Latg Motherload Part 2 Flashcards
The 3 steps of goal setting are:
1) identify goal, 2) decide strategy, 3) allocate resources to attain goal
Civil right act is also called:
Affirmation act
Acts to be familiar with:
Equal opportunity act, civil rights act, age discrimination act, American disabilities act
Organization sends this to CRO. Describes facility and and work expected by contractor.
Request for proposal (RFP)
Includes labor rate (salary/benefits), fee, overhead (hiring/training/recruiting)
Cost proposal
The heirarchy of human needs is also called:
Abraham Maslows Heirarchy
First 4 of Hiararchy of human needs:
Physiological needs, safety needs, belonging and social needs, esteem needs.
Last 4 of heirarchy of needs:
Need to know and understand, auesthetic needs, self-actualization, transcendence
Fair salary, benefits, equipment, safe workplace.
Physiological needs
Company policies and equipment, supportive manager.
Safety needs
Belonging to peers, supervisors, etc. group programs can help.
Belonging and social needs
Recognition, promotion, status symbols.
Esteem needs
Personal goals and fulfillment.
Self actualization
Gaining satisfaction from developing others and company goals.
Transcendence
Mirror principle
People generally react toward you the way you act toward them.
3 ‘is its’ of managing time effectively
Is it necessary, is it appropriate, is it efficient.
ADDIE is used for
How to develop a training program.
A in ADDIE is for:
Analyze: what are training needs?
D (1) is for:
Design: what are learning objectives.
D (2) is for:
Develop: create the training
I in ADDIE is for:
Implement: deliver the training
E in ADDIE is for:
Evaluate: does the training meet the needs of the audience?
Part of ADDIE are the 3 learning styles:
Auditory, visual and kinesthetic
Andragogy is:
Adult learning, and focuses on the importance / relevance of information to the job.
If someone is intrinsically motivated:
They are motivated by the learning experience.
If someone is extrinsically motivated:
They are motivated outwardly by reaching goal.
SMART is part of design and develop in ADDIE. The four steps are:
Specific, measurable, attainable, relevant and time-bound.
ROE stands for:
Return on expectations. There are 4 levels.
LMS stands for:
Learning management system. Refering to learning-teaching programs/systems.
The 1st step in project management:
Limitation: scope of project determined. Cost/benefit. Needs for goals. Review current operations. Budget.
Step 2 of project management:
Planning: flow chart? Plan/map. Time, cost, resources.
Step 3 of project management:
Execution: implement plan, allocate resources/personnel/materials/funds
4th step of project management:
Monitoring and controlling: note any errors or weaknesses and correct.
5th/last step of project management:
Closing: project accepted. Past implementation review.
LEED stands for:
Leadership and environmental design certification program. (Living roofs). Awarded by US Green building council.
The Federal Government operates on what fiscal year schedule?
Oct.1st to Sep. 30th
Research likely to stir controversy:
Substance abuse, pain, surgical procedures, psychological/behavioral, high bio containment, genetically engineered animals, infant animals, USDA- covered species (cats, dogs, primates), stem cells (especially human derived.
All USDA _____ _____ and PHS _____ __ _____ are available to the public through the Freedom of Information act (FOIA) and E-FOIA.
Inspection reports, letters of insurance.
Organizations that support positive research media:
National Association of Biomedical Research (NABR), Americans for Medical Progress (Amp), AAALAS Foundation
5 steps of disaster planning:
Prevent, prepare, respond, recover, mitigate.
Primate plans must include what 5 things?
Social grouping, environmental enrichment, special considerations, exemptions, restraint devices (including limits on time)
PHS policy ( us Public Health Service policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals) applies to who?
All research and educational activities done by PHS agency, including NIH and CDC.
Who enforces PHS?
OLAW
OLAW is under what organization?
NIH
This organization arose from the Health Research Extension Act
PHS
The Health Research Extension Act mandates______
IACUC and veterinary standards for facilities under NIH Funding.
IACUC. And veterinary standards are reflected in___
PHS
4 PHS guidlines:
1) Guide for the care and use of laboratory animals, 2) is goverment principles for the utilization and care of vertebrate animals, 3) animal welfare regulations, 4) AVMA Guidelines for the euthanasia of animals
If an institution is under both USDA & OLAW, OLAW expects reconciliation of both policies. This means following what 2 sets of standards?
