Medicine Flashcards

0
Q

Leriches syndrome

A

Atheromatous occlusion of distal aorta just above bifurcation

Causes:
bilateral claudication, (low back, hip, buttock, thigh)
impotence,
and absent or diminished femoral pulses.
atrophy of lower extremities

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1
Q

Normal ankle to brachial index

A

Ratio of systolic at ankle to arm

.9 to 1.3 is normal

Pts with increased ABI usually due to calcified vessels and false readings.

Claudication because of peripheral vascular disease has lower ABI

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2
Q

Gold standard diagnosing peripheral vascular disease

A

Arteriography

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3
Q

Gold standard diagnosing acute arterial occlusion

A

Arteriogram

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4
Q

Homans sign

A

Calf pain on ankle dorsiflexion

Sign of DVT

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5
Q

Most accurate test to dx DVT

A

Venography

But invasive and not used a lot

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6
Q

Initial test for DVT

A

Doppler analysis and duplex US

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7
Q

Phlegmasia cerulea dolens

A

Extreme cases of DVT

Severe leg edema compromises arterial supply

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8
Q

Signs and symptoms common to all forms of shock

A

Hypotension
Oliguria
Tachy
Altered mental status

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9
Q

Address what for all pts in shock

A

ABC

Airway
Breathing
Circulation

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10
Q

Number one cause of bronchiectasis

A

Cystic fibrosis

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11
Q

Pleural effusion with elevated pleural fluid amylase

A

Esophageal rupture
Pancreatitis
Malignancy

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12
Q

Pleural effusion with elevated blood

A

Malignancy

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13
Q

Causes of liver failure

A

Hepatitis a-e

Drugs - acetaminophen, alcohol, phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine, ecstasy, cocaine, rifampin, INH, HAART

Ischemia

Autoimmune

Wilson’s, hemochromatosis, fatty liver in preg, HELLP sx

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14
Q

Pleural effusion with elevated mostly lymphocytes + adenosine deaminase marker

A

TB

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15
Q

Can you see cardiomegaly on AP CXR?

A

No

Heart is further from film so always looks bigger. Do PA to see

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16
Q

Difference on CXR between alveolar and interstitial pneumonia

A

Alveolar is fluffy and lumped together

Interstitial is linear streaking

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17
Q

What are the mediastinal masses and where are they?

A

Anterior mediastinum

Thyroid cancer
Teratoma
Lymphoma
Thymoma

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18
Q

Eggshell calcification a on CXR

A

Silicosis

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19
Q

Pleural plaques

A

Asbestosis

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20
Q

Pneumoconiosis with increase risk of TB

A

Silicosis

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21
Q

What looks like berylliosis and how do you tell the two apart?

A

Sarcoidosis

Good social history

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22
Q
Causative agent of hypersensitivity pneumonitis in:
Farmers lung
Air conditioners lung
Bagassosis
Mushroom workers lung
A

Sorcerers of thermophillic actinomycetes

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23
Q

CXR with ground glass appearance with bilateral alveolar infiltrates that resemble a bat shape

A

Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

Accumulation of surfactant like protein and phospholipids in alveoli

DO NOT give steroids because patients at risk for infection

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24
Q

What is best imaging to detect radiation pneumonitis and what is treatment

A

CT scan

Corticosteroids

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25
Q

Effects of severe hypoxia

A

Irreversible organ damage (CNS, cardio)

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26
Q

Effects of severe hypercapnia

A

Dyspnea

Vasodilation of cerebral vessels causing increased ICP, papilledema, headache, impaired consciousness, coma

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27
Q

CPP =

A

MAP-ICP

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28
Q

What do you need to determine mechanism of hypoxemia?

A

PaCO2 level
Aa gradient
Response to supplemental O2

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29
Q

Normal aa gradient by hypoxia

A

Hypoventilation

Low inspired PO2

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30
Q

What is ventilation monitored by

A

PaCO2

Vs oxygenation monitored by PaO2

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31
Q

PaCO2 and Aa gradient increased

A

VQ mismatch or shunting

VQ mismatch improves with O2

Shunt (collapsed lung, ARDS) does not improve with more O2

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32
Q

EF in CAD

A

> 50% is normal

Less than 50 has increase in mortality

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33
Q

Stress ECG diagnostic value in CAD

A

75% sensitive if pts can exercise to 85% of max HR for age

220-age = max HR

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34
Q

Is perfusion imaging useful for LBBB?

A

No

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35
Q

What tx increases mortality for CAD?

