Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pediatric Boards > Med Study 1 > Flashcards

Med Study 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Antidote for tylenol toxicity

A

N-Acetyl Cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All glandular secretions, aka the parasympathetic nervous system, is blocked in this toxidrome

A

anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dry mouth, dry axilla, tachycardia, goofy (mad as a hatter).

Mumbling, picking at things often as well….

= what toxidrome?

A

= anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Anticholinergic meds do what to your pupils?

A

dilate them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is benadryl anticholinergic?

A

YUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mad a as a hatter
Hot as a hare
Dry as a bone
Blind as a bat

= what toxidrome?

A

anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the anticholinergic side effects aka toxidrome:

A 
dry (dry mouth, dry axilla)
dilated pupils--blurry vision
tachycardic 
mad as a hatter
urinary retention 
constipation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tinnitus is a symptom of this toxidrome

A

salicylates (aspirin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The feared side effects of aspirin (salicylate) overdose:

A

Cerebral edema

Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why put aspirin overdose patients on a bicarb drip?

A

Helps keep the aspirin in the blood and out of the brain, and increases aspirin elimination in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acid base derangement seen in aspirin toxicity:

A

Anion gap metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the TCA (tricyclic antidepressant) toxidrome and how they cause such severe problems:

A
  • anticholinergic effects
  • TCAs are potent sodium channel blockers (cause cardiac arrhythmia–specifically widened QRS, decreased contractility)
  • they are also alpha blockers–> cause hypotension and shock
  • and the provoke seizures, can even develop status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How to treat TCA overdose:

A
  • -the anticholinergic part – supportive
  • -the seizures – benzos
  • -the cardiac stuff – give sodium bicarb (the sodium will help unblock the sodium channels a little bit that the TCAs are blocking, this will help narrow the QRS a bit)
  • -alpha agonists (like norepi) for the hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name some toxic alcohols:

A

methanol

ethylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does methanol poisoning present?

A

Methanol is a toxic alcohol. It gets converted to formic acid, which makes you blind and damages the basal ganglia.

Presents with AG metabolic acidosis, blurry vision and altered mental status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does ethylene glycol toxicity present?

A

Ethylene glycol = another toxic alcohol
Metabolizes into oxalic acid, which combines with calcium to form calcium oxalate crystals
AG metabolic acidosis
And elevated creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Calcium oxalate crystals think

A

ethylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

4-methylpyrazole

A

= a potent inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase

used to treat methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning

because it will block alcohol dehydrogenase from converting this alcohols into their toxic metabolites (formic acid and oxalic acid, respectively)

or could actually use ethanol to treat these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ethylene glycol is found in

A

it’s antifreeze

used in cars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

urine floresces

A

ethylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where is methanol found?

A

wind shield wiper fluid
or like restaurant candle light things
or if you are trying to make your own ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ex of a hydrocarbon

A

gasoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lamp oils, gasoline, kerosenes… can cause this type of poisoning in kids

A

hydrocarbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How hydrocarbon poisoning presents

A

Kids can aspirate it very easily, even through a closed glottis
hydrocarbons wipe out surfactant
causes horrible pneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does organophosphate poisoning present?

A

Think kid on a farm
It’s the opposite of anticholinergic poisoning
Its over the top extreme cholinergic poisoning
So all the glandular glands are over active
so the kid will be: salivating, lacrimating, vomiting, diarrhea, sweaty, etc

small pupils
and bradycardia*** but actually could also be tachy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pilocarpine

A

= cholinergic agonist aka a parasympathetic agent

used to treat dry mouth
so it makes the mouth wetter
and causes small pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the thing that will kill you in organophosphate poisoning?

A

Pulmonary edema
from pulmonary secretions
and bronchospasm

and seizures/status epilepticus

and paralysis–yikes–from overstimulation of receptors on muscles (just like how succinylcholine works)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How to treat organophosphate poisoning:

A

Give atropine (an anti cholinergic drug) to dry the excessive secretions, including pulmonary secretions

And, give an oxene, which will literally take the organophosphate off of the acetylcholinesterase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do organophosphates work?

