MATS RAC 6

Question 1

Consider an aircraft inbound from OCS opposite direction to a lower aircraft which has passed out of radar cover. Describe, with provisos, the separation you could apply in order to descend the inbound aircraft through the level of the outbound.

Answer 1

R5.

• Aircraft which has been identified has since passed out of radar cover, and
• Identified aircraft is at least 5nm past the position at which the previously identified aircraft passed out of radar cover.

Question 2

Describe the application of R20 separation between identified and unidentified aircraft on reciprocal tracks.

Answer 2

Identified aircraft reaches separation level at least 20nm before the point at which the conflicting aircraft is expected to be established under radar control.

Only to be used in airspace:

• Where PSR coverage is available, and/or
• above FL 245 where ADS-B coverage is available, provided both aircraft are displayed on ADS-B without an Incorrect Flight Identification Alert.

Question 3

Describe the application of R50 separation between identified and unidentified aircraft on reciprocal tracks.

Answer 3

Radar is SSR only

• Unidentified aircraft has an operable transponder, and
• Identified aircraft reaches separation level at least 50nm prior to the point at which the unidentified aircraft is expected to be under radar control, and
• Pilot of unidentified aircraft reports a position or estimate that confirms that the aircraft will not be in radar coverage prior to the identified aircraft reaching separation level.

Question 4

Consider two jets inbound from OCS on the same track. The first aircraft, identified and higher, is ahead by 8 minutes. Describe, with provisos, the separation you could apply in order to descent the first aircraft through the level of the second aircraft.

Answer 4

R20

• Identified aircraft is at least 20nm past the point at which the unidentified aircraft is expected to be established under radar control.
• If SSR coverage only, checks (i.e. position report/estimate) shall be used to confirm the unidentified aircraft is at least 20nm behind the identified aircraft.

20nm/8min = 2.5nm/min = at least 150kt.

Question 5

Consider a jet outbound to OCS on the same track as a preceding C130 which has passed out of radar cover. Describe, with provisos, the separation you could apply in order to climb the jet through the level of the C130.

Answer 5

R5

• Following aircraft is identified, and
• Lead aircraft which has been identified has since passed out of radar cover, and
• Following aircraft can reach separation level at least 5nm before the position at which the lead aircraft passed out of radar cover.

Question 6

In which of the following bypass modes is STCA available?

a) RDP Bypass
b) FDP Bypass
c) Dual Bypass

Answer 6

FDP Bypass only

Question 7

How close to the edge of controlled airspace may aircraft be vectored?

Answer 7

2nm laterally
500ft above lower limit

Except:

• In an emergency
• Vector may be issued to be effective at the point of entry into controlled airspace provided it will track the aircraft expeditiously to a point at least 2nm within controlled airspace.

Question 8

What is the required radar separation from a displayed temporary map?

Answer 8

5nm or greater from centre of the RPS and boundary.

Question 9

Using Mode-C derived level information, how do you determine that an aircraft has vacated a level?

Answer 9

A change of more than 300ft in the anticipated direction from its previously assigned level.

Question 10

What is the phraseology to be used where an aircraft under radar control is rejoining a STAR following direct routing?

Answer 10

“REJOIN STAR AT (waypoint), DESCEND VIA STAR TO (level)”

Question 11

Using Mode-C derived level information, how do you determine that an aircraft has reached a level?

Answer 11

Elapsed time of 15 has passed since level information indicates it is 200ft or less from assigned level

Question 12

What actions shall a controller take on receipt of a STCA?

Answer 12

• Identify the conflict
• Assess the conflict information, and
• Carry out actions as necessary to:
  
  • ensure separation is maintained, or
  • regain separation (provide essential traffic information), or
  • provide radar traffic information

Question 13

What conditions must be met before permitting an aircraft to “MAINTAIN TERRAIN CLEARANCE VISUALLY”?

Answer 13

IFR flight arriving or departing under radar control, provided:

• In VMC
• By day
• Following pilot request

Question 14

Describe the allocation of SSR codes and transponder settings (where relevant) to aircraft in a formation.

Answer 14

Military aircraft in formation assigned a code whereby the last number of the code represents the number in formation.