What is first line for CAD?

A

CCB increases HR so increases mortality

Use nitrates or beta blockers

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36
Q

Diagnostic tool for prinzmetals angina

A

Coronary angiography + ergonovine shows vaso spasm

Ergonovine is alpha Adernergic, dopaminergic, serotonergic, uterine and smooth muscle agonist

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37
Q

Chronology of acute appendicitis pain

A

Periumbilical to right lower quadrant

Visceral then somatic pain

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38
Q

When do you need screening for ovarian cancer. And what kind of screening is done?

A

When increased risk secondary to hereditary factors like BRCA

Don’t do screening for pts of average risk

Screening is ab US or CA125

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39
Q

How do you manage exercise induced asthma?

A

Short acting beta Adernergic agonists 20mins before exercise

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40
Q

Treating trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

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41
Q

Tx for TTP HUS

A

Idiopathic, usually has Ab against ADAMTS13 which cleaves vWF so platelets will aggregate more

Plasmaporesis to get rid of antibody

DO NOT give platelets

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42
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

Decrease systolic by more than 20 when stand

Diastolic decreases by more than 10

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43
Q

Ramsay hunt

A

From of herpes zoster infection

Causes Bell’s palsy

Vesicles seen on outer ear

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44
Q

Pseudo tumor cerebri symptoms, diagnosis, treatment

A

Headache, blurry vision or loss,papilledema, pulsatile tinnitus, abductees nerve palsy, nausea, vomiting

CT scan then LP if doesn’t show a bleed

Acetazolamide to tx

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45
Q

Chest CT showing wedge shaped infarction is most likely what?

A

PE

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46
Q

Parvovirus in adults

A

CNN get anti-b19 antibody

Arthritis affecting MCP, PIP, wrists, ankle joints

Acute onset of symptoms, lack of redness and swelling (vs slow in RA)

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47
Q

What looks like an ST elevation but is not?

A

Left bundle branch block

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48
Q

If a pt has a suspected PE but kidney failure too, what do you use to detect PE?

A

VQ scan, NOT CT

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49
Q

Light’s criteria

A

Lights criteria says a pleural effusion is likely to be exudative if one of the following exists

Pleural fluid protein to serum protein > 0.5
Pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH > 0.6
Pleural fluid LDH > 0.6 or 2/3 times the normal upper limit for serum.

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50
Q

Most common cause of thyroid nodules

A

Benign colloid nodules

Then follicular adenoma

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51
Q

What electrolyte abnormality do you worry about after surgery needing lots of transfusions?

A

Hypocalcemia

Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

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52
Q

What mimics hypocalcemia?

A

Hypo magnesia that is severe becaus less PTH secreted

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53
Q

Diagnosis of diffuse esophageal spasm

A

Esophageal motility studies (manometric readings)

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54
Q

Beta 2 agonists can cause what side effect and why

A

Hypokalemia because drive potassium into cell

Muscle weakness arrhythmias, EKG changes

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55
Q

Porcelain gallbladder

A

Calcium deposits in gallbladder wall with bluish color and brittle consistency

Rim like calcification in area of gallbladder with central bile filled dark area on CT

At increased risk for gallbladder cancer

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56
Q

Most sensitive test to dx disseminated histoplasmosis

A

Antigen detection in serum or urine

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57
Q

First line DMARD for Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Methotrexate

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58
Q

Muddy brown cast

A

Acute tubular necrosis

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59
Q

RBC casts

A

Glomerulonephritis

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60
Q

WBC casts

A

Interstitial nephritis and pyelonephritis

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61
Q

Fatty casts

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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62
Q

Broad and waxy casts

A

Chronic renal failure

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63
Q

Gold standard for osteomyelitis diagnosis

A

Bone biopsy

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64
Q

What did the AFFIRM study show?

A

Management of afib with rhythm control offers no survival strategy over rate control

There are potential advantages such as lower risk of adverse drug effects with rate control strategy.

Better to rate control

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65
Q

Never give to Wolff Parkinson white patient

A

Beta blockers

Calcium channel blockers

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66
Q

Causes of afib

A

PIRATES

Pulm disease (COPD, PE)
Ischemia (ACS)
Rheumatic heart disease (mitral stenosis)
Anemia (high output failure, tachycardia), atrial myxoma
Thyrotoxicosis
Ethanol / endocarditis
Sepsis / sick sinus syndrome

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67
Q

How do you know you are hemodynamiclly unstable (eg for using cardioversion in afib)

A

Hypotension
Angina
Heart failure

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68
Q

What is the RE-LY trial?

