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Neuro II Exam 2 COPY > Lecture 1: Neurophysiology Review > Flashcards

Lecture 1: Neurophysiology Review Flashcards

1
Q

In which region of the brain are the tight-junctions between capillary endothelial cells ABSENT; whats the significance?

A
  • Circumventricular organs (i.e., area postrema, posterior pituitary)
  • High permeability to circulating blood signals, allowing it to detect various chemical messengers in the blood and CSF
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2
Q

Activation of which of the following receptors is most likely to lead to a significant calcium influx?

A) AMPA receptor

B) NMDA receptor

C) GABA-b receptor

D) Kainate receptor

A

B) NMDA receptor

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3
Q

Which of the following is the most likely to occur in a patient deficient in P-glycoprotein at the blood brain barrier?

A) Measurable levels of penicilln in the CSF

B) CSF glucose levels below normal

C) CSF K+ levels higher than normal

D) Increased CSF protein concentration

A

A) Measurable levels of penicillin in the CSF

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4
Q

What are 3 major components of the BBB?

A

1) Astrocyte
2) Pericyte = contractile!
3) Endothelial cell

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5
Q

Which ion does the NMDA vs. AMPA receptor cause the influx?

A
  • NMDA —> Ca2+ influx
  • AMPA —> Na+ influx
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6
Q

What are 5 molecules/types of molecules that move across the BBB via passive diffusion?

A

1) H2O
2) CO2
3) O2
4) Unbound steroid hormones
5) Lipid soluble molecules

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7
Q

What is the transporter for glucose to move from the blood across the BBB; does it depend on insulin?

A
  • Glut1
  • NOT insulin-dependent
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8
Q

What is the role of the Na+-K+-2Cl- transporter at the BBB?

A

Moves all 4 ions OUT of the CSF

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9
Q

Role of the Organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT)?

A

Sensor for plasma osmolarity to trigger thirst/ADH release

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10
Q

Role of the Area Postrema?

A

Initiation of vomiting in response to chemotactic triggers

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11
Q

What is the clinical significance of the Circumventricular organs when it comes to toxins?

A

Areas are more sensitive to damage due to toxins in the blood because they lack tight junctions

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12
Q

The vasculature in the brain is innervated with _________ (pretty much the only place in the body)

A

Nociceptors

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13
Q

Which ions are excitatory and which are inhibitory for ionotropic receptors on the post-synaptic membrane?

A
  • Ca2+ or Na+ = cell depolarization and epsp occurs
  • Cl- or K+ = hyperpolarization and ipsp occurs
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14
Q

What NTs activate the NMDA receptor and what does this cause?

What is the speed/duration of the EPSP produced?

A
  • Glutamate and aspartate
  • Allows Ca2+ influx
  • Slow onset and prolonged duration
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15
Q

What are the modulatory sites on the NMDA receptor?

A
  • Glycine binding site
  • Mg2+ binding site
  • PCP binding site
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16
Q

What are the functions of glycine, Mg2+, and PCP on the NMDA receptor?

A
  • Glycine serves as a co-agonist; required for EAA (glutamate) to have a affect)
  • Mg2+ blocks the channel; removed by depolarization
  • PCP binds inside the channel, blocks the channel
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17
Q

What is the significance of both the AMPA and NMDA receptors working together to maintain EPSPs in the post-synaptic cell?

A
  • AMPA provide fast depolarization
  • NMDA receptors determine the duration of the depolarization
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18
Q

The AMPA receptor contains a binding site for which pharmacologic agent that inhibits the response to NT?

A

Benzodiazepine

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19
Q

Metabotropic receptors are found on which parts of a synapse?

A
  • Both pre- and post-synaptic location
  • Pre-synaptically control the release of NT
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20
Q

Describe the recycling (re-uptake) system for EAA’s and the role of neurons and glia?

A
  • Neurons and glia: use Na+-dependent secondary active transport and have high affinity for EAAs (glutamate)
  • Glia: convert glutamate –> glutamine and release into ECF
  • Neurons: take up the glutamine and convert back to glutamate
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21
Q

EAA re-uptake is ______ dependent

A

Na+

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22
Q

When excessive EAA is released leading to an increased intracellular [Ca2+] what 4 things are activated?

A

1) Phospholipase A2
2) Calcineurin (phosphatase)
3) Mu-calpain (protease)
4) Apoptotic pathway

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23
Q

What occurs with the activation of phospholipase A2?

