Mcqs Acemedix Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The following are possible causes of Polyhydramnios, EXCEPT:

Diabetes
Multiple pregnancy
Fetus with duodenal atresia or neural tube defect
IUGR

A

IUGR: Explanation
All other condi/ons are causes of polyhydraminos. IUGR is associated with oligohydramnios

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2
Q
  1. Screening is most effective in preventing which of the following cancers:

Vulva.
Cervix.
Endometrial
Ovary.

A

Answer:cervix
Cervix cancer screening is preventive. The cancer of cervix has a long latency period. A lot can be done while screening including treatment

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3
Q
  1. Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT:

A.Patient may present with loss of the symptoms of pregnancy
B.Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptom
C.Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made
D.Disseminated intra-vascular coagulation may occur as a sequele of missed abortion

A

C: immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made

Explanation
Missed abortion is defined as unrecognized intrauterine death of the embryo or fetus without expulsion of the products of conception. Women experiencing a missed abortion may have no self-awareness due to the lack of obvious symptoms. Patient may experience lack of pregnancy symptoms. It can be treated by expectant management, medical management or surgical evacuation.

A number of investigation have to be done after diagnosis. Also, Management will depend on the age of Gestation. Immediate evacua/on is incorrect

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4
Q

4.A 25-year-old primigravida with 8 weeks threatened abortion, ultrasound would mostlikely reveal.

A.Feral heart motion in the adnexia
B.Empty gestational sac
C.Collapsed gestational sac
D.An intact gestational sac with fetal

A

D: An intact gestational sac with fetal

Explanation
A threatened Abortion doesn’t affect the gestational sac. Patient just need to be investigated and placed on bed rest.

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5
Q

5.Anti – D is given to all except:

A:External cephalic version
B:Threatened abortion
C:Already sensitized mom
D:Within 72 hours after delivery.

A

D: Anti -D acts to provide protection against sensitization, it does not work on mothers already sensitized.

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6
Q
  1. In prenatal infection

A:Rubella can be prevented by administration of rubella vaccine during pregnancy.
B:Toxoplasma is a virus.
C:CMV causes macrosomic babies.
D:HIV virus infects the baby more readily when delivered vaginally than cesarean section.

A

D: HIV is more likely to be transmitted in vaginal delivery than Cesarean Section which provide close to 100 % protection against the transmission of HIV.

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7
Q

HELLP Syndrome includes all the followings EXCEPT:

Increased LDH
Increased AST.
Increased platelets.
Increased ALT.

A

Increased platelets: HELLP means Hemolysis, Elevated Liver Enzymes, Low Platelets. Increased platelets is incorrect

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8
Q
  1. Alpha-fetoprotein is increased in all except:

trisomy
IUFD
Multiple pregnancy
nural tub defect and duodenal atrasia

A

Trisomy: Alpha feto protein is elevated in conditions like neural tube defects, cancers, multiple pregnancies. But it is low in Trisomy 13, 21

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9
Q
  1. The second stage of labor:

Effacement of the cervix.
Expulsion of the placenta.
Dilation of the cervix.
End by delivery of the baby

A

D:End by delivery of the baby

The Second stage of labour starts from full dilatation to deliver of the baby.

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10
Q

10.Which is a gonadotropin :

FSH
estrogen
oxytocin
progesterone

A

FSH: Gonadotropin are hormones that stimulate the gonads including Follicle Stimulating Hormone Lutenizing Hormone.

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11
Q

Most cause of maternal mortality in developing world is:

Thromboembolism.
Postpartum hemorrhage
Septic.
Cardiac disease.

A

Postpartum hemorrhage: Postpartum Hemorrhage is the most common cause of maternal mortality in developing countries according to WHO.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of COCP?

Varicose veins.
DM.
Seizure disorders.
Recent history of deep venous thrombosis.