A

Dabigatran vs warfarin

Dabigatran superior to warfarin to inhibit ischemic stroke and decreases risk of intracranial bleed.

However, dabigatran has increased risk of GI bleed

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69
Q

Diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrates in CXR

Hypoxemia refractory to oxygen therapy

A

ARDS

PaO2 / FiO2 ratio < 200

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70
Q

Necrotic migratory erythema

High blood glucose

A

Gucagonnoma

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71
Q

Checking if endotracheal tube is in correct place

A

CXR

Tip of ET should be 3-5cm above carina

Bilateral breath sounds

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72
Q

Minute ventilation =

A

RR x Tidal volume

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73
Q

What’s the usual I:E ratio?

A

1:2

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74
Q

Cor pulmonale

A

Usually secondary to pulmonary disease and not LHF
Usually secondary to COPD

Polycythemia may be present if COPD is cause

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75
Q

Prospective investigation of pulmonary embolism diagnosis (PIOPED)

A

Guides tx if V/Q performed

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76
Q

Christopher study

A

Guides tx if spiral CT performed

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77
Q
  1. What is mortality of PE in first 60 mins if diagnosed?
  2. How many die of recurrent PE if left untreated?
  3. Anticoag tx deceased mortality to….
A
  1. 10%
  2. 30%
  3. 2-8%
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78
Q

Gold standard to diagnose PE

A

Pulmonary angiography

Is invasive

VQ scan only finds a ventilation but not perfusion in 50% of cases

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79
Q

Goals for aPTT, PT

A

1.5-2.5times normal aPTT

2-3 PT
2.5-3.5 PT for mech valve

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80
Q

How does Na bicarbonate help in wide QRS (like TCA OD)?

A

Narrows the qrs because it increases extra cellular Na for action potential.

TCAs act on Na channels and inhibit them

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81
Q

SAAG value saying it is peritonitis

A

> 1.1

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82
Q

Guillain barre csf findings

How do you assess lung function in GBS?

A

High protein
Normal cell count
(Albumino-cytologic dissociation)

Vital capacity serial measurements
GBS can lead to respiratory muscle weakness –> respiratory failure

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83
Q

Primary HIV infectious can look a lot like mono. How do you tell the difference?

A

Mono has LESS rash (unless you used an antibiotic) and diarrhea

EBV has more tonsilar exudates

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84
Q

Most common type of diabetic neuropathy

A

Symmetric distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy

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85
Q

Mono neuropathy most often due to

A

Vascular

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86
Q

When do you stop INH?

A

If patient gets symptoms that look like viral hepatitis so damage to liver

Cand get asymptomatic mild increases in AST and ALT. this is okay and continue drug. This is subclinical hepatic injury and self limited

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87
Q

Dyspnea, tachypneic, normal lung evaluation, right axis deviation

A

Pulmonary embolism

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88
Q

A pt has PCP. What do you give them? What is an alternative?

A

TMP SMX + steroids.

Steroids decreases mortality in severe PCP. This is switch PaO2< 70 or Aa > 35

Pentamidine works less well but used for severe cases that intolerant to TMP SMX

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89
Q

Pt has abrupt mental status changes and hallucinations. CSF has mildly deceased glucose and increase in lymphocytes and negative gram stain. What is the gold standard of testing? Start should you do?

A

CSF PCR. This is most likely viral encephalitis by HSV

You should give acyclovir STAT

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90
Q

What is DDx for high serum Ca and normal PTH? How do you tell the difference between DDx?

A

Primary hyperPTH
Hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

24 hr urinalysis calcium excretion and creatinine clearance

FHH has decreased urinary calcium excretion edges life increased serum calcium. Primary hyperPTH has increased 24 hr Ca excretion.

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91
Q

Selenium deficiency

A

Cardiomyopathy

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92
Q

Zinc deficiency

A

Alopeia
Weird taste in mouth
Bulbous pustule lesions surrounding body offices and/or extremities
Impaired wound healing

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93
Q

What do you use CT with contrast for?

A

Structural abnormalities
Mass lesions

Not ok for blood because blood already shows up as white and can’t see it with contrast.

MRI is best for no emergency situations where you want to ID vascular malformations, epilepsy foci, etc

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94
Q

How do you diagnose myasthenia gravis?