A

they bind to acetylcholinesterase and block it

that’s how they cause organophosphate aka cholinergic poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MOA of CO poisoning:

A

CO is a potent mitochondrial inhibitor

It prevents ATP formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Symptoms of CO poisoning:

A

First, affects the organs that use ATP the most – the heart and the brain. You get headaches, nausea, ataxia….. progresses to tachycardia, hypotension, coma, seizures, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How to treat CO poisoning

A

OXYGEN oxygen and more oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Keep kids away from prenatal vitamins because of this severe danger:

A

acute iron toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Symptoms of iron toxicity:

A

First, you get GI symptoms, because iron is a potent GI irritant. So after you eat it, you get severe nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bad GI symptoms.

Then once it’s absorbed into the body, you get hypotensive, metabolic acidosis, coma, organ damage

because lots of free iron has no where to bind, causes free radicals to form and lots of organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When free iron hits the mitochondria, what happens?

A

You stop making ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How to treat acute iron poisoning:

A

deferoxamine (iron chelator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A normal lead level should be

A

under 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

At what level do you think about giving chelation therapy for lead toxicity?

A

45 or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When lead levels are WAY too high, you worry about this toxic effect of lead:

A

cerebral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Chelator we use to treat lead toxicity at a level of 45 or higher, but without acute encephalopathy:

A

Succimer or also called DMSA (dimercaptosuccinic acid)

makes you pee out the lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Succimer, or DMSA?

A

= an oral lead chelator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If a child is acutely encephalopathic from lead toxicity, how do you need to treat them?

A

In this case, need to use these two agents together: BAL (British anti lewisite, a painful IM med) and EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common bacterial cause of diarrhea is

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What type of E.coli causes common traveler’s diarrhea?

A

ETEC (enterotoxigenic e.coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What kind of E.coli causes infantile diarrhea outbreaks in daycares?

A

EPEC (enteropathogenic E.coli)

p for puny
the little ones get it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of E. coli diarrhea is associated with HUS?

A

EHEC (enteroHEMORRHAGIC e.coli) aka 0157

HUS = hemolytic uremic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Name two bacterial causes of diarrhea other than E.coli:

A

Yersinia

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does Yersinia sometimes present?

A

As “pseudoappendicitis”

aka diarrhea + RLQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Is the BRAT diet (bananas, rice, applesauce and toast) necessary for kids who have bacterial diarrhea?

A

nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

4 most common bugs that causes sepsis and meningitis in neonates:

A

GBS
E. coli
Strep pneumo
Staph

(in infants 1 - 12 months of age, it’s this same list, + also salmonella)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

This syndrome is caused by loss of gene activity on the maternally acquired chromosome 15 in the 15q11-13 region:

A

Angelman syndrome

If the deletion or inactivation of this same area came from the FATHER’s side, then the child will have Prader-Wili syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How does Angelman syndrome present?

A

Microcephaly and developmental delays starting at 6 months of age

near absent speech
wide based, ataxic gait
easily excited and laughing child 
hand flapping 
protruding tongue and unique facial features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What causes cri-du-chat syndrome?

A

A deletion of part of chromosome 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How does SCFE (aka slipped capital femoral epiphysis) present?

A

Usually in a pre teen or young teenager who is at peak linear growth velocity, has several weeks to months of hip/thigh/groin/knee pain and a painful limp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which endocrine conditions are associated with SCFE?

A

hypothyroidism
obesity
hypogonadal conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are brush field spots and who commonly has them?

A

Seen in patients with Trisomy 21

= small, whitish-gray spots on the iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is Mullerian aplasia, and what is the other name for this condition?

A

Other name: Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser synrome)

it’s when the mullerian duct, aka vagina, uterus and fallopian tubes, don’t develop

However, the rest of the female anatomy and all hormones and chromosomes are normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How does mullerian aplasia usually present?

A

With primary amenorrhea
In a teen found to then have no uterus
However external female anatomy is normal
and breasts and pubic hair will still be tanner stage 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Long term side effect of etoposide

A

can induce high risk AML or ALL within 3 years of exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

True or false: Breast cancer is increased in survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma.

A

True (chest radiation is part of treatment).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Perinatally acquired HPV warts can show up until this age:

A

up to 20 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

If two live vaccines (for ex varicella and MMR) are not given on the same day, they need to be separated by at least this much time:

A

4 weeks or more

this is because if the second vaccine is given less than 4 weeks later, the antibody response to the first vaccine may decrease the efficacy of the immune response to the 2nd vaccine

(why is this only the case with live vaccines? hmm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Iron absorption is enhanced by

A

ascorbic acid (aka vitamin c)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the most specific lab finding for iron deficiency?

A

a low serum ferritin (like less than 15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

If a permanent tooth is avulsed, how do you save it?