Civil (and military not using above) - leader assigned discrete code and others may be assigned 2020.

Only formation leader squawk NORMAL and others squawk STANDBY. ATC can ask all formation aircraft to squawk NORMAL (no STCA for aircraft squawking STANDBY).

Question 15

Using Mode-C derived level information, how do you determine that an aircraft is maintaining a level?

Answer 15

Aircraft is 200ft or less from assigned level.

Question 16

What is considered a significant deviation for aircraft flying using the following enroute navigation methods?

a) RNAV or RNP
b) VOR, VORTAC or TACAN
c) NDB

Answer 16

a) same as lateral navigation accuracy associated with RNAV or RNP designation for the route. eg. RNAV2/RNP2 = 2nm either side of track
b) 6 degrees either side of track. 6nm at 60nm or 3nm at 30nm from aid
c) 10 degrees either side of track. 10nm at 60nm or 5nm at 30nm.

Question 17

Using Mode-C derived level information, how do you determine that an aircraft has passed a level in climb or descent?

Answer 17

Aircraft has passed the level by more than 300ft in the anticipated direction.

Question 18

How is traffic information passed to an identified aircraft, concerning unknown traffic on a conflicting path?

Answer 18

• word “LEFT” or “RIGHT” followed by relative bearing of conflicting traffic by 12-hour clock reference
• distance from conflicting traffic
• direction of which conflicting traffic appears to be proceding
• level information or relative height, if known.
• any other pertinent information if known (eg. aircraft type, relative speed)
• any pertinent information of traffic in the vicinity that could be confused with target traffic

Question 19

In what airspace and for what reasons may aircraft be vectored?

Answer 19

In class A, C and D airspace - separation, safety, noise abatement, operational advantage, pilot request, or to assist in navigation.

Class G airspace only in emergency.

Question 20

What phraseology is used to verbally transfer radar identification?

Answer 20

“RADAR IDENT [callsign]
[SQUAWKING (SSR code)] [(aircraft type)]
[POSITION (aircraft position)] [(level)]
(any other relevant information)”

Question 21

Which radar sector shall verify the accuracy of Mode-C derived level information, and how is this achieved?

Answer 21

First radar sector after departure, on entry into radar coverage, or on initial RTF contact.

By comparison with pilot reported level - tolerance +/-200ft

Question 22

Describe the procedure to be followed in the event that a controller observes a discrepancy in displayed Mode-C level information in excess of the requirements for the determination of level occupancy.

Answer 22

1. Pilot shall be requested to “CONFIRM (level specified)”
2. Pilot shall be instructed to “CHECK ALTIMETER SETTING AND CONFIRM (level specified)”
3. Pilot instructed to “STOP SQUAWKing (Mode) CHARLIE, WRONG INDICATION”

Question 23

Explain why Mode-C derived level information cannot be used within the transition layer.

Answer 23

Altitude shown in datablock is not necessarily the same as what is shown on altimeter and reported by the pilot. Due to RDP changing the level prefix in the RPS datablock at different times (in the transition) depending on difference from Area QNH to Standard QNH.

Question 24

What phraseology is used to request a pressure setting check and Mode-C level confirmation?

Answer 24

“CHECK ALTIMETER SETTING AND CONFIRM (level)”

Question 25

Should a pilot be informed when radar identification is lost and/or regained?

Answer 25

Yes.

However period to which radar identification can be lost without the need to notify the pilot or re-identify the aircraft is controller’s discretion with due regard for particular conditions and possibility of mis-identification.

Question 26

How close to the edge of an adjacent radar sector boundary may an aircraft be vectored?

Answer 26

No closer than 5nm, unless prior coordination has taken place, or otherwise agreed in LOA/LUO.

Question 27

Give 4 methods available for the transfer of radar identification.

Answer 27

• Notify of aircraft squawking a discrete code
• Instruction to squawk IDENT and observation by accepting controller
• Instruction to the aircraft by transferring controller to change code and observation of code change by accepting controller
• Designation of RPS by reference to, or in terms of relative bearing and distance from; a geographical position, reporting point, or NAVAID shown on both radar displays.

