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AA Airbus 2023-04 > Limitations and "Almost Limitations" > Flashcards

Limitations and "Almost Limitations" Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

39,000 FT

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2
Q

Maximum operating altitude with flaps and/or slats
extended

A

20,000 FT

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3
Q

Maximum gear extension altitude

A

25,000 FT

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4
Q

The maximum allowable in-flight difference between captain and first officer PFD
altitude displays for RVSM operations is…

A

200 FT

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5
Q

Maximum operating airspeed (SL to FL 246)

A

350 KIAS

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6
Q

Maximum operating Mach number (> FL 246)

A

.82 Mach (MMO)

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7
Q

Maximum wind for takeoff and landing

A

50 KTS

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8
Q

Maximum tailwind component for takeoff:
A320 and A321 with IAE engines

A

10 KTS

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9
Q

Maximum tailwind component for takeoff:
All A319 and A320/A321 with CFM engines

A

15 KTS

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10
Q

Maximum tailwind component for landing:
Non-sharklet

A

10 KTS

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11
Q

Maximum tailwind component for landing:
Sharklet

A

15 KTS

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12
Q

(Not a memorized limitation)
If oxygen level is below ___________ PSI, consult the AOM

A

1000 PSI

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13
Q

Temperature associated with definition of icing conditions is…..

A

OAT (on the ground and for takeoff) or TAT (inflight) is 10°C or below

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14
Q

Engine Anti-Ice SOP

A

Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing
conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the
temperature is below - 40°C SAT.

Engine anti-ice must be on prior to and during DESCENT in icing conditions, including
temperatures below - 40°C SAT.

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15
Q

Rule regarding use of OPEN DESCENT

A

The use of “OPEN DES” is prohibited inside the FAF, or below 1000 feet AGL during
a visual approach.

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16
Q

Minimum Height for Autopilot Use after takeoff

A

100 feet

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17
Q

Min Oil Quantity

A

13 QTS

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18
Q

Reverse Thrust is for ________ use only

A

GROUND

19
Q

A321 Center Tank Fuel “Caution note”

A

A321: If center tank is not full, dispatch with more than 200 pounds
of total fuel in both ACTs is prohibited, unless directed by a MEL

20
Q

Max brake temp for takeoff

A

300 C

21
Q

A Full IRS alignment is required for:

A

— First Aircraft Flight of the day, or
— First Crew Flight on the aircraft.
— When the departure airport is located between latitudes 2° north and 2°
south.

22
Q

Cockpit Door Check (keypad and unlock function check) must be done….

A

Before the FIRST CREW FLIGHT of the day. The first time the crew “touches” that airplane.

23
Q

Minimum Oil Quantity…

A

13 qts

24
Q

Reverse Thrust is for ___________ use only

A

GROUND

25
Q

FLEX Takeoff thrust NOT authorized when:

A

-Contaminated Runway
-Windshear Reported
-TOW exeeds ATOW
-Airport Ops advisory pages require TOGA
-If prohibited by MEL

26
Q

The first runway displayed on the TPS is…….

A

The primary or “expected” runway to be used

It is the most favorable runway and flap setting for the current conditions

27
Q

An asterisk (*) next to flap setting on a TPS means…

A

if an asterisk (*) appears
next to the flap setting, it indicates that another flap setting would be more
advantageous for this runway. If this is the case and time permits, get new TPS
data

28
Q

Incidents/Situations REQUIRING AML Logbook entry

A

RTO
Bird Strike
Lightning Strike
Overweight Landing
Severe Turbulence
Volcanic Ash
Smoke-Fume Event
Mechanical Discrepancies

29
Q

Required INFO-ONLY entries in AML Logbook

A

non-approved fuel vendor “clear and bring test” conducted / 3g-36 #7

Flight Confidence Check / 14m-4

Pulled CVR Circuit Breaker / 14n-9

Yellow Book missing items

30
Q

After picking up a new aircraft (crew change) that just flew in, what is the FIRST flow to be accomplished?

A

ORIGINATION FLOW

31
Q

What are “First Flight Items”

A

RCDR Panel
Alternate Brakes
Flight Deck Door

32
Q

What is V1 ?

A

V1 is the maximum speed to which an aircraft can accelerate, lose an engine, and either stop or takeoff in the remaining distance.

The V1 calculation is based on a dry, hard surfaced runway, without using reverse thrust.

33
Q

After performing a Rejected Takeoff (RTO), the pilot should consider:

A

— aircraft condition

— clear the runway
Note: If the aircraft came to a complete stop using autobrakes MAX, release the
brakes prior to taxi by disarming the spoilers.

— passenger evacuation or prevention of a passenger evacuation

34
Q

What is AA “Clean Aircraft Policy?”

A

Do not takeoff when Frost, Snow, Slush or Ice is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft. This includes radome, probes, APU inlet and APU exhaust

F.S.S.I.

35
Q

What type of de-icing fluid is required in “Heavy Snow” and/or Ice Pellets?

A

100% Type IV, take off must occur 5 minutes after application and “cleaned” aircraft due to fluid.

36
Q

What de-icing fluid is NOT authorized for AA mainline aircraft ?

A

Type III is not authorized for mainline aircraft.

It is designed for aircraft with low rotation
speeds like regional express aircraft.

37
Q

What is MTOW ?

A

This is the maximum weight
for the conditions (CONF and APU configuration) specified.

Note: It may be possible to obtain a heavier maximum weight by
changing the flap configuration or APU ON.

38
Q

Crews should double check and verify that any Takeoff Alternate from Dispatch is within approximately ________ NM from their departure airport.

-asked at Recurrent 12-2023

A

Approx 360 Nautical Miles

39
Q

“Cat 2 or 3” in FMA during ILS means the autopilot can be used all the way down to ______ Feet AFE

-asked at Recurrent 12-2023

A

80 Feet

40
Q

CAT3 SINGLE RVR minimums are….

-asked at Recurrent 12-2023

A

600 / 400 / 300 (roll-out)

41
Q

CAT3 DUAL RVR minimums are….

-asked at Recurrent 12-2023

A

300 / 300 / 300

42
Q

What are the FO takeoff visibility minimums? Below these, the Captain must perform the takeoff:

-asked at Recurrent 12-2023

A

1600 RVR

or 1/4 statute mile visibility

This is what the FAA has determined is required to perform “My Aircraft” transfer of control in the event of a reject or emergency situation.

43
Q

What is “balanced field” ?

A

when the accelerate-stop distance is equal to the accelerate-go distance

44
Q
A

AA Airbus 2023-04 (3 decks)

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