A

Hold it by the crown and rinse with water
Then reimplant it and hold it in place on way to dentist if child is cooperative

If child is not cooperative and might aspirate the tooth, then instead put the tooth in cold cow’s milk (safe, isotonic, does not harm the root)

the tooth will remain viable for 1- maybe 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Job of IgA

A

to provide local defense against infections in the respiratory, GI and GU tracts

67
Q

What type of antibody is the first type of antibody produced after/during an infection?

A

IgM

68
Q

Blank is the predominant type of antibody in the serum, and the predominant type that crosses the placenta

A

IgG

69
Q

What are Roth spots?

A

Roth spots = exudative, edematous, hemorrhagic lesions of the retina seen in patients with bacterial endocarditis

70
Q

Most common skin manifestation of bacterial endocarditis:

A

Petechiae on the mucous membranes and extremities

71
Q

The majority of subacute bacterial endocarditis cases are caused by these bugs:

A

staph aureus
strep viridans
less commonly–coag neg staph

72
Q

Most common skin manifestation of SBE

A

petechiae

73
Q

What are splinter hemorrhages?

A

Linear reddish brown lesions found under the nail beds seen in SBE

74
Q

What are Osler nodes?

A

= painful, violaceaous nodules on the tips of the fingers and toes seen in SBE

75
Q

What are Janeway lesions?

A

= painLESS, erythematous macules on the palms and oles seen in SBE

76
Q

New name for Henoch-Schonlein purpura

A

IgA vasculitis

77
Q

How does IgA vasculitis (aka HSP) present?

A

a purpuric rash on the legs and butt

78
Q

What is SMA syndrome?

A

= when there is loss of mesenteric fat, allowing the second 2/3 of the duodenum to get compressed between the SMA and the abdominal aorta – presents as duodenal obstruction

79
Q

What conditions lead to SMA syndrome?

A

Any condition that causes rapid weight loss, where you rapidly lose the fat between the SMA and abdominal aorta

Seen in anorexia, severe weight loss post op, etc

80
Q

What makes the pain in SMA syndrome better?

A

Lying in the left lateral decub position with knees to chest, or prone

81
Q

Blank syndrome causes copper deposition in body tissues

A

Wilson syndrome

82
Q

Eczematous dermatitis is a classic sign of this nutritional deficiency

A

Essential fatty acid deficiency

83
Q

What IS essential fatty acid deficiency?

A

= low levels of linoleic and alpha linoleic acid, levels that are so low it messes up fatty acid metabolism

(linoleic acid is the main omega-6 fatty acid, and alpha linoleic acid is the main omega 3 fatty acid)

84
Q

What are the symptoms of essential fatty acid deficiency, aka EFAD?

A

reduced growth velocity
delayed neurodevelopment
scaly dermatitis
increased susceptibility to infection

85
Q

Who gets EFAD, or essential fatty acid deficiency?

A

Kids with CF
With hepatobiliary disease
Anyone on TPN without lipids

86
Q

An extra lack of omega-3 and omega-6 acids =

A

essential fatty acid deficiency

87
Q

Other name for omega fatty acids

A

linoleic acids

88
Q

Blank acid is the main essential fatty acid.

A

Linoleic acid

89
Q

A reddish black skin lesion with irregular borders would be highly concerning for

A

melanoma

90
Q

What do subcutaneous nodules associated with neuroblastoma look like?

A

dark bluish subcutaneous nodules

91
Q

Tumor markers associated with testicular cancer:

A

AFP (alpha fetoprotein)

B-hCG

92
Q

Acute cardiovascular side effects of marijuana

A

marijuana causes release of catecholamines –> tachycardia, hypertension, vasoconstriction

Oh….. but apparently can also make you bradycardic. okkk

93
Q

Is gynecomastia in men a side effect of marijuana?

A

yup! apparently it is

so is infertility, oligospermia and decreased testosterone

94
Q

What is fibrous dysplasia?

A

= a disorder where there are radiolucent regions of immature woven bone that do not differentiate into mature lamellar bone like they should

Can be clinically silent, or can present with pain and/or pathologic fractures

Is a feature of McCune Albright Syndrome

95
Q

3 clinical features of McCune Albright syndrome:

A
  1. cafe au lait spots
  2. precocious puberty
  3. fibrous dysplasia
96
Q

Lens dislocation and joint laxity are associated with

A

Marfan syndrome

97
Q

Brownish-gold discoloration of the limbus of the cornea and emotional lability are associated with

A

Wilson disease

98
Q

Facial angiofibromas and intellectual disabilities are associated with

A

Tuberous sclerosis

99
Q

Blank is a genetic condition that affects your bones, skin and endocrine system, causing café-au-lait skin pigmentation, scar tissue forming on bones (fibrous dysplasia) and irregular function of growth-regulating glands that produce hormones.