A

Answer: Recent history of deep venous thrombosis:
COCP contains both estrogen and Progesterone. Estrogen increased the risk for Deep vein thrombosis. A recent history of Deep Vein Thrombosis

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13
Q

13.Postulated mechanism of action of IUD includes all the following, EXCEPT :

Alter the cervical mucous.
Alter the tubal motility.
Alter the endometrium.
Inhibits fertilization.

A

B:Alter the tubal motility

D - it doesn’t alter tubal motility. This is the most correct answer.

Intra Uterine device works by the following mechanism by inhibiting fertilisation, altering cervical mucus, affecting the endometrium

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14
Q

14.Feature characteristically associated with imperforated hymen in a 16 yearold girlinclude :

Acute retention of the urine
Absence of secondary sexual characteristics.
Hirsutism.
Short stature.

A

A:acute Retention of the urine: Imperforate hymen usually present with an obstruction to the menstrual follow. Most times symptoms are noticed after puberty in female. The most likely answer is that it may sometimes present with acute urine retention. It doesn’t affect the normal sexual development of the female .

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15
Q
  1. Contraindication of COCP, EXCEPT:

Previous DVT
Previous CVA
Family Hx of Breast Carcinoma.
35 Y, smokes >15 cigarette per day.

A

D:35y smokes )15 cigarettes per day

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16
Q

16.All the followings can be transmitted sexually EXCEPT:

HIV.
Chlamydia.
Gonorrhea.
Vaginal Candidiasis.

A

Answer:vaginal candidiasis Vaginal Candidiasis is not sexually transmitted disease. It is caused by a fungi Candida albican. It occurs commonly in immunosuppressed patients. All other options are sexually transmitted infections.

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17
Q

Menorrhagia is:

A:Intermittent irregular vaginal bleeding
B: Commonly presents as postmenopausal bleeding
Heavy menstrual cycle more than 80 ml
C;Infrequent spaced cycles every 45 days

A

D:Heavy menstrual bleeding

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18
Q
  1. Regarding injectable progesterone contraceptive, all of the following is true, EXCEPT:

Medroxyparogesterone acetate is the most commonly used
May cause irregular uterine bleeding
May cause amenorrhea.
Should not be given to lactating mother.

A

Answer:shouldn’t be given to a lactating mother

Injectable progesterone contraceptive causes amenorrhea, irregular uterine bleeding. MDPA is the most commonly used and it can be used in lactating women.

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19
Q

Which of the following factors predispose to genital prolapse:

Multiparty
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Repeated Candidiasis

A

Answer: multiparty- Explanation
Genital prolapse is due to excessive stress placed on the pelvic support, muscle and ligaments. This make them weak causing organ prolapse. Multiple parous experience predispose to this.

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20
Q
  1. Urge incontinence

A:Patient loses small amount of urine.
B:Can be diagnosed with stress test.
C:Can be treated medically.
D:Is due to pelvic anatomic defect.

A

Answer:can’t be treated medically

Explanation
The most correct answer is it being treated medically with both bladder training and pharmacological treatment - Alpha -1adrenegic antagonist. Mirabegron

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21
Q
  1. Early clinical evidence of magnesium sulfate toxicity would show:

Flushing
Diplopia
Decreased oxygen saturation
Loss of deep tendon reflexes

A

Answer: loss of deep tendon reflexes
: Explanation
The earliest sign to look out for when monitoring for MgSO4 toxicity is the reflexes. Toxicity of magnesium sulphate causes the loss of these reflexes.

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22
Q
  1. In eclampsia: Which is true?

Caesarean section must be carried out in all cases
Urinary output is increased
Antidiuretic drugs are essential in all cases
Ergometrine should be avoided in the third stage of labor

A

Answer: Ergometrine should be avoided in the third stage of labor

Ergomterine has sympathetic effect and these can further worsen the hypertension that occurs in eclampsia. You must avoid it.