AWA (minimum standards) and PHS (raises bar, especially in mice, rats, and birds).
This policy requires occupational Health and Safety standards for employees working with animals.
PHS
The Animal Welfare Insurance is covered by who?
OLAW
The Animal Welfare Assurance contains what?
Describes essential animal care and use component, complies with PHS policy, must be approved by OLAW, valid for 5 yrs before new assurance submitted to OLAW.
The semi-annual program review is required by __ and conducted by __.
OLAW, IACUC
The ___ through ___ maintains a website to request FOIA records.
USDA, APHIS
These two entities require IACUC physically give annual review of animal facilities. (Separate from PHS semi annual review).
AWA & PHS
These two entities can hold unannounced inspections to ensure AWA compliance.
USDA & DEA
USDA APHIS personnel are called
Veterinary medical officers
VMO’s make an unannounced visit at least* once a year. T or F
True
AAALAC International is:
Accrediting organization, accreditation is every 3 years,
Most common issues seen by AAALAC:
Occupational health and safety, IACUC, HVAC
The Federal Controlled Substance Act is enforced by:
DEA
The Federal Controlled Substance Act controls:
Addictive drugs
Drugs are arranged from 1-5 with 1 being the ____ addictive.
Most
When acquired a drug, the DEA requires that you record what? (5)
Name of substance, form and quantity per container, # of containers required, date controlled substance reacquired, name and address where each substance acquired.
When dispensing a drug, what does the DEA require? (4)
Name of individual who dispensed, date, volume/quantity, name/ initials of dispenser
During biannual inventory, what does the DEA require?
Name of substance, form and quantity per container, number of opened and unopened containers.
What are the 2 ways to get rid of drug waste?
A reverse distributor can be contacted to arrange disposal of drugs. Complete DEA form 41 and give to special agent in area.
A resource for DEA rules and regulations:
DEA’s practitioners manual.
Organization for Economic Co-Operation and Development (OECD) is:
International body of GLP regulations. GLPs codified in their principles of good laboratory practice and compliance monitoring.
The Hazard Communication Standard (Hcs) is also known as :
Right to know
The HCS covers what?
Chemical labeling, trade secrets, SDS, written implementation program, hazard determination, employee training.
What organization controls the movement of nuclear materials?
The Nuclear Regulatory Commission
What are agreement states?
US states that agree to regulate radioactive material according to Atomic Energy Act.
Low level radioactive waste has been exposed to what type of radiation?
Neutron radiation.
What are the 4 types of medical waste?
Infectious, hazardous, radioactive, general.
The EPA, hs regulations regarding what? (fuego)
Emissions from medical incinerators and has requirements under FIFRA for medical waste treatment with chemicals.
What does FIFRA stand for?
Federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act.
The ___ ___ must report study suspension to USDA.
Institutional official
___ will report AWA violations to USDA.
OLAW
___ requires _____ to report noncompliance, devisions from Guide, suspensions by IACUC.
OLAW, IO/IACUC
This is a citation by the USDA.
A non-compliance item
A ____ NCI (non compliance item) is cited during an inspection.
Direct
A good health surveillance program includes:
Proper chemical source/vender, quarintine & testing procedures, meticulous husbandry, designated traffic patterns, clinical disease investigation, colony surveillance, contaminate containment, microbial barrier maintenance, record keeping, testing of biologicals.
Pathogen free differ from germ free organism by:
Pathogen free animals are specifically bred to be rid of one pathogen, germ free have no microbes other than necessary for life.
Surveillance programs date how far back from the animals actual health?
4-8wks to 3mos
Common health outbreaks:
Pasteurella pneumotropica, rat and mouse parvo, helicobacter
Pinworm detection should include a tape test to detect what species of pinworm?
Syphacia spp.
Mice have to be tested post mortem for:
Aspicularis spo.
How long does it take animals to build immune response?
10-14 days
If animals test positive 2-3 weeks after arrival, they are considered to have contracted the disease when?
At the facility/ shipped with container.
Samples taken during this time period are considered to have developed the disease after arrival.
4-6 wks of being in facility
Antibody tests can only be used on these animals, whose immune systems can fight disease.
Immunocompetent. Animals who are not immunocompetant or are very young don’t have the antibodies to fight disease/ show up on test.
PCR tests check what?
DNA sequences.
RT-PCR checks what?
RNA sequences
PCR test should be for active infections only bc:
Test can be false + for DNA still present after illness is faught off.