A

McCune-Albright Syndrome

100
Q

BLANK is an x-linked disease that presents with the classic triad of thrombocytopenia, eczema, and susceptibility to infections from encapsulated bacteria

A

WAS (Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome)

101
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome only occurs in

A

boys

because it is x-linked recessive

102
Q

Microcephaly, congenital cataracts, and a PDA =

A

Congenital Rubella syndrome

103
Q

Clinical features of congenital rubella

A 
PDA
cataracts
microcephaly
sensorineural hearing loss
purpuric "blueberry muffin" rash
104
Q

A neonate is born with limb hypoplasia, micropthalmia, and scarring in a dermatomal distribution. Which congenital infection are they affected by?

A

Varicella

105
Q

This virus causes bone marrow suppression and subsequent non immune fetal hydrops

A

Parvovirus B19

106
Q

Neonate with microcephaly and periventricular calcifications =

A

congenital CMV

107
Q

Most common cause of non-inherited deafness is

A

Congenital CMV (progressive sensorineural hearing loss)

108
Q

“Blueberry muffin” rash can be seen in these congenital infections

A

CMV

Rubella

109
Q

Clinical features of congenital CMV:

A 
microcephaly 
PERVENTRICULAR calcifications 
chorioretinitis
hepatosplenomegaly
jaundice
intrauterine growth restriction
blueberry muffin rash
progressive sensorineural hearing loss
110
Q

Almost all congenital infections will include these clinical features:

A

IUGR

hepatosplenomegaly

111
Q

Which age groups most common get Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Infants under age 1

And teenagers age 15-21

112
Q

How to treat meningococcal (Neisseria) meningitis:

A

ceftriaxone or cefotaxime initially as empiric tx, then can switch to penicillin once Neisseria is confirmed

113
Q

Which type of Neisseria causes the majority of neisseria meningitis cases in infants?

A

Serotype B

114
Q

What is lupus anticoagulant?

A

= a prothrombotic, antiphospholipid antibody that despite being prothrombotic, actually inhibits a bunch of clotting factors and leads to a prolongation in the PTT (kind of paradoxically)

it can be the first sign of Lupus
and can predispose to clots

115
Q

Pathophys of how Factor 5 Leiden causes clotting

A

activates protein C resistance

116
Q

Do low protein C levels lead to increased clotting, or increased bleeding?

A

Low protein C levels = increased risk of thrombosis

117
Q

If you have protein C deficiency, are you at risk of the formation of clots or at risk of bleeding?

A

At risk for the formation of clots

118
Q

Blank deficiency may cause hemolysis in premature infants

A

Vitamin E

119
Q

Symptoms of vitamin E deficiency

A

hemolysis
hyporeflexia progressing to ataxia and severe muscle weakness
limitations in upward gaze

120
Q

Symptoms of zinc deficiency

A 
poor growth
diarrhea
impaired sense of smell (and taste)
decreased immune function
dermatitis
alopecia
hypogonadism
121
Q

Dermatitis, failure to thrive and alopecia are symptoms of blank deficiency

A

zinc deficiency

122
Q

Irritability, poor wound healing, gingival bleeding, petechiae, bruises, and tenderness and swelling of the lower extremities =

A

Scurvy

123
Q

Thiamin is also called

A

B1

124
Q

Riboflavin is also called

A

B2

125
Q

Pyridoxine is also called

A

B6

126
Q

Cobalamin is also called

A

B12

127
Q

What is pellagra and how does it present?

A

Dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia
3 Ds
from niacin deficiency
happens if you don’t eat enough nicotinic acid (or its precursor, tryptophan)

128
Q

Diarrhea, dementia, and dermatitis that gets worse in the sun =

A

pellagra

aka niacin deficiency

129
Q

Niacin is also called

A

B3

130
Q

The sudden appearance of rash following defervescence of fever =

A

Roseola

131
Q

Describe the rash in Roseola

A

Occurs AFTER the fever goes away
starts on the trunk, then quickly spreads to the face, neck and extremities from there
“widespread erythematous blanching macules”

132
Q

Viruses that cause Roseola

A

Herpesviruses 6 and 7

most commonly 6

133
Q

Peak age for getting Roseola

A

6-15 months

134
Q

Roseola is rare after this age

A

36 months

135
Q

Common ish complication of Roseola

A

febrile seizure

136
Q

Fever, slapped-cheek erythema, and a lacy-like rash on the extremities (that all occurs at the same time) =

A

Parvovirus B19

137
Q

Is the Roseola rash pruritic?

