyperplastic synovial cells)

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69
Q

myocytes in Rhuematic Fever

A

Anitschkov

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70
Q

Buerger’s on angio

A

corkscrew appearancw

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71
Q

AA amyloidosis

A

Acute phase protein

secondary to chronic infection/inflammation

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72
Q

Testicular mass > 60 years

A

DLBCL

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73
Q

PBC association

A

Sjogrens

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74
Q

reticular dysgensis mutation

A

AK2

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75
Q

what are nephritic factors

A

auto-Abs directed against components of complement pathway

stabilise C3 convertases = C3 activation + consumption

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76
Q

gain of function mutation in cryoppyrin

A

= increase inflammation

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77
Q

loss of function in pyrin-marenostrin

A

= inc inflammation

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78
Q

PTPN22 and what if mutated

A

PTPN22 suppresses T cell activation

if mutated = fail to control T cell activation

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79
Q

CD28

A

stimulatory signal

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80
Q

CTL4

A

inhibitory signal

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81
Q

blood film in PK def

A

echinocytes

red cells have short projections

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82
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

A

15:17

PML-RARA

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83
Q

marker of stem cell

A

CD34

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84
Q

anaplastic large cell lymphoma

A

large epithelioid lymphocytes
t(2;5)
alk-1 = better prognosis

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85
Q

anticoag molecules BVs normally express

A

thrombomodulin
enothelial protein C receptor
TFPI
Heparans

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86
Q

cartilaginous bone tumours benign

A

osteochondroma
endochondroma
chondroblastoma

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87
Q

bone forming benign bone tumours

A

osteoid osteoma
osteoblastoma
osteoma

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88
Q

intraductual papilloma

A

large dilated duct
polypoid mass in middle
fibrovascular core

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89
Q

DCIS histology

A

cribiform
cells large
not many lumen
full of necrotic material

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90
Q

what is breast cancer grading based on?

A

tubule formation
nuclear pleomorphism
mitotic activity

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91
Q

mammogram age

A

47-73

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92
Q

smear ages

A

25-49

50-62``

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93
Q

special cell in Hashimotos

A

Hurthle cells (lots of eosinophillic cytoplasm)

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94
Q

cells in productive HPV

A

halo around nucelus (koilocyte)

95
Q

tumours associated with endometriosis

A

endometrioid

clear cell

96
Q

atherogenesis

A 
LDL
oxidised LDL
foam cell
foam cell apoptosis = plaque
VSMC = fibrous cap
97
Q

method behind chronic rheumatic fever

A

molecular mimicry

98
Q

where does H. pylori gastritis affect?

A

pyloric antrum/canal

99
Q

histo findings in RA

A

proliferative synovitis
pannus/formation
Grimley-Jokoloff cells

100
Q

gram -ve causes of HAP

A

Klebseilla

Pseudomonas

101
Q

2 different C diff toxins

A
  1. damage epithelial cells

2. disrupt tight junctions

102
Q

initiation phase of haemostasis

A
  1. damaged endothelium = exposed TF
  2. TF +F7 = F7a
  3. TF/T7a complex = activation of F9 and F10
  4. F10 + F5a complex formed
103
Q

amplification phase

A
  1. F10a/F5a complex = small amount of prothrombin to thrombin
  2. Thrombin then: activates plt, activates F11/F8/more F5a
  3. F11 then activates F9
  4. F5a, F8a, F9a bind to activated plt
104
Q

treatment of HAP

A

ciprofloxacin and vancomycin

105
Q

syphillis medium and shape

A

dark brown medium

spiral shaped

106
Q

staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

gram +ve clusters

107
Q

key feature of Congential Rubella Syndrome

A

thrombocytopaenia

108
Q

film over epiglottis

A

diptheria

109
Q

long term side effects of measles

A

encephalitis

pneumonitis

110
Q

where does rotavirus live? long term consequence?

A

reside in pharynx and GIT

encephalitis

111
Q

how do pancreatic cysts appear?