23
Q

23.Disseminated intravascular coagulation has a recognized association with:

Intrauterine fetal death
Multiple pregnancy
Diabetic mother
Prolonged bed rest

A

Answer: intrauterine fetal death

Explanation
DIC is known to be associated with intrauterine fetal death, missed abortion. These conditions can affect the clotting and bleeding component in the body.

24
Q

24.Regarding Submucous uterine fibroids all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

Can become infected.
Frequently cause infertility.
Often present with menorrhagia.
Can be removed hysteroscopically.

A

B:frequently cause Infertility
Answer: Explanation
All the other options are more appropriate. Submucous fibroid can cause infertility but it is not frequently

25
Q

25.Which of the following is the most likely causes of a fever in a women on thesecond day postpartum:

Pneumonia
Endometritis.
Mastitis
Cholycystitis

A

Pneumonia: Answer - A Endometritis is incorrect, it starts from day 3 – 5. Pneumonia is more appropriate as it is a likely cause of fever, second day post op

26
Q

26.Oxytocin in the Puerperium is associated with :

Involution of the uterus
Initiation of lactation
Resumption of menses
Sub-involution of the uterus

A

Involution of the uterus
Answer explained

Oxytocin is associated with involution of the uterus, causing the uterus to contract and reduce back to a smaller size after childbirth.

27
Q
  1. Which of the following neonatal morbidities is not related to forceps delivery?

Fractured skull
Sepsis
Nerve palsies
Cephalohematoma

A

Sepsis: All the following factors are commonly associated complication that may arise with forceps delivery except sepsis.

28
Q

28.You are called to the operating room to evaluate a pelvic mass in infant girl.Laparoscopy shows a 3-cm cystic mass in the broad ligament between the fallopiantube & the Ovarian hilum. You recommend:

Observation.
Cyst aspiration.
Cystectomy.
Adenxectomy.

A

Observation: Explanation
It appears to be remnant of the paramesonephric duct which would appear benign. This would require observation as it may be disappears by itself.

29
Q

29.Which of the followings is a contraindication to Vaginal delivery after cesarean section?

Prior classical incision.
Prior cesarean delivery for dystocia.
Prior IUFD.
Ultrasound estimation of fetal weight of 3500g.

A

Answer: prior classical incision

Explanation
A Previous Classical incision is a contraindication to vaginal delivery to prevent uterine rupture. Absolute indications of cesarean section

Contracted pelvis
Major placenta previa
Previous 1 classical CS
Previous 2 lower segment CS scars
Obstructed labor
Previous uterine rupture
Previous cornual resection for ectopic gestation
History of strassman operation

30
Q
  1. The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is:

Congenital anomalies of the tube
Endometriosis
Tubal surgery
History of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Ans: history of pelvic inflammatory disease

All the options are possible causes of ectopic pregnancy but a history of pelvic inflammatory disease is one of the most common risk factors.

PID is the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy. An ectopic pregnancy can occur when untreated PID has caused scar tissue to develop in the fallopian tubes. The scar tissue prevents the fertilized egg from making its way through the fallopian tube to implant in the uterus.

31
Q
  1. Of the following, which is not a risk factor for gastric cancer?

Helicobacter pylori
Partial gastrectomy
Blood group O
Dried fish

A

Blood group O: Blood group A individuals have a higher risk of being infected with H. Pylori. Whereas Blood group O individuals have a reduced risk of infection with H. Pylori and hence gastric cancer

32
Q

32.Which of the following is not a risk factor for gallstone formation?

Smoking
Pregnancy
Crohn’s disease
Diet high in fats

A

Answer:smoking
Smoking doesn’t have a role in the aetiology of gallstones.

Acute calculous cholecystitis is caused by an obstruction of the cystic duct, leading to distention of the gallbladder. As the gallbladder becomes distended, blood flow and lymphatic drainage are compromised, leading to mucosal ischemia and necrosis.

Clinical features: Patients present with RUQ pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever.

