Medication or Neuroscience-related Flashcards

1
Q

Name the major dopamine pathways

A

Mesocortical, nigrostriatal, mesolimbic, tuberoinfundibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is the mechanism of action of propranolol (when used for psychiatric tx).

A

“Membrane-stabilizing effect and GABA-mimetic activity; 5-HT1a antagonist”

CHPD, 18th Ed. pg. 296

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Prazosin when used in PTSD for nightmares/sleep disturbances?

A

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist

CHPD ed18, pg 298

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Modafanil?

A

Psychostimulant which blocks dopamine transporter and increases dopamine;
Also activates neurons and increases release of histamine, dopamine, NE and 5-HT.

CHPD ed. 18, pg. 299

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Melatonin:

  • peak plasma concentration?
  • metabolized by ?
  • elimination 1/2 life?
A
  • 60 mins
  • liver
  • 20-50 mins

CHPD ed. 18, pg. 307

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What symptoms occur when disulfiram (Antabuse) is combined with alcohol?

A

Headache, sweating, flushing, N/V, tachycardia and hypotension; can occur 10-20 min after alcohol ingestion and may last for several hours.

CHPD ed. 18, p. 279

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List 3 psychostimulants that are classified as a methylphenidate, and 3 that are classified as amphetamine and related drugs.

A

Methylphenidate

  • Ritalin (plus SR and LA formulations)
  • Biphentin
  • Concerta

Amphetamines

  • Dexedrine (plus spansules/ER)
  • Vyvanse
  • Adderall

CHPD ed.18, p. 216

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the mechanism of action of atomoxerine (Strattera)?

A

Selective norepinephrine re uptake inhibitor; increases dopamine and norepinephrine in the frontal cortex (without increasing dopamine on sub cortical areas)

CHPD ed.18, p. 224

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clonidine?

A

A central and peripheral alpha-adrenergic agonists; acts on presynaptic neurons and inhibits noradrenergic release and transmission at the synapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lithium?

A

The exact mechanism of action is unknown; postulated that lithium may stabilize catecholamine receptors, and may alter calcium-mediated intracellular functions and increase GABA activity.

CHPD 18 Ed., p. 187

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What ECG changes are seen at therapeutic doses with lithium?

A

20–30% have benign T-wave changes (flattening or inversion] and QRS widening at therapeutic doses. Caused by the displacement of intercellular potassium by the lithium ion.

CHPD 18ed. P. 188/K&S p. 1059

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are symptoms of mild lithium toxicity?

A

Side effects such as ataxia, course tremor, confusion, diarrhea, drowsiness, fasciculation, and slurred speech may occur.

CHPD 18ed. p. 190

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The risk of Ebstein’s anomaly of the tricuspid valves in lithium-exposed fetuses is __________?

A

1 in 1,000 which is 20 times the risk in the general population.

The teratogenic risk of lithium is 4-12% compared to 2-3% of the general population.

Note that lithium is present in breast milk at a concentration of 30-100%.

K&S, p1061

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What initial medical work up should be completed when starting lithium?

A

Creatinine, electrolytes, thyroid function tests (TSH, T3/T4), CBC, ECG, pregnancy test in women of childbearing age.

K&S, p1062

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

About ____% of patients started on lamotrigine develop a benign maculopapular rash during the first four months of treatment.

A

8%

  • the drug should be discontinued if a rash develops.
  • Serious rash (SJS or TEN): incidence of 0.08-0.13.

K&S, p1054

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the symptoms of an anti-cholinergic toxidrome?

A

Blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, red as a beet, hot as hades, dry as a bone, the bowel and bladder lose their tone, and the heart runs alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False: In clinical trials of aripiprazole the incidence of QT prolongation was similar to placebo.

A

True

from Abilify Product Monograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the most common side effects for Abilify

A

Akathesia, somnolence, tremor, weight gain, EPS, restlessness, rhinorrhea

from Abilify Product Monograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Abilify is metabolised by which 2 CYP450 enzymes?