A

white spots

112
Q

renal tumour, benign, fat containing mass

A

angiomyolipoma

113
Q

seminoma

A

radiosensitive

white/smooth appearance

114
Q

where are endochondromas

A

hands

115
Q

blocks CTLA-4

A

ipilimumab

116
Q

blocks PD1

A

Nivolumab

117
Q

anti-TNF

A

adalimumab / Etanercept

118
Q

ALPS

A

autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome

119
Q

DVT INR target

A

2-3

120
Q

potent inhibitor of plasmin

A

alpha 2 microglobulin

121
Q

side effect of UFH

A

thrombocytopaenia with paradoxical thrombosis

122
Q

Evan’s syndrome

A

CLL associated with AIHA and IT{

123
Q

features of chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia

A

inc monocytes
older women
increased platelets
deletion of long arm Chr 5

124
Q

inc thrombin time

A

fibrinogen problem

125
Q

inc bleeding time

A

platelet probelm

126
Q

increase APTT/PTT

A

coagulation problem

127
Q

Hereditary angiooedema

A

C1 esterase inhibitor

128
Q

non-neutralising Ab

A

anti-p24 gag IgG

129
Q

protozoa that can cause infection in pregnancy

A

protozoa

130
Q

gram -ve rod meningitis

A

Haemophilius Influenzae

131
Q

what is the purpose HA protein

A
  • needs to be cleaved for virus to be able to fuse with endosome and release genoma
  • human airway tryptase
132
Q

how is ganciclovir activated

A

UL97 kinase enzyme

133
Q

MoA of foscarnet

A

non-competitive inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase

134
Q

MoA of cidofovir

A

competitive inhibitor of viral DNA synthesis

135
Q

herd immunity threshold

A

1 - 1/Ro

136
Q

inactivated vaccines

A

influenza
polio
cholera

137
Q

probkematic E coli in neonates

A

K antigen

138
Q

moulds

A

aspergillus
dermatophytes
agents of mucormycosis

139
Q

candida serology and agar

A

sabouraud agar

Beta D Glucan assay

140
Q

aspergillosis

A

IgE = ABPA

antigen detection = galactomannan

141
Q

MoA of amphotericin

A

binds to ergosterol in fungal cells membrane

= fungal cell death

142
Q

fluroquinolones MoA

A

act of alpha subunit of DNA gyrase

143
Q

macrolide method of resistance

A

erm genes cause modification of 23S RNA

reduces binding

144
Q

e.g. type III abx

A

vancomycin

145
Q

mutation HHV8 associated with

A

STTIM1 mutation

146
Q

haemophagocytic lymphtohistiocytosis

A

perforin deficiency

increased incidence of EBV

147
Q

classifications of worms

A
  • tape worm
  • flushes
  • roundworms
148
Q

strongyloids

A

only helminth capable of auto infection (via perineal skin)

tx: ivermectin

149
Q

filariasis spread by

A

blackflies and mosquitoes

150
Q

anti-CD52 Ab

A

Alemtuzimab

151
Q

proteasome inhibitor

A

Bortezemib

152
Q

Ab against CD25

A

Basiliximab

153
Q

CTLA-4-Ig fusion protein

A

Abatacept

decrease T cell activation

154
Q

antibody alpha-4-integrin

A

Natalizumab

155
Q

TNF-alpha antagonist

A

Etanercept

156
Q

inhibition of IL-12 and IL-23

A

Ustekinumab

157
Q

Ab to Il17

A

secukinumab

158
Q

probencid

A

uricosuric

159
Q

mutation in phytosterolaemia

A

mutation in ABC G5, ABC G8

160
Q

deficiency of MTP (Microsomal triglyceride transfer protein)

A

A-lipoproteinaemia

161
Q

ABC A1 mutation

A

Tangier disease

162
Q

NPC1L1

A

NPC1L1 blocks

163
Q

anti-PCSK9

A

Evolocumab

164
Q

what is MCAD?