A

nope

138
Q

What is the Berliner sign?

A

Palpebral/periorbital edema that occurs in Roseola

139
Q

A fixed, split S2 is a classic finding associated with ….

A

an ASD

140
Q

RV volume blank with inspiration

A

increases

141
Q

On inspiration, what happens to the blood volume in the RV?

A

increases

142
Q

In a normal healthy heart, the duration of RV ejection always stays the same or varies?

A

Varies with respiration

On inspiration, RV volume increases, so takes longer for the blood to all go through the RVOT across the pulm valve

143
Q

peaked P waves indidcate

A

right atrial enlargement

144
Q

Why do you eventually get a murmur with an ASD?

A

Because you will get L–>R shunting, extra blood volume going to the R heart which is immediately seen by the RV and causes more blood to have to go through the RVOT with each beat, so you get a systolic murmur of “relative pulmonary stenosis”

145
Q

Explain the heart sounds you would hear in a teenager with a clinically significant ASD:

A

Systolic murmur from increased blood flow across the RVOT

and

a wide, fixed split S2, because there is increased blood flow across the RVOT with every single beat, causing the closing of the pulmonic valve to always be a little delayed (normally, it just varies with respiration)

(you CAN also hear a soft mid diastolic rumble from increased flow across the tricuspid valve)

146
Q

A widely split S2 that does not vary with respiration should make you think of

A

an ASD

147
Q

Why does the pulmonary valve close later during inspiration?

A

Because on inspiration there is increased RV volume

148
Q

Loud, narrow split S2 think

A

pulmonary hypertension, causing early closure of the pulmonary valve

149
Q

How to differentiate severe pulmonic stenosis from an ASD on auscultation:

A

Pulmonic stenosis will have an ejection click, caused by the thickened and doming pulmonary valve

150
Q

Harsh systolic ejection murmur, ejection click best heard over the LUS border, and an S2 that stays split but still varies with respiration =

A

severe pulmonic stenosis

can also have a systolic thrill (vibration from blood going across severely stenosed valve)

151
Q

What is the most common type of TEF?

A

Esophageal atresia (proximal pouch) with a distal TEF

87% of patients with a TEF will have this anatomy

152
Q

What does CHARGE syndrome stand for?

A 
Coloboma
Heart anomalies 
Atresia of the nasal choanae 
Retardation of growth and/or development
Genital anomalies
Ear anomalies
153
Q

What causes dental caries?

A

Strep mutans, a group of bacteria that adhere to dental enamel

154
Q

Bacterial fermentation of carbs does what to the pH of dental plaque?

A

lowers it
think soda carbonated acidic
that lower pH leads to demineralization and formation of dental caries

155
Q

Bottle feeding beyond 1 year of age puts you at risk of

A

dental caries

156
Q

Strep mutans is associated with

A

dental caries

and reduced pH of dental plaque

157
Q

MUDPILES stands for:

A 
Methanol
Uremia
DKA
Paraldehyde
Iron, isoniazid 
Lactic acid
Ethanol and Ethylene glycol
Salicylates

= the causes of anion gap metabolic acidosis

158
Q

A mature cystic teratoma is also called

A

a dermoid cyst

it’s a benign ovarian tumor

159
Q

Infants with galactosemia specifically are at increased risk for sepsis due to this bug

A

E.coli sepsis

160
Q

Eye exam of infant with galatosemia will show

A

cataracts

161
Q

The tilt table test is used to diagnose this type of syncope

A

neurocardiogenic

if you go flying from supine to standing and get bradycardic with HR < 40 or hypotensive and or pass out, then you have vasovagal syncope

wow what a fun and kind test

162
Q

Abdominal complication that can occur in Kawasaki disease

A

acute distension of the gallbladder aka “gallbladder hydrops”

can be felt as RUQ mass on exam and typically self resolves

163
Q

Sensitivity =

A

TP / (TP + FN)

164
Q

1st line treatment for cluster headaches

A

oxygen and triptans

Pediatric Boards (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions