LN 06 (Immunopathology) Flashcards

1
Q

abnormal, aberrant, excessive or otherwise inappropriate immunologic response that leads to pathological changes to tissues

A

immunopathologic reactions

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2
Q

study of diseases caused by or resulting from immune mechanisms, and is
concerned primarily with untoward consequences of immune reactions

A

immunopathology

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3
Q

consists of effector cells and substances that provide
protection to an individual following antigenic challenge

A

immune system

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4
Q

mediated largely by antibodies and
other effector substances such as complement

A

humoral response

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5
Q

mediated by sensitized lymphocytes and cells of the reticulo-endothelial system

A

cellular response

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6
Q

macromolecules that are either
natural or synthetic in origin that are capable of inducing immune response

A

antigens (immunogens)

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7
Q

bind to preformed antibodies or sensitized immune cells and can
induce an immune response when coupled to a carrier protein

A

haptens

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8
Q

process the antigen and present the
same to B lymphocytes

A

antigen presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic cells)

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9
Q

B-lymphocytes or B-cells are produced in

A

bone marrow

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10
Q

b cells undergo a series of transformation into an antibody secreting plasma cell through
the aid of inducer

A

T-lymphocytes

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11
Q

they synthesize the antibodies

A

plasma cells

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12
Q

antibody molecules found greatest in plasma

A

IgG, IgM

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13
Q

antibody molecules mostly found on mucosal surfaces
and body secretions

A

IgA, IgD

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14
Q

antibody molecules surface bound to specific cells such as basophils and mast cells

A

IgE

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15
Q

contain the antigen binding sites

A

Fab

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16
Q

contains receptors for complement and effector cells of antibody molecule

A

Fc

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17
Q

provide some sort of scaffold where
effector cells and substances of the immune system in particular complement can come in close contact with the antigen for the expression of their biological functions

A

Fc fragment

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18
Q

major humoral component of innate immunity and a mediator of inflammation

A

complement

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19
Q

largely produce the antibodies

A

B cells

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20
Q

mediate cellular reactivity

A

T cells

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21
Q

two functional classes of T
cells

A
  1. helper or inducer T cells
  2. cytotoxic or suppressor T cells
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22
Q

Interleukin 2 is called as

A

T cell growth factor

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23
Q

Activated T cells secrete _____ that stimulates the production of IL-2 receptors and the proliferation of T cells

A

IL-2 or T cell growth factor

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24
Q

secrete IL-4, IL-5, and IL-6

A

helper T cells

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25
Q

these are B cell growth factors that promote proliferation and maturation of B cells

A

IL-4, IL-5, and IL-6

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26
Q

surface glycoproteins that functions as adhesion molecules and as co-receptors for
antigen

A

CD4 and CD8

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27
Q

CD4 positive T cells

A

helper cells

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28
Q

CD8 positive cells

A

cytotoxic or suppressor cells

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29
Q

glycoproteins present on all nucleated cells and
platelets

A

Class I antigens

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30
Q

exist as bimolecular protein complexes restrictedly found in antigen presenting cells, B cells, and some activated T cells

A

Class II antigens

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31
Q

These proteins do not
function as histocompatibility antigens

A

Class III antigens

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32
Q

protein components of the complement system
(C2, C4 and Bf) that are coded for within the MHC

A

Class III antigens

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33
Q

regulates the cell-to cell
interaction in the immune
responses

A

MHC

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34
Q

facilitate interactions
between lymphocytes and
macrophages in the process of immune recognition

A

Class II antigens

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35
Q

able to recognize antigens only in the form of antigenic peptide complexed with Class II antigens on the surface of antigen presenting cells

A

T helper cells or CD4+

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36
Q

recognize antigens presented on the surface as antigenic peptide complexed with Class I MHC molecules

A

Cytotoxic cells

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37
Q

Complement consists of plasma proteins synthesized by (3)

A
  1. hepatocytes
  2. macrophages
  3. gut epithelial cells
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38
Q

classical pathway is initiated by the binding of antigen-antibody complexes to C1 that self-activates and cleaves C4 and C2 into