Diagnosis: Fever is sometimes present, and CBC shows leukocytosis.Ultrasound may demonstrate stones, bile sludge, pericholecystic fluid, a thickened gallbladder wall, gas in the gallbladder, and/or an ultrasonic Murphy’s sign.

Treatment: Give broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and IV fluids; replete electrolytes. Nonemergent cholecystectomy is indicated.

33
Q

33.Which of the following is not secreted by the endocrine or exocrine pancreas?

Glucagon
Somatostatin
Lipase
Gastrin

A

Ans:Gastrin

Gastrin is produced by the G cells in the gastric antrum while others are produced by the pancreas

34
Q

34.Which of the following is not a sign associated with acute appendicitis?

Murphy’s sign
Obturator sign
Psoas sign
Rovsing’s sign

A

Murphy sign

Murphy’s sign is a clinical sign found in acute cholecystitis. Rovsing, psoas and obturator are signs of acute appendictis

35
Q
  1. A 48-year-old woman who has been admitted with positive “Charcot triad”. What is your likely diagnosis?

Acute cholecystitis
Cholangitis
Gallstone ileus
Pancreatitis

A

Cholangitis: Explanation
Charcot’s triad of fever, Right Upper Quadrant pain and jaundice is indicative of Cholangitis.

36
Q
  1. You assess a patient with a plantar ulcer who has poorly controlled diabetes. From the list of options below, select the most likely management plan.

Reduce plantar pressure by ensuring good footwear
Ensure podiatry input
Assess vascularity of the limb
All of the above

A

All of the above;

37
Q

37.With regard to the male urethra, which one of the following segments is the narrowest?

Pre-prostatic
Prostatic
Membranous
Bulbar

A

Membranous: The membranous urethra is the narrowest part of the urethra

38
Q
  1. Which one of the following organisms is most commonly associated with community acquired urinary tract infection?

Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Staphylococcus aureus

A

E.coli

E. Coli is the most common cause of community acquired Urinary Tract Infections

39
Q
  1. A 6-week-old boy presents with his parents and were told that the urethral meatus was not in the normal position. On examination, the meatus is on the ventral surface just below the glans penis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hypospadias
Epispadias
Phimosis
Chordee

A

Hypospadias: Hypospadias is a condition in which the urethra opens on the ventral surface of the glans or shaft . it has usually noticed n this age group. Pathological features of hypospadias include

Ventral urethral meatus; proximal to tip of glans
Dorsal hooding of the prepuce
Splayed and flattened glans (spade-like)
Absence of meatus at the tip of glans
Median grooved atretic distal urethral plate
Chordee—ventral curvature of penis
Bifid scrotum

40
Q

40.All of the following are causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, except

Hypothyroidism
Amyloidosis
Alcoholism
Gout

A

Alcoholism: Explanation
Alcoholism is not a cause of carpal tunnel syndrome. Anything causing swelling or compression of the tunnel can cause carpal tunnel syndrome eg: myxoedema; prolonged flexion (eg in a Colles’ splint); acromegaly; myeloma; local tumours (lipomas, ganglia); rheumatoid arthritis; amyloidosis; pregnancy; sarcoidosis

41
Q

41.Which of the following pathological changes is not a feature of rheumatoid dis- ease of the hand?

Boutonniere’s deformity
Z line thumb
Squaring of the thumb
Ulnar deviation

A

Squaring of the thump

Squaring of the base of the thumb is seen in osteoarthritis

42
Q

42.A patient presents to his GP complaining of a swelling on his wrist. On examination, there is a focal swelling on the dorsal aspect of the wrist. It is smooth and non-tender. The overlying skin is normal and moves freely over the mass, however it seems to be fixed to the tendon. What is the likely diagnosis?

Sebaceous cyst
Lipoma
Ganglion
Giant cell tumour of the tendon sheath

A

Ans: Ganglion A ganglion is the right answer because it originates from the tendon sheath

43
Q

43.Which one of the following forms the innermost layer of the scalp?