A

3A4 and 2D6

  • thus any drug that inhibits 2D6 will increase abilify blood levels (ex., fluoxetine, paroxetine); and any drug that induces 3A4 will decrease abilify blood levels (ex., carbamazepine)

from Abilify Product Monograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What medications/therapies were offered in the STAR*D trial?

A

Level 1: Citalopram

Level 2:
switch to sertraline, buproprion SR, venlafaxine
OR add either mirtazapine or buproprion SR
OR add/switch to CBT.

Level 3:
switch to nortriptyline or mirtazapine
OR add T3 or Lithium

Level 4: switch to MAOI (tranylcypromine: Parnate) or to mirtazapine + venlafaxine XR combo

STAR*D NIMH summary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What medications were offered in the CATIE trial and what were the major results of the trial?

A
Phase I:
Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
Risperidone (Risperdal)
Ziprasidone (Geodon)
Quetiapine (Seroquel)
Perphenazine (Trilafon)
Phase 2:
Clozapine vs. atypical (efficacy pathway)
Ziprasidone vs. atypical (tolerability pathway)

Level 1 Results:

  • All meds comparable efficacy, with olanzapine having a slight advantage (less hospitalizations, stayed on drug longer).
  • Olanzapine associated with more weight gain/metabolic changes, risk of diabetes than the other meds.
  • High discontinution rates for all meds and 3/4 required at least a second med trial.
  • No increased EPS with perphenazine.

Level 2 Results:

  • Clozapine more effective
  • Risperidone and olanzapine more tolerable in phase 2 compared to ziprasidone and quietiapine.

NIMH CATIE trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Quetiapine is metabolized by ?

A

CYP3A4

uOttawa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What mechanisms contribute to Quetiapine’s antidepressant qualities?

A
  • active metabolite N-Desalkylquetiapine has dual antidepressant activity. It has significant affinity for norepinephrine re uptake transporter AND agonistic binding affinity to 5-HT1A.

uOttawa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants: name the TCA with,

  1. Most side effects
  2. The first TCA
  3. Most anti-histaminergic
  4. Most potent serotonergic
A
  1. Amitriptyline
  2. Imipramine
  3. Doxepin
  4. Clomipramine

uOttawa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most common side effect among SSRI’s?

A

Nausea (worse with paroxetine and sertraline)

uOttawa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain the hypertensive crisis or “cheese reaction” as a side effect of an MAOI.

A

Tyramine is normally deaminated in GI mucosa by MAO. Tyramine is absorbed and taken up by noradrenergic neurons where it displaces the stored norepinephrine from the synaptic vesicles. Norepinephrine is released and free to exert its vasopressive effect.

uOttawa

26
Q

Which SSRI has the highest rate of drowsiness?

A

Paroxetine

uOttawa

27
Q

Which SSRI is associated with the highest rate of anxiety and agitation?

A

Fluoxetine

uOttawa

28
Q

Which of the following antidepressants, with increasing dose titration, can decrease QTC interval?

  1. Amitriptyline
  2. Mirtazapine
  3. Buproprion
  4. Duloxetine
  5. Seroquel XR
A

Buproprion

uOttawa

29
Q

What symptoms are involved in serotonin syndrome?

A

Consists of a triad of:

  • Mental status changes: confusion, delirium, hallucinosis
  • Physical findings: tremor, myoclonus, hypertonicity, hyperreflexia
  • Autonomic instability: fever, diaphoresis, BP instability

uOttawa

30
Q

List 3 inducers of CYP 2D6

A
  • phenobarbital
  • carbamazapine
  • rifampin

Note: above are also inducers of 3A4 (in addition to phenytoin, ethanol, cigarette smoke, bbq food)

uOttawa

31
Q

List 5 inducers of CYP 1A2

A
  • BBQ food
  • Cabbage
  • Carbamazapine
  • Cigarrette smoke
  • Rifampin

uOttawa

32
Q

The core structure of benzodiazepines consist of a _______ and a ________ ring.