A
  • Release of arachidonate from membrane, which acts at ryanodine receptor on ER
  • Release of Ca2+ from intracellular stores —> Unfolded protein response
  • Imparied function of mitochondria
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24
Q

Activation of Mu-calpain (protease) with excessive EAA release causes what?

A
  • Proteolysis
  • Spectrin (structural damage to cell)
  • elF4G
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25
Q

Activation of calcineurin leads to the activation of ______, which increases the synthesis of ______

A

Activation of calcineurin leads to the activation of NOS, which increases the synthesis of NO

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26
Q

Influx of excessive calcium causes disruption of mitochondrial membranes and initiates which cell death pathway?

Which cells are affected?

A

Apoptosis in any cell receiving synaptic input from the over active cell, even if the cell isn’t impacted by the original insult

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27
Q

Which NT acts on an ionotropic receptor in the area postrema and triggers vomiting?

A

Serotonin

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28
Q

Which NT produced in Substania Nigra and Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA)?

A

Dopamine

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29
Q

Which NT produced in the Locus Coeruleus?

A

Norepinephrine

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30
Q

Which NT produced in the Raphe nuclei?

A

Serotonin

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31
Q

Which NT produced in the Pedunculoponti tegmental and Laterodorsal nuclei?

A

ACh

32
Q

Which NT produced in the Tuberomammillary Nucleus of the Hypothalamus?

A

Histamine

33
Q

What are the 2 pathways from the Reticular Activating System?

A

1) Dorsal - through the thalamus
2) Ventral - bypasses the thalamus

34
Q

To move from a coma —-> arousal/wakefulness requires which NTs?

A

EAA an ACh

35
Q

To move from arousal (wakefulness) —-> awarness requires which NT’s?

A

NE and Serotonin (5-HT)

36
Q

To move from awarness —-> alertness which NT is required?

A

Dopamine

37
Q

Which part of the brain is involved in the initiation of intended movement and suppression of unwanted movement?

A

Basal ganglia

38
Q

Major function of the Premotor cortex?

A
  • Determines whether it’s okay to move
  • Identifies the goal and the motion required to meet that goal
39
Q

Major function of the Supplementary motor cortex?

A
  • Postural control
  • Identifies the specific motor sequence required and plans the motions
  • Changes tactics if necessary
40
Q

Function of the S1 and S2 areas of the cortex?

A
  • S1: initial processing - identify the charactrisitcs of wthat activated the receptors
  • S2: stereognosis (ability to recognize an unseen object by touch), comparing 2 objects, ties to memory
41
Q

What is the function of the parietal-temporal-occipital (PTO) association area?

A

Naming objects

42
Q

Which pathway in the basal ganglia is lost in Huntington disease; leads to?

A
  • Loss of indirect pathway
  • Results in excess motion
43
Q

To allow for motion the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia must be inhibited at th same time the direct pathway is activated, how is this accomplished?

A
  • Dopamine from nigrostriatal neurons binds to D2 receptors
  • D2 inhibits the neuron
44
Q

How is the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia activated; leads to?

A
  • ACh activates GABAergic input
  • When active, inhibits motion
45
Q

Function of the medial and lateral parts of the Spinocerebellum?

A
  • Medial: postural control
  • Lateral: correct ongoing motion
46
Q

Function of the Cerebrocerebellum?

A

Planning of complex motion; motor memory

47
Q

Input from the ______ is abolished in Parkinson disease, which has what 2 effects?

A
  • SNPC input is abolished
  • Direct pathway becomes difficult to activate
  • Indirect pathway becomes overactive
48
Q

Function of the Superior Olivary Nucleus and its medial/lateral aspects?

A
  • Superior Olive: localization of the source of the sound
  • Medial: detect intra-aural time difference
  • Lateral: detect intra-aural volume difference (‘L’ = loud!)
49
Q

Function of the Inferior Colliculus and Superior Colliculus?

A
  • Inferior Colliculus: suppresses information from echoes
  • Superior Colliculus: creates 3D map of where sound is
50
Q

Which cortex provides a tonotopic map of the sound, loudness, etc?

A

Primary auditory cortex

51
Q

Which cortex provides a complex map of sound, including harmonies, etc?

A

Auditory association cortex

52
Q

Which otolith organs are essential for horizontal and vertical motion detection?

A
  • Utricle = horizontal
  • Saccule = verticule
53
Q

What type of motion is detected by the horizontal (aka lateral), anterior, and posterior portion of the semicircular canals?

A
  • Horizontal (aka lateral) = turning in circles
  • Anterior = falling forward
  • Posterior = falling backwards
54
Q

The hair cells of the cochlea are surrounded by what?