Question 28

What shall a radar controller do in the event of an SFL alert?

Answer 28

• Identify the discrepancy
• Carry out actions as necessary to ensure:
  
  • separation is maintained (or restored in the event of a loss of separation)
  • advise the aircraft of discrepancy, “(callsign) CHECK SELECTED LEVEL, CLEARED LEVEL IS (level)”

Question 29

Give 3 instances where a pilot should be informed of their position in the Area environment.

Answer 29

• When requested
• At intervals when on a radar heading
• Prior to reverting to own navigation after radar vectoring, except for when instructions to regain track prior to a NAVAID or waypoint are given
• When an aircraft is off track to the extent that it outside the navigation tolerance for the type of NAVAID being used

Question 30

Give 2 examples of how position information can be passed to a pilot.

Answer 30

• Bearing and distance from a known position
• Magnetic track and distance to a significant point or enroute or approach NAVAID
• Position relative to a centreline of an ATS route

Question 31

What does the phraseology, “NO [ATC] SPEED RESTRICTIONS” mean? Under what conditions shall this advice be passed?

Answer 31

Shall only be passed in response to request or inquiry from pilots

Used when advising pilots there is no requirement to comply with published ATC speed restrictions:

• Max 250kt IAS below 10,000ft within 30nm of NZAA, NZWN, or NZCH, and
• ATC speed requirements on STAR charts
• Speed requirements on instrument approach

Question 32

Describe the methods of SSR and/or MLAT/ADS-B radar identification.

Answer 32

• Recognition of the aircraft identification in a radar datablock [(provided position and track of the RPS is consistent with that expected of the aircraft)(not used if any alerts eg. beacon code, Flight ID, Mode S are active)]
• Recognition of an assigned discrete code (provided position and track of the RPS is consistent with that expected of the aircraft)
• Transfer of radar identification
• Observation of compliance with an instruction to set a specific code

Question 33

Describe the use of Mode-C derived level information when SkyLine is operating in Bypass mode.

Answer 33

Not to be used for aircraft operating below the transition layer, when the QNH indicated in the list line for the area in which the bypass radar sensor is located differs by greater than 3hPa from that of which the aircraft is operating.

QNH lists checked after any RDP or CWP restart to ensure listed value is correct for the area of operation.

Question 34

When shall SFL alerting be suppressed?

Answer 34

For flights:

• Cleared for an instrument approach using APP key
• Cleared for a visual approach using SA key (transferred to aerodrome)
• Leaving controlled airspace in descent by setting CLF to 001
• Leaving controlled airspace using SA key
• Flights transferred from radar control to approach control early, after coordination using SA kay
• Where it has been established that SFL information being transmitted is incorrect by using SA key.

Question 35

Radar separation shall only be applied between aircraft in direct communication with the radar controller except:

Answer 35

Where one aircraft is being radar monitored and is in direct communication with another sector, providing that:

• The aircraft which is being radar monitored has either been (or will be) under control of the affected radar controller, or coordination, including transfer of radar identification, has taken place; and
• The radar controller is aware of the terms of the clearance; and
• The terms of the clearance are acceptable to the radar controller who will ensure that separation is maintained until another form of separation is established; and
• The aircraft can be released to the radar controller if requested; and
• Voice switch direct access line communications exist with the other unit (FREQUENTIS)

Question 36

Describe 2 methods of PSR identification.

Answer 36

• Correlation of a particular radar position symbol (RPS) with an aircraft reporting its position (must be within 5nm of reported position and track is consistent with route/reported heading of aircraft)
• Transfer of radar identification
• Correlation of a particular radar position symbol with a known turn or turns by an aircraft (turn of 30 degrees or more and is maintained for sufficient time for turn to be observed; no confusion with turns by other aircraft)

Question 37

What procedure shall be followed if an aircraft transmits an incorrect Flight Identification?

Answer 37

“RE ENTER AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION”

If problem persists, controller to acknowledge alert by leaving ACID (flashing yellow/white) and advising Duty Manager, who will file a Defect Incident (DI).

Controller shall notify the next ATS sector of issue if the flight is departing the NZ FIR.