A

C3 convertase

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39
Q

a C3 fragment released and increases vascular permeability

A

C3a

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40
Q

forms a complex called C5 convertase that splits C5 into C5a and C5b

A

C3b

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41
Q

increases vascular permeability and attracts
polymorphonuclear and mononuclear leucocytes

A

C5a

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42
Q

initiates the terminal
sequence C5b-C9 forming the membrane attack complex (MAC)

A

C5b

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43
Q

affect irreversible lesions on cell membranes leading to cytolysis

A

Membrane attack complex

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44
Q

initiated by a variety of substances without the formation of antigen- antibody complexes

A

Alternate pathway

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45
Q

Alternate pathway involves (3)

A
  1. C3
  2. factor B
  3. other proteins
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46
Q

mediates and regulates the growth, differentiation, and function of cells involved in immunity, hemopoiesis,
and inflammation

A

cytokines

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47
Q

cytokines secreted by lymphocytes

A

lymphokines

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48
Q

cytokines secreted by macrophages and monocytes

A

monokines

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49
Q

a cytokine that carries messages between lymphocytes

A

interleukin

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50
Q

chemotactic cytokines produced by macrophages, monocytes and T cells that attract
leucocytes to the site of inflammation or infection

A

Chemokines

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51
Q

symptoms occur after the release of pharmacologically active compounds from mast cells and basophils

A

Type I hypersensitivity

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52
Q

precipitated when the antigen is transmitted parenterally or in food, and are associated with signs and symptoms
of anaphylaxis

A

systemic reaction

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53
Q

best exemplified by a positive skin-test
reaction (wheals and flares), and allergic rhinitis following inhalation of dust or
pollen particles

A

local reactions

54
Q

Anaphylaxis in dogs shows concentrated mas cells in hepatic veins, resulting to: (2)

A
  1. portal hypertension
  2. visceral pooling of blood
55
Q

Necropsy of dog with anaphylaxis would reveal massive congestion of the (2)

A
  1. liver
  2. intestines
56
Q

In cats, anaphylaxis takes the form of

A
  1. broncho-constriction
  2. pulmonary edema
57
Q

necropsy of anaphylaxis in cats reveal (3)

A
  1. pulmonary emphysema
  2. hemorrhages
  3. edema
58
Q

One of the signs of anaphylaxis in cats in scratching of the face. Caused by?

A

histamine

59
Q

occur in ruminants following anaphylaxis

A
  1. Systemic hypotension
  2. Pulmonary hypertension
60
Q

anaphylaxis is manifested as systemic and pulmonary hypertension

A

horse and swine

61
Q

Necropsy of anaphylaxis in horse and swine reveals (3)

A
  1. pulmonary emphysema
  2. peri-bronchiolar edema
  3. edematous hemorrhagic enterocolitis
62
Q

type of hypersensitivity produced by the combination of antibody with antigen resulting in the formation of immune
complexes

A

Type III - Immune complex reactions

63
Q

Diseases that may result to the expression of Type III reactions in the form of
membranous glomerulopathy

A
  1. Equine infectious anemia
  2. Swine fever
  3. Pyometra
  4. Bacterial endocarditis
  5. Canine distemper
  6. Lymphoma
  7. Mastocytoma
  8. Dirofilariasis
64
Q

syndrome in dogs following infection or vaccination with live canine adenovirus (CAV-1)

A

blue eye

65
Q

do not become clinically detectable until 24 to 72 hours post exposure to an antigen

A

Type IV - Delayed Hypersensitivity

66
Q

involves the accumulation of sensitized T cells at the site of antigen deposition

A

inductive phase

67
Q

caused by the elaboration of lymphokines by these cells

A

amplification phase

68
Q

prominent component of Type IV, and is an important process in host defense against viral and fungal infections, and in
spontaneous tumor rejection

A

Cytotoxicity

69
Q

Type IV is involved clinically in condition such as (4)

A
  1. allergic contact dermatitis
  2. tuberculin hypersensitivity
  3. organ and tissue transplant rejection
  4. graft-vs-host disease
70
Q