A

Benzene and a diazapine

uOttawa

33
Q

The benzodiazapine molecule is a postive allosteric modulator. Explain

A
  • Allosteric modulation refers to the ability of a secondary molecule to modulate the gating of the channel, despite their binding being distant from the primary binding site.
  • The allosteric BZD molecule is ineffective by itself without the presence of the primary GABA molecule. GABA and BZD’s bind on the same postsynaptic GABA-A receptor at different binding sites.

uOttawa

34
Q

What is unique about lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam?

A

“LOT” - are exclusively metabolized via glucoronidation and not affected by aging, liver disease and other drugs.

uOttawa

35
Q

What is the predominant histological finding of lithium nephrotoxicity?

A
  • Nonspecific chronic tubulointerstitial nephropathy consisting of tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis with relative sparing of glomeruli.

uOttawa

36
Q

Overal prevalence of teratogenic effects of valproic acid = ____?

A

10.7% (vs 2.9% for other AEDs and 1.6% in gen. pop)

  • neural tube defects 1.5-5%
  • spina bifida 1-2% (vs. 0.14%-0.2% in gen. pop)

uOttawa

37
Q

Name the 3 catecholamines.

A
  • Dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine

K&S, p. 103

38
Q

Where does COMT act?

A
  • Primarily in the cytoplasm postsynaptically

K&S, p. 102

39
Q

The cell bodies of most serotonergic neurons are located in the __________ and project to the cerebral cortex, limbic system (especially the amygdala and hippocampus), and the hypothalamus.

A
  • The raphe nucleus in the rostral brainstem

K&S, p. 583

40
Q

What are relative contraindications for ECT?

A
  • Unstable & severe CV disease
  • Space occupying lesion with raised ICP
  • Recent cerebral hemorrhage or stroke
  • Bleeding/Unstable vascular aneurysm
  • Severe/Unstable pulmonary condition
  • ASA Class 4 or 5

(NO absolute contraindications)

uOttawa

42
Q

During ECT, ______ % of the current is resisted by the skull and shunted through the scalp and _____ % of the charge delivered by the ECT device enters the brain:

a. 40-50; 50-60
b. 50-60; 40-50
c. 60-70; 30-40
d. 70-80; 20-30
e. 80-90; 10-20

A

e. 80-90% resisted by the skull and 10-20% enters the brain

uOttawa

42
Q

Which of the following medications is least likely to be affected by end-stage renal disease (ESRD)?

a. Haloperidol
b. Risperidone
c. Venlafaxine
d. Mirtazapine
e. Lithium

A

a. Haloperidol
“The active metabolite of risperidone, 9-hydroxyrisperidone is renally excreted. Both venlafaxine (desvenlafaxine) and mirtazapine have some renal excretion. Lithium is completely excreted by the kidney. Haloperidol undergoes minimal renal excretion.”

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

43
Q

Name the 3 types of glial cells

A
  • astrocytes
  • oligodendrocytes (Schwann cells in PNS)
  • microglia

K&S

44
Q

Which of the following medications is UNLIKELY to result in drug-induced hepatoxicity?

a. Valproate
b. Duloxetine
c. Gabapentin
d. Chlorpromazine
e. Carbamazepine

A

c. Gabapentin (it is entirely renally excreted and not assicated with hepatoxicity. Hepatoxicity is associated with the other 4 agents).

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

45
Q

Which of the following medications is the least anticholinergic in elderly patients?

a. Clozapine
b. Risperidone
c. Olanzapine
d. Paroxetine
e. Amitriptyline

A

b. Risperidone

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

46
Q

Which antidepressants have been studied in RCT’s for post-MI depression?

a. Citalopram
b. Sertraline
c. Venlafaxine
d. All of the above
e. Only A & B

A

e. Only A & B (Citalopram and sertraline have been studied in the seminal cardiac depression studies called CREATE and SADHART).

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

47
Q

A 64 yr old man with DMT2 x 20 yrs. Depressed, mild renal impairment, significant neuropathic pain. ECG reveals QTc of 498 sec. Low magnesium level. Which antidepressant would be the best alternative?

a. Citalopram
b. Escitalopram
c. Duloxetine
d. Nortriptyline
e. Quetiapine

A

c. Duloxetine (The pt is suffering from MDD and neuropathic pain. Pain is mediated by serotonin and norepinephrine. However, NE inhibition is specific to the inhibitory pain pathway and is the reason for the efficacy of the TCAs and SNRIs over SSRIs for neuropathic pain. Give the QTc risks with the increased QTc and Mg abnormality, the TCA is not as safe a choice as duloxetine).