What is the ion content of this fluid?

A
  • Endolymph
  • High in K+/low in Na+
55
Q

What are the major differences between Aδ and C sensory fibers of nociception?

A
  • Aδ have a larger diamters (1-5um) and a faster conduction velocity; slightly myelinated = FAST, SHARP pain
  • C fiber have a small diameter (0.2-1.5um) and a slow conduction velocity; unmyelinated; SLOW, DULL pain
56
Q

What is the importance of the Insular Cortex in the central processing of pain?

Damage to this area causes what?

A
  • Relays nociceptive input to limbic system
  • Emotional component of pain
  • Damage produces pain asymbolia - painful inout are recognized as painful, but not perceived as unpleasant
57
Q

What is the difference between the Spinothalamic and Spinoreticulothalamic path in regards to processing of pain?

A
  • Spinothalamic is for fast/sharp pain (Aδ)
  • Spinoreticulothalamic for slow/dull pain (C fibers)
58
Q

Why is the Spinoreticulothalamic path particularly important in regards to pain?

hint: gate-theory

A
  • This pathway has a synapse in the spinal cord at the level where the afferent enters the spinal cord
  • Gating mechanism (gate theory of pain): non-nociceptive input from Aδ fibers (cutaneous) inhibit painful inputs via pre-synaptic inhibition
  • Descending opioid inputs via raphe nuclei also act to decrease transmission at this synapse (also prescribed opioids)
59
Q

Peripheral nociceptors can be activated by which chemicals; how does this affect the perception of pain?

A
  • Substance P and Bradykinin
  • Leads to sensitization of the nociceptor –> increased activation w/ similar stimulus –> PAIN PERCEIVED INCREASES
60
Q

Role of V2 and V4 of the visual cortex?

A

V2 = depth perception (visualzing the shark in the random dot sterogram!)

V4 = color perception

61
Q

Function of the dorsal visual pathway vs. ventral visual pathway?

A
  • Dorsal = use of visual information in motion ( i.e., playing catch w/ friends)
  • Ventral = higher cognitive processing using visual information (i.e., naming objects, etc..)
62
Q

Function of the Lateral geniculate body?

A
  • Eye movements!
  • Focus
  • Detection of motion and intial processing (what’s the interesting stuff here)
63
Q

Major function of the Primary Visual Cortex (V1)?

A
  • Initial processing
  • Identifying the edges/countours
  • Columns: devoted to orientation of the lines in visual field
  • Job: create a contour map of the visual field
  • Blobs: initial color processing
64
Q

High pitched sounds cause maximum bending where in comparison to low pitched sounds?

A
  • High pitched = close to the oval window
  • Low pitched = at the helicotrema
65
Q

The muscle spindle is sensitive to ______ of the muscle

A

Length

66
Q

The ends of the muscle spindle contain what time of efferent neuron?

A

Gamma motor neuron; only influences the muscle spindle; controls sensitivity of muscle spindle

67
Q

Which reflex detects the amounts of force in contracting muscle and causes inhibition if the force of contracting muscle could tear the tendon?

A

Golgi tendon organ reflex (inverse myotatic, autogenic inhibition reflex)

68
Q

Differentiate between the group Ia and group II sensory afferent fibers of the musle spindle, what does each sense?

A
  • Ia = length AND rate of change; innervates both the nuclear bag and nuclear chain; large and heavily myelinated
  • II = length; innervates only the nuclear chain fiber; small and less myelin
69
Q

Reflexes controlling eye movements when we fall/rotate are major actions and the central processing of these movements is related to what?

A

Suppressing the reflexes

70
Q

What is the Presbyopia?

A
  • Inability to change the shape of the lens (stiffness or inflexibility)
  • Need a more round lens for near-vision and flat lens for objects in distance
71
Q

Excessive activation of which receptor is seen after seizure/stroke/TBI?

A

NMDA receptor —> excessive Ca2+ influx —> initiates apoptosis

72
Q

What is the inhibitory receptor of the CNS and differentiate the 2 types.

A
  • GABA-a - ionotropic (chloride)
  • GABAb - metabotropic
73
Q

Histamine acting on the H1 and H2 receptors is essential for?

A

Waking up!

74
Q

T/F spasticity results from increased gamma-motorneuron activity in the muscle spindle?

A
75
Q

Almost all spinal inhibitory reflexes rely on what NT?

A

Glycine

Neuro II Exam 2 COPY (8 decks)

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