A

fatty acid oxidation disorder

can’t produce acetyl-CoA from fatty acids

165
Q

presentation of organic acidurias

A

unusual odour
lethargy
feeding probelms

166
Q

congenital erythropoietic prophyria enzyme

A

uroporphyinogen III synthase

167
Q

deficiency in prophyria cutanea tarda

A

uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

168
Q

GLP-1 anaolgues

A

exanatide

169
Q

DPP-4 inhibitor

A

Sitagliptin

170
Q

Sulphonylurea

A

Glipizide

171
Q

statin enzyme

A

CYP 3A4

172
Q

gene mutation in TTP

A

ADAM-ST13

173
Q

Bernard Soilier syndrome

A

mutation GLP-1b

174
Q

Hairy cell leukaemia

A

subtype of CLL

tartare resistant acid phosphatase

175
Q

CMML translocation

A

5;12

176
Q

features of nodular HL

A

non-classical

popcorn cells

177
Q

acanthocytes

A

hyposplenism

178
Q

cause of eosinophiluria

A

tubulointerstitial nephritis

179
Q

Haemophillius Ducreyi

A

chancroid

painful genital ulcer, painful swollen lymph nodes

180
Q

haemophilliius ducreyi agar

A

chocolate agar

181
Q

dengue vector

A

aedes mosquito

182
Q

erythema chronicum migrans

A

Lyme disease

183
Q

Ixodes tick

A

lyme disease

184
Q

Trypanosoma vector

A

Tsetse fly

185
Q

Leishmania vector

A

Sand-fly

186
Q

Purple eyelids / Romanas sign

A

Chagas disease

187
Q

Draughtsmen colonies

A

S. pneumoniae

188
Q

urinary antigen +ve

A

S pneumoniae

189
Q

K1 antigen

A

E.coli in neonates

190
Q

cultured on charcoal yeast

A

legionella pneumphillia

191
Q

cavitating lesion organisms

A

TB
S. Aureus
K. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

192
Q

c. perfringnes

A

releases entertoxin
8-16 hours incubation
24 hours watery diarrhoea

193
Q

ETEC

A

toxigenic
travellers diarrhoea
jejunum and ileum

194
Q

EPEC

A

paediatric

infantile diarrhoea

195
Q

EIEC

A

dysentry

cramps, N+V

196
Q

EHEC

A

0157:H7 = HUS

dysentry

197
Q

STEC

A

shiga-toxin

anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, ARF

198
Q

vibrio parahaemolyticus

A

caribbean cruise ships/Japan

raw/undercooked seafood

199
Q

vibrio vulnificus

A

shellfish handlers = cellulitis

HIV = sepsis, D&V, death

200
Q

entamoeba histolytica

A

dysentry = mobile trophozite with 4 nuclei

cysts ingested = flask shaped ulcer

201
Q

giardia lamblia

A

pear shaped
trophozoite, 2 nuclei
ingested cyst = no invasion, malabsorption fat/protein

202
Q

trophozoite with 2 nuclei
pear shaped
string test

A

giardia lamblia

203
Q

trophozoite with 4 nuclei
MSM
flask shaped ulcer

A

Entamoeba histolytica

204
Q

castaneda medium

A

Brucellosis

205
Q

ganciclovir MoA

A

guanosine analogue

viral UL97 protein kinase activation

206
Q

viral interstitial pneumonitis

A

CMV

207
Q

monospot, heterophile AB test

A

EBV

208
Q

paediatric transplant patient

mutli-organ damage

A

adenovirus

209
Q

genotypic resistance assay

A

CMV
HIV
HBV
HCV

210
Q

phenotypic resistance assay

A

HSV

211
Q

rocky mountain fever symptoms

A

thrombocytopaenia
hyponatraemia
elevated liver enzymes

212
Q

phenytoin toxicity

A

hypotension
heart block
arrhythmias
ataxia

213
Q

theophylline OD

A 
nausea
diarrhoea
tachycardia
headaches
seizures
214
Q

procainamide toxicity

A

rash
fever
agranulocytosis

215
Q

Albright’s osteodystrophy physical signs

A 
short height
short 4/5th metacarpals
decreased IQ
endocrinopathies 
(mum mutation)
216
Q

autoantibody in AIHA

A

Ab against Rh antigen

217
Q

Efalizumab

A

antibody against CD11 alpha on T cells

treatment of psoriasis

218
Q

fully monoclonal Ab to TNF-alpha

A

adalimumab

219
Q

Lomitapine

A
  • inhibits microsomal triglyceride transfer protein (MTP)

- blocks release of VLDL from liver = lower LDL levels

220
Q

when is lomitapine?

A

used in treatment of familial hypercholesterolaemia

221
Q

microscopy for candida and aspergillus

A

methenamine silver stain

222
Q

organisms are people with CGD at risk of

A 
catalse +ve
E.coli
Staph Aureus
Listeria
Klebsiella
Candida
223
Q

Tofacitinib

A

inhibits tyrosine kinase (JAK)

reduced expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines

224
Q

indication of tofacitinib

A

RA
UC
psoriatic arthritis

225
Q

reversal of rivaroxaban

A

adexanet alfa

226
Q

treatment of acute promyelocytic leukaemia

A

all-transretinoic acid

227
Q

abs in heparin induced thrombocytopaenia

A

against heparin and platelet factor 4

228
Q

symptoms of heparin induced thrombocytopaenia

A

prothrombotic
thrombocytopaenia
immune complex formation

229
Q

SCD inheritance

A

AD

230
Q

idarucizumab

A

reversal agent of dabigatran

231
Q

poor prognostic marker in ALL

A

9;22

232
Q

androgen antagonist, prostate cancer

A

bicalutamide

233
Q

H& E stain

A

haematoxylin and eosin

234
Q

alport syndrome

A

nephritic syndrome
cataracts
sensorineural deafness

235
Q

nodules on renal biopsy in Diabetes

A

Kimmelsteil Wilson nodules

236
Q

gram positive rods

A 
ABCDL
Actinomyces
Bacilus
Clositridium
Diptheria
Listeria

Cross reference - year 5 (22 decks)

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