A

Eectromyogram
Ach captor antibody test both confirm

Then do CT of chest to look for thymoma

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95
Q

Autosomal dominant
Diffuse telangectasias
Recurrent epistaxis
Widespread AVM

A

Osler weber rendu syndrome (hereditary telangectasias)

Usually in mucous membranes, skin, GI tract

If in lungs, can do right to left shunt and cause chronic hypoxemia and reactive polycythemia.

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96
Q

First step in managing case of pleural effusion. What is the exception?

What do you do if you suspect malignacy but cytology is negative?

A

Thoracentesis

See if exudative or transudative.

EXCEPT in cases of pts with clear cut evidence of CHF where you use diuretics and Echo

If cytology is negative, an then negative - you keep going 3 times until you totally rule out malignancy

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97
Q

Type of anemia associated with tea and toast diet

A

Folate

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99
Q

Leukocytes that h ave undergone partial breakdown during prep of stained smear or tissue section, because of their greater fragility.

A

Smudge cells of CLL

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100
Q

Most sensitive and specific test for colorectal cancer

A

Colonoscopy

Do this after have + FOBT

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101
Q

IS fecal occult blood testing sensitive or specific for CRC?

A

NO

Predictive vlue is only about 20%

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102
Q

Does UC or Crohns have greater risk for CRC?

A

UC

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103
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis

A

AD disease
Colon always involved
90% have duodenum too

100% risk CRC by 30
Prophylactic colectomy

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104
Q

Gardner;s syndrome

A

Polyps + osteomas + detal abnormalities + benign soft tissue tumors

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105
Q

Turcot’s sydnrome

A

AR

polyps + cerebellar medulloblastoma or glioblastoma multiforme

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106
Q

Hamartomas through GI tract, pigmented spots around lips, oral mucosa, face, genitalia, and palmar surfaces, inussusception risk

A

Peutz Jeghers

Hamartomas have low malignant potential

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107
Q

HNPCC

A

Lynch 1 - early onset CRC

Lynch 2 - Lynch 1 + increased number and eary occurence of other cancers (female GU, skin, stomach, pancreas)

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108
Q

Most common presenting sx of CRC

A

Ab pain

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109
Q

Most common cause of large bowel obstruct in adults

A

CRC

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110
Q

Common R sided CRC symptoms

A

Melena

obstruction is more rare b/c larger luminal diameter

Change in bowel habits uncommon

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111
Q

Triad of R sided CRC

A

Anemia
Weakness
RLQ mass

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112
Q

Common L sided CRC symptoms

A

Hematochezia

obstructino more comon b/c smaller luminal diameter

CHANGE in bowel habits - yes! Pencil stools

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113
Q

Most common sx of rectal cancer

A

Hematochezia

Rectal cancer has higher recurrent rate and lower 5 year survival rate than colon cancer

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114
Q

ACTH stimulation test

A

Cosyntropin test = During the test, a small amount of synthetic ACTH is injected, and the amount of cortisol, and sometimes aldosterone, the adrenals produce in response is measured

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115
Q

If pts are hypotensive due to adrenal sufficiency, can:

A

+ hydrocrotisol 100 mL TID
+ normal saline
if the above two don’t work, add fludrocortisone

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116
Q

SIRS criteria

A

SIRS is a serious condition related to systemic inflammation, organ dysfunction, and organ failure. It is a subset of cytokine storm, in which there is abnormal regulation of various cytokines

Temp < 96.8 or > 100.4
HR > 90/min
RR > 20/min or PaCO2 < 32 mmHg
WBC 12x10^9/L (>12,000/mm³), or 10% bands

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117
Q

CHADS2 score

A
C = CHF
H = HTN
A = age >=75
D = Diabetes
S = previous TIA or stroke or thromboembolism
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118
Q

What is heparin induced thrombocytopenia?

A
In HIT, the immune system forms antibodies against heparin when it is bound to a protein called platelet factor 4 (PF4).
These antibodies are usually of the IgG class and their development usually takes about five days
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119
Q

4T score for HIT

A

Thrombocytopenia
+2 if > 50% fall in platelet count

Timing
+2 if fall is betwen 5-10 days after commencement of treatment

Thrombosis
+2 in new thrombosis, skin necrosis, or systemic reaction

alTernative cause possible (liver function, chemo)
+2 if no other cause possible

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120
Q

1 cause of systolic CHF

A

MI

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121
Q

1 cause of diastolic CHF

A

HTN

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122
Q

CHF treatment to decrease mortality

A

Beta blocker (carvedilol, bisproplol, metoprolol)

ACE –| / ARBs
- Candesartan is the only one for diastolic heart failure

Spironolactone (stage 3 or 4 CHF)

Hydralazine + nitrate

  • If african american good for it
  • use this also if can’t use ACE –| or ARBs

AICD (EF < 35%)

Biventricular AICD
Wide QRS and EF < 35% can use this
wide QRS because ventricle desynhrony

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123
Q

CHF treatment for symptoms, not decreasing mortality

A

Digoxin
Diuretics
Millrinone
- For end stage heart failure

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124
Q

What’s a bad prognostic factor in heart failure?