Loose connective tissue
Aponeurotic layer (galea)
Skin
Pericranium

A

D: pericranium

Skin-Connective tissue-Aponeurosis-Loose Areolar tissue-Pericranium. From outside to inside. (Mnemonic- SCALP)

44
Q
  1. All of the following are secreted by the adenohypophysis, except

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Oxytocin
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Growth hormone (GH)

A

Oxytocin: Oxytocin is produced by the neurohypophysis unlike the others. Hormones secreted by the adenohypophysis are FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH, GH, prolactin.

45
Q

45.A 55-year-old man with congestive heart failure presents to his cardiologist with a 3-month history of gynaecomastia. Which of his following medications is not associated with gynaecomastia?

Digoxin
Cimetidine
Spironolactone
Furosemide

A

Furosemide: Furosemide is not associated with gynecomastia.

46
Q

46.A 35-year-old professional weightlifter presents with a red and swollen lump in the left groin. An inguinal hernia is suspected and, at the time of operation, the lump is found to contain a small loop of necrotic bowel. This type of hernia is best described as:

Irreducible
Strangulated
Obstructed
Sliding

A

Stragulated: A strangulated hernia is one in which the content has been deprived of it’s blood supply and is now necrotic.

47
Q

47.Which of the following tumour markers are most commonly associated with pancreatic cancer?

Carcinoembryonic antigen
Cancer antigen (CA)125
CA19–9
α-fetoprotein (AFP)

A

CA19-9

Explanation
Tumor markers
CEA : Colorectal and pancreatic cancers. Minor associations: gastric, breast, andmedullary thyroid carcinomas.

CA-15-3: Breast cancer

CA 19-9: Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

AFP: Hepatocellular carcinoma, endodermal sinus (yolk sac) tumor, mixed germ cell tumor, ataxia- telangiectasia, neural tube defects

48
Q

48.The most common cause of mechanic intestinal obstruction is

Inflammatory bowel disease
Volvulus
Neoplasia
Adhesions

A

Adhesions

The most common cause of intestinal obstruction in adult is adhesion. Adhesions result from previous abdominal or pelvic surgeries and can trap bowel loops and cause mechanical obstruction.

49
Q

49.Abnormal skin and mucus membrane pigmentation with accompanying low blood pressure is indicative of

Albright disease
Grinspan syndrome
Addison disease
Von Recklinghausen’s disease

A

Addison disease

50
Q
  1. The following are manifestation of protein deficiency except

Gingival connective tissue degeneration
Osteoporosis
Proliferation of epithelium
Alveolar bone losses

A

Proliferation of epithelium

51
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT known to predispose to wound dehiscence?

Leakage of pancreatic juice
Early removal of stitches
Rickets
Malignant disease

A

Rickets

Rickets is a disorder of calcium metabolism and it doesn’t cause surgical wound breakdown.

52
Q

52.The most important factor in pyogenic infection is

Dose of the inoculum
Sutures contained in the tissues
Infectivity of the organism
Attendant tissue necrosis

A

Infectivity of the organism

The infectivity of the organisms is the most important factor in pyogenic infection.

53
Q
  1. Identify one feature NOT seen in obstructive jaundice.

Dark bulky stools
Dark coloured urine
Generalized itching
Anorexia

A

Dark bulky stools

Explanation
PALE BULKY STOOLS are seen in obstructive jaundice, not dark and bulky stool.

Features of obstructive jaundice: jaundice, dark urine, pale stool, pruritus, RUQ pain, nausea and vomiting etc . The present of pale stool suggests obstructive jaundice cause normal faeces get their cooler from bile pigments. If an obstruction occurs, it prevents bile from being excreted into the intestines, causing pale or clay-coloured stool.

54
Q

54.The most crucial obstacle to current safe surgery is considered to be

Pain relief
Access to internal organs
Sepsis
Development of suture materials

A

Sepsis

Explanation
Sepsis is the major hindrance to safe surgery.