More common example of Type IV reaction in dogs and cats

A
  1. Flea allergy
  2. Allergic contact dermatitis
71
Q

Untoward immune response towards administration of drugs

A

Adverse drug reactions

72
Q

one of the most fascinating features of the immune system

A

be able to distinguish “self” from “non self”

73
Q

Studies of the immune reactions towards organ transplantation showed this capability is under fine control in specific locus of the genes called

A

major histocompatability complex

74
Q

In humans, MHC is located in

A

Chromosomes 6

75
Q

In humans, MHC is located at chromosome 6 and is called the

A

human lymphocyte antigen complex (HLA complex)

76
Q

This chromosome region codes for surface proteins in body cells called

A

histocompatibility antigens or
transplantation antigens

77
Q

MHC gene products are classified into three categories

A

Class I antigens
Class II antigens
Class III antigens

78
Q

significantly
influences immune reactivity

A

MHC

79
Q

antibody molecule consists of two identical heavy chains of amino
acids and two identical light chains chemically linked by

A

disulfide bonds in Y-configuration

80
Q

contain the antigen binding sites

A

Fab

81
Q

When antigen enters body, APC process it into antigenic fragments that expresses

A

epitopes or its antigenic determinants

82
Q

presented at the surface of the APC to receptors for antigen on helper T cells

A

Class II antigen

83
Q

B cells receptor for antigens is composed of surface membrane bound
monomeric IgM programmed during B cell maturation in the gut associated

A

lymphoid tissues in mammals

84
Q

gene rearrangements of small coding segments to produce a large amount of diverse receptor for antigen binding

A

bursa of Fabricius in avian species

85
Q

It is the main effector pathway of the immune response and has a receptor unit able to recognize antibody molecules

A

complement

86
Q

paramount function of the immune system

A

recognize foreign antigens and protect the individual

87
Q

re-exposure to the same antigen could bring about untoward, excessive or aberrant immune responses that result to
tissue injury

A

hypersensitivity reaction

88
Q
A
89
Q

What happens after antibody attaches to the Fab portion

A

Fc portion of the antibody is then free to interact with cytotoxic cells having an Fc receptor

90
Q

condition wherein fetal red blood cells gain entry to the maternal circulation

A

isoimmune hemolytic anemia (in foals)

91
Q

Clinical examples of Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity

A
  1. trypanosomiasis
  2. babesiosis
  3. drug-induced
    hemolytic anemia
  4. drug-induced thrombocytopenia
92
Q

Adverse Drug Reactions criteria

A
  1. The onset of hypersensitivity state does not occur until sometime after initial exposure to a drug;
  2. After the reaction has been established, the same may be elicited by minute amount of the drug in question;
  3. The same reaction recur upon repeated exposure to the same drug;
  4. The reaction does not resemble the known pharmacological action of the drug; and
  5. The symptoms are suggestive of known forms of hypersensitivity reaction.
93
Q

Factors that predispose the development of ADR

A
  1. Host factor
  2. Drug factor
  3. Route of Administration
  4. Dose and duration of exposure
94
Q

tendency of a drug to induce immune response that results in a hypersensitivity reaction

A

drug factor

95
Q

has the greatest capacity to induce ADR

A

topical application of drugs

96
Q

defined as a failure of the individual to recognize its
own tissues thus resulting to immune recognition and consequent immune
reactions

A

autoimmunity

97
Q

Autoimmunity arises when?

A

there is disordered regulation and interaction of the T cells and the B cells in response to an antigenic challenge or stimulation

98
Q

T cell and B cell interactions may be altered as a consequence of

A
  1. genetic
  2. viral
  3. environment
99
Q

To prevent autoimmunity, there must be a central balance with

A

activity of suppressor T cell clones and inducer T cell clones

100
Q

autoimmune disease characterized by chronic
inflammatory changes in a specific organ

A

Organ- specific autoimmune disease

101
Q

Clinical examples of organ- specific autoimmune disease

A
  1. Primary hypothyroidism
  2. Post vaccinal encephalitis in rabies
102
Q

these are characterized by
widespread pathologic changes in different organs wherein associated autoantibodies often lack organ specificity