PCR is used for multiple virus detection, but is test of choice for:
Helicobacter spp. (Bacteria)
Other than helicobater spp. The choice tests for bacteria detection are:
Bacterial culture on artificial media
Bacteria that agar tests are used for:
Pasterella pneumotropica, citrobacter rodentium, pseudomonuos aeruginosa.
PRIA stands for:
PCR rodent infectious agent
New process that can detect low numbers of nucleic acid from viruses, bacteria and other pathogens. Does NOT depend on seroconversion or antibodies. Noninvasive, can swab anywhere on animal.
PRIA
Why are seroconversions tedious?
Can take 2 weeks. Quarantine necessary.
_______ testing allows distinction btwn active infection and low level environmental contamination.
PRIA
Sentinels must be:
8-12 wks old minimum. Free of agents currently on study.
Sentinel animals may be monitored for the following opportunistic agents:
Staphylococcus aureus, pseudonomous aeruginosa, pneumocytosis carini
Sentinel animals shouldn’t be tested before this age bc immune system needs to develop.
3-6wks
Why should young animals be used as sentinels?
Old animals develop non- specific antibodies that interfere w/ ELISA on MFI assays.
Quality assurance training is:
Ongoing verification of systems
When on H2O containers, RO means:
Reverse osmosis.
RODAC plates are:
Replicate organism detection and counting. Special agar plates for detecting microbes.
Atp test swabs can be used:
To test for microbes.
Luminometer can be used to test light response of microbes. It is more rapid but,
Less specific.
To check autoclave is functional, paper strips/vials of spores of Bacillus stearothermophllus are placed in steam permeable envelope. Why?
This bacteria is nonpathogenic, thermophiloc, gram + bacteria.
These types of outlets are recommended for areas where electrical outlets may come in contact with water. Outlets turn off when current does not flow as expected.
Grand Fault Circuit Interrupter Outlet (GFCI)
GFCCI outlets are required in what facilities?
Facilities with aquatic species
The Gaus line designates what?
The safe area from the magnetic field surrounding the MRI
Beyond the 5 Gauss line, …
Magnetic materials are prohibited
This term refers to the amount of exposure one can receive w/o adverse effects.
Threshold limit value (TLV)
Threshold limit value doesn’t account for:
Culmutive exposure.
2 ways to monitor anesthetic gas exposure:
Portable analyzer, personal monitoring system (badge)
OSHA has brought these 2 things into alignment.
Hazard Communication Standard, Globally Harmonized Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS)
The United Nations created:
GHS
The Inspection Procedures for the Hazard Communication Standard was created by. The ____ ____ and establishes policies/ procedures to uniformly enforce HCS.
OSHA directive
This causes radioisotopes or radionuclides.
Ionizing radiation
Ionizing radiation can be caused by:
X-rays, PET, scanners, fluoroscopes, biological tracers
Atoms of the same elements w/ different mass #’s are ____.
Isotopes (ex: 14^C is a carbon isotope)
14^C and 11^C are radioactive bc they are:
Unstable
Isotopes undergo decay to become:
Stable
Decay= _____ _____=free radicals +/- ____________
Ionizing radiation, break down of DNA
This can cause cancer, immunosuppression, GI injury
Ionizing radiation/ break down of DNA
What are the 3 types of radiation?
Alpha, Beta, gamma (x-rays?)
These particles are emitted from radioisotopes like americium -241 and used in smoke detectors.
Alpha particles
alpha particles and helium have the same nucleus (2 protons and 2 neutrons). They differ in the amount of _____.
electrons
These particles can cause ionizing damage to tissue. Cannot penetrate skin. Cytotoxic. If ingested or penetrates wound, most damage would be in local area. For this reason, UM-223 used for inter-tumor administration.
alpha particles
These particles are subatomic, with either 1e- or 1e+. Thousands of times smaller than alpha particles. higher speed and energy than alpha. (ex. neg. charged: Tritium (3H), Carbon -14 (14C), phosphorus-32 (32P), sulfer-35 (35S). ) (ex: carbon-11, nitrogen 13, oxygen 15, fluorine 18.)
B-particles
These particles are moderately penetrating.
B particles
B-particles also produce a secondary form of radiation called ___ or “breaking radiation”. A type of _______ produced as particles decelerate through matter.
Bremsstrahlung, x-ray