A

Hyponatremia

t give more Na!)

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125
Q

Cardiorenal syndrome

A

1) Can have primary heart failure or renal failure that cause failure of the other organ.
- if this is due to heart failure and decreased perfusion of kidney, look diuretics do not help the worsening kidney fuction

2) Can also have kidney congestion when you have too much volume to kidney and the kidney will get more blood
- this gets better wafter diuretics

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126
Q

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

A
  • ST elevation
    • troponins
  • when look at with cath, there are no coronary blockages
  • This is really due to increase in catecholamines
  • can lead to cardiogenic shock and vfb
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127
Q

LE edema differential

A
  • cirrhosis
  • CHF
  • DVT
  • venous insufficiency (ACE wraps up to thigh, compression stockings)
  • cardiac cirrhosis (bad RHF can cause liver cirrhosis)
  • Nephrotic syndrome
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128
Q

VRE colonization

A

VRE, check for colonization via rectal swab

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129
Q

MRSA colonization

A

MRSA, check for colonization via nares swab

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130
Q

Third spacing

A

Third-spacing refers to a situation in which fluid shifts out of the blood into a body cavity or tissue where it is no longer available as circulating fluid.

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131
Q

Pathogenesis for normal pressure hydrocephalous

A

increase in ICP causing ventricular enlargement

Due to:

  • diminished CSF absorption at arachnoid villi
  • obstructive hydrocephalus
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132
Q

What meds do you hold before cardiac stress testing for:

48 hrs:

48 hrs before vasodilator stress test:

12 hrs before vasodilator stress test:

Continue taking:

A

48 hrs

  • beta blockers
  • CCB
  • nitrates

48 hrs before
- Dipyridamole

12 hrs before:
- Caffeine

Continue:

  • ACE —|
  • ARBs
  • digoxin
  • Statins
  • Diuretics
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133
Q

What can cause a false + on stress test

A

Diuretics

- diuretic-induced hypoK can cause ST segment depression and false +

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134
Q

Photopsia + floaters + curtain coming down over eyes

A

Retinal detachment

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135
Q

Blurred vision + blunt trauma

A

Choroidal rupture

Reveals: central scotoma, retinal edema, hemorrhagic detachment of macula

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136
Q

Infectious mononucleosis

A

EBV

TRIAD: High fever + lymphadenopathy + pharyngitis

Also: fatigue + maculopapular rash + posterior cervical lymphadenopathy + splenomegaly

not as much anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

Leukocytosis + atypical lymphocytes

Heterophile antibodies are negative early in illness

Autimmune hemolytic anemia (IgM cold agglutinin)
Thrombocytopenia

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137
Q

Focal vertebral pain + no neuro sx

A

Compression fracture (vertebral body demineralization)

Happens in osteomalacia, osteoporosis

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138
Q

Back pain with movement + feel best in morning + perispinal pain

A

Ligamentous sprains

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139
Q

Low back pain + worse as day goes on + relieved with rest

A

Lumbar disk degeneration

hallmark of lumbar osteoarthritis

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140
Q

Pain and progressive limitation of back motion + young men + worse pain in AM

A

Apophyseal joint arthritis of ankylosing spondylitis

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141
Q

testicular fibrosis + azospermia + gynecomastia + increased LH and FSH

A

Kleinfelter’s

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142
Q

small testes + normal testosterone + low LH

A

exogenous steroid use

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143
Q

Liver mets characteristics

A

Colon #1 site mets is to liver
Lung and breast also love to go here

RUQ pain
MILDLY elevated liver enzymes
Firm hepatomegaly

Confirm w/ CT

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144
Q

Hypercalcemia secondary to malignancy - how does this happen?

A

Osteolytic mets
PTrH secretion
increased Vit D formation
Increased IL6 levels

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145
Q

Most common COD of pts w/ acromegaly

A

Cardiovascular

Can get Coronary artery disease, cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias, LVH, diastolic dysfunction

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146
Q

Reversible causes of asystole/pulseless electrical activity

A

5H’s and 5 T’s

Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
H+ (acidosis)
Hypo/hyperkalemia
Hypothermia
Tension pneumo
Tamponade (cardiac)
Toxins (narcotics, benzos)
Thrombosis (pulm, coronary)
Trauma
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147
Q

Tx for pulseless electrical activity w/o palpable pulses

A

CPR

Epi

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148
Q

When do you use early defibrilation?