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

49
Q

52 yr old male with hepatitis C, 2 previous GI bleeds, osteoarthritis. Takes haldol and lorazepam 0.5 mg qhs prn. Increased shoulder pain x 2 weeks, given naproxen. Referred to you for MDD with anxious features not meeting criteria for an anxiety disorder. Which antidepressant is the best choice?

a. Paroxetine
b. Fluoxetine
c. Escitalopram
d. Duloxetine
e. Mirtazapine

A

e. Mirtazapine (It is theorized that antidepressants with high serotonin reuptake are at higher risk of GI bleed. The risk is increased with concurrent NSAID therapy. This pt is also at risk given the severity of his liver disease specifically portal HTN. Mirtazapine has the lowest serotonin reuptake and also may help with the anxious features. Duloxetine has warnings of hepatoxicity and should be avoided if possible in pts with liver disease.)

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

49
Q

65 yr old male with moderate COPD, stabilized from acute COPD in hospital. His O2 sats are 92% on RA. His is suffering from insomnia, mainly difficulty initiating sleep. He has not responded to trazodone or quetiapine and had excessive daytime sedation on both agents. Which agent would be the BEST choice short-term?

a. Clonzaepam
b. Diazepam
c. Zopiclone
d. Temazepam
e. Melatonin

A

c. Zopiclone (Although all agents listed except melatonin carry some risk of respiratory depression, small open label studes suggest that zopiclone may confer a lower risk than benzo’s. Melatonin has inconclusive evidence in medically ill patients with insomnia.)

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

50
Q

41 yr old female, HIV +, on lopinavir-ritonavir, zidovudine and lamivudine. No prior hx of substance use. She is having sleeping difficulties, mainly middle insomnia. You would have to adjust the dose of all of the following medications except:

a. Clonazapam
b. Trazodone
c. Alprazolam
d. Quetiapine
e. Temazepam

A

e. Temazepam (Although benzo’s are not ideal long-term, in terms of drug-drug interactions with protease inhibitors, temazepam is the least likely to be affected (remember “LOT” bypass first metabolism). Protease inhibitors are potent inhibitors of CYP3A4, which metabolizes all “non-LOT” benzo’s, quietiapine, and trazodone.

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

52
Q

39 yr old male, HIV+, depressed, fatigue, poor appetite, apathy. No other psych comorbidity and no hx substance use except for daily cannabis use. Which statement is most correct regarding the use of a stimulant in this pt?

a. Methylphenidate (MPD) is only effective for depression if a pt has comorbid ADHD
b. MPD may improve appetite short-term
c. MPD should not be used with HAART due to significant drug interactions
d. Concerta has a higher potential for abuse then MPF IR
e. MPD helps only with energy and does not help depressed mood

A

B. MPD may improve appetite short-term. (MPD is used to tx depression in the medically ill in acute settings (off-label). The evidence is derived from HIV and CA pts. Although long-term MPD tx can suppress appetite, acutely pts may experience an increase in appetite secondary to improvement in depressive sx’s. Concerta has a lower potential for abuse than other forms of MPD as it cannot be crushed easily and has an OROS delivery system. All sx’s of depression can be improved by MPD. MPD has minimal drug-drug interactions.)

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

52
Q

Dopaminergic percentage blocking thresholds:

  • ? for efficacy
  • 72% for prolactin elevation
  • 78% for Parkinsonism
A

68%

uOttawa

53
Q

65 yr old male, admitted for aortic valve replacement is delirious POD2. No pre-existing dementia, may have mild cognitive impairment. Remains disoriented with fluctuating LOC. He has not required restraints but needs frequent re-direction to stay in bed. His QTc is 445 msec an his Mg and K are normal. All of the following would be reasonable choices for managing his delirium except:

a. Rivastigmine
b. Risperidone
c. IV haloperidol
d. Quetiapine
e. A & E only

A

a. Rivastigmine (Evidence for IV halperidol is derived from older delirium tx guidelines and haloperidol has efficacy in ICU and non-ICU settings for delirium management. Quetiapine has randomized double-blind controlled trial (RCT) evidence for ICU delirium.
- Rivastigmine has been studied as a tx for delirium in pts without dementia and the only RCT had to be stopped prematurely due to increased mortality in the rivastigmine group).