A

non-organ-specific autoimmune disorder

103
Q

classic example of non organ specific autoimmune disorder

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

104
Q

primary mechanism of injury is by immune complex deposition in the vasculature of various organs and tissues

A

non-organ-specific autoimmune disorder

105
Q

combines the features of specific and non specific AID, and the levels of serum autoantibodies does not correlate with the severity or duration of the disease

A

Disorders with non-organ-specific autoantibodies and with lesions
confined to one or few organs

106
Q

Disorders with non-organ-specific autoantibodies and with lesions
confined to one or few organs mechanism

A

cytotoxicity T cell activity

107
Q

mechanism is thought to involve T cell bypass, and that a deficiency of T cells
may be a key factor in the initiation of the whole process

A

Organ- specific autoimmune disease

108
Q

Disorders with non-organ-specific autoantibodies and with lesions
confined to one or few organs clinical example

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis of the liver

109
Q

Autoimmune diseases are frequently associated with (3)

A
  1. malignancies
  2. ageing
  3. immunodeficiency syndromes
110
Q

Autoimmune pathogenesis

A
  1. Existence of autoantibodies
  2. Amyloidosis in tissues
  3. Hypergammaglobulinemia with elevation of the various immunoglobulin subclasses
  4. Vasculitis, serositis and glomerulonephritis that suggest an immune
    complex disease
  5. Existence of other disorders such as endocrine disease known to be associated with autoimmune disorders.
111
Q

results from a failure of proper development of humoral or cellular components of the immune system

A

Primary Immunodeficiency syndromes

112
Q

Immunodeficiency associated with a variety of diseases including irradiation

A

Secondary or acquired

113
Q

basic mechanisms that cause immunodeficiency

A
  1. Deficiency of hormone and co-factors required for lymphocyte differentiation,
    programming, maturation and activity
  2. Deficiency of lymphocyte production and/or functions
  3. Deficiency of phagocytic cell production and/or functions
  4. Deficiency of complement, particularly C3
  5. Failure of passive immunity in neonates.
114
Q

Examples of infectious diseases that damage lymphoid tissues

A
  1. canine parvoviral infection
  2. feline panleukopenia
115
Q

Intestinal uptake of maternal immunoglobulin terminates within 24-48 hours in what animals

A
  1. pig
  2. horse
  3. cattle
  4. dog
116
Q

sensitivity of intestinal mucosal cells for colostral uptake could last up to four (4) days

A

Sheep and goats

117
Q

most important predisposing factor to perinatal infection and
death

A

failure of passive transfer of maternal immunoglobulin

118
Q

depend solely on colostral transfer of maternal immunoglobulin, for these species

A
  1. piglets
  2. foals
  3. calves
  4. kids
  5. lambs
119
Q

these species placental cyto-architecture do not prevent the transplacental transfer of maternal immunoglobulin

A

kittens and pups

120
Q

Depletion of cells, in particular, _______, and _______ result to a functional deficiency in the capability of the animal body to mount an immune response

A

lymphocytes, and/or complement

121
Q

IL-1

A

growth of activated T and B cells

122
Q

IL-2

A

growth of activated T, B, and NK cells

123
Q

IL-3

A

Growth and differentiation of hemopoietic precursors

124
Q

IL-4

A

growth of activated T and B cells

125
Q

IL-5

A

growth of activated B cells

126
Q

IL-6

A

growth and maturation of T and B cells

127
Q

IL-10

A

activates macrophages and increases their expression of MHC Class I and Class II

128
Q

IFN-gamma

A

helps activate cytolytic T cells

129
Q

activates phagocytic cells, mediates local and systemic effects, including acute phase reactions of inflammation

A

TNF

130
Q

Drug induced hemolytic anemia

A
  1. penicillin
  2. quinine
  3. amino-salicylic acid or aspirin
  4. phenacetin
131
Q

drug-induced thrombocytopenia

A
  1. sulfonamide
  2. phenylbutazone,
  3. phenothiazine
  4. chloramphenicol