Dr. Sockalingam CL notes Dec 2012

54
Q

Fill in the chart:

Trade Initial dose (mg) Maint. Max dose
Modecate ? 12.5-50 q4w 50-100 q2-4w
Haldol LA ? ? 400 q4w
Clopixol dep. 100-400 ? 400 q2w
Acuphase ? NA 150 x 4 days
Invega sust. ? 25-50 q2w ?
Risp. Consta 25 25-50 q2w ?

A
  • Modecate: initial dose 2.5-5 mg
    Haldol LA: initial dose 50-150 mg; Maint. dose 25-300 q2-4 weeks
  • Clopixol: Maintenance dose 150-300 mg w 2-4 weeks
  • Acuphase: initial dose 50-100 mg q 2-3 days
  • Invega: initial dose 150 mg day 1 + 100 mg at 1 week in deltoid; max dose 150 mg q.4 weeks
  • Consta: max dose 75 mg q. 2 weeks according to uOttawa but product monograph says max dose 50 mg q 2 weeks

uOttawa (cross-checked and adapted with individual product monographs)

55
Q

What is the initial dose and target dose range of Asenapine?

A

5 mg initial dose
5-10 mg BID target dose

uOttawa

56
Q

What is the role of nicotinic receptors in schizophrenia?

A
  • nicotine-induced activation of low affinity alpha7nAChR is involved in cognition. These receptors exibit reduced expression in postmortem hippocampus & frontal cortex of SZ pts.
  • Low affinity alpha7nAChR and high affinity nAChRs modulate activity of DA, 5-HT, Glu: all implicated in nicotine disorders, psychosis, SZ.
  • Nicotinic stimulation of nAChRs on DA neurons releases DA in mesolimbic subcortical VTA and Nacc reward regions, and in the forebrain of PFC.
  • Hypodopaminergic activity in the PFC has been linked to negative sx’s and cognitive impairment in SZ.

uOttawa

57
Q

Augmentation strategies in clozapine resistance:

a. List 3 that have evidence showing relative safety and promising efficacy.
b. List 2 that have probable efficacy and acceptable tolerability

A

a. Low-frequency rTMS
Fatty acid supplementation
Mirtazapine

b. Lamotrigine; ECT

uOttawa (from Tranulis et al. 2006)

58
Q

Fill in the chart: metablized by what CYP450 enzymes?

Major Minor
Risperidone 2D6 Nil
3A4
Olanzapine 1A2 ?
Quetiapine 3A4 ?
Clozapine 1A2 ?
3A4

A

2D6 (answer for all three question marks)

uOttawa

Good article:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC161731/

59
Q

Strategies to improve medication adherence with antipsychotics include:

A
  • education about the med to pt and family
  • simple dosing regimens (once daily)
  • dosette or blister packing
  • rapid oral dissolving tablets or liquid formulations
  • LA injectables
  • medication monitoring teams
  • ACT teams

uOttawa

60
Q

What are 4 common causes of death in NMS?

A
  • pulmonary embolism
  • DIC
  • Renal failure
  • Aspiration

uOttawa

61
Q

What are some prominent risk factors for prolonged QTc?

A
  • congential long QT syndrome
  • elderly age
  • female sex
  • heart failure
  • myocardial infarction
  • using other drugs that prolong QT

CHPD 18th ed.

62
Q

What symptoms can be present in SSRI discontinuation syndrome?

A

Dizziness, abnormal dreams, sensory disturbances (including paresthesias and electric shock sensations), agitation, anxiety, fatigue, confusion, headache, tremor, nausea, vomiting and sweating.

Sertraline Product Monograph