A

V fib

Pulseless V tach

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149
Q

When do you use synchronized electrical conversion?

A

Symptomatic / sustained V tach

hemodynamically unstable afib

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150
Q

Back pain initial diagnostic test

A

Plain film Xray

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151
Q

Acid fast staining organisms

A

Nocardia (partly)

TB

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152
Q

Tx for nocardia

A

TMP-SMX (can be used as prophylaxis too)

Minocycline (2nd line)

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153
Q

Tx for paget’s disease

A

Bisphosphonates

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154
Q

Attributable risk percent

A

(RR - 1) / RR

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155
Q

Inpatient tx of community acquired pneumonia

Outpatient tx of community acquired pneumonia

A

Inpatient: NEW fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin)
Ceftriaxone + azithromycin

Outpatient: azithromycin, doxycycline

Outpt w/ comorbidities - fluoroquinolones

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156
Q

What is absolutely contraindicated to give first to pt w/ pheochromocytoma

A

Beta blocker - will get reflex HTN

Block alpha first, then beta

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157
Q

Best initial eval for gallstones

A

Abdominal ultrasound

ERCP after if US doesn’t reveal anything but there is a high suspicion

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158
Q

Risk factors for gallstones

A
Native american
diabetes
obesity
rapid wt loss
oral contraceptive use

Fat, female, forty, fertile

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159
Q

Best to dx biliary obstruction

A

ERCP

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160
Q

Best to confirm suspected cholecystitis

A

HIDA scan

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161
Q

usual cause of renal artery stenosis in young adults? older?

A

YOUNG: fibromuscular dysplasia

OLD: atherosclerosis

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162
Q

Contraindications of ACE —|

A

Hyperkalemia

bilateral renal A stenosis

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163
Q

Tx of choice for fibromuscular dysplasia

A

Percutaneous angioplasty + stent placement

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164
Q

Classic heart sound in MI

A

S4

Ischemic damage of heart –> diastolic dysfunction –> stiff LV –> atrial gallops (S4)

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165
Q

Behcet syndrome

A

Recurrent oral ulcers + 2 of the following:

  • recurrent genital ulcers
  • eye lesions (anterior uveitis, etc)
  • skin lesions (erythema nodosum, etc)
    • pathergy test
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166
Q
#1 cause of hypercalcemia in ambulatory pts
#1 cause of hyperCa in hospitalized pts
A

Ambulatory: primary hyperPTH

Hospitalized: malignancy

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167
Q

Milk alkali syndrome

A

Risk of this w/ taking in too much Ca or using old absorbable alkali for tx peptic ulcer disease

TRIAD: hyperCa, metabolic alkalosis, renal insufficiency

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168
Q

Pathogenic factors involved in developing hepatic encephalopathy

What is hepatic encephalopathy characterized by?

A
  1. Accumulate NH3 in blood
  2. Produce false neurotransmitters
  3. Zinc deficiency
  4. Increased sensitivity of CNS to inhibitor neurotransmitters (eg GABA)

reversal of sleep cycle
asterixis
progressive coma
characteristic delta waves on EEG

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169
Q

Malignant potential of polyps

A

Size (larger –> malignant)
Histo type (villous –> malignant)
Atypia of cells
Shape (sessile = flat –> malignant)

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170
Q

Complications of

  • diverticulosis
  • diverticulitis
A

Diverticulosis

  • painless rectal bleeding
  • diverticulitis

Diverticulitis

  • bowel obstruction
  • abscess
  • fistula
  • free colonic perforation
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171
Q

Dx

  • Diverticulosis
  • Divertiulitis
A

OSIS - Barium enema

ITIS - CT w/ contrast (NOT scope or enema)

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172
Q

Angiodysplasia of colon

  • What is it?
  • What are its associations?
A

Dilated, ectatic thin-walled vessels
Lined by endothelium
Prone to recurrent and chronic PAINLESS bleeding

Assoc w/ aortic stenosis, ESRD

  • aortic stenosis –> turbulent blood flow through valve –> disrupt vWB multimers –> increased risk of bleeding –> angiodysplasia
  • Uremic platelet dysfunction from ESRD –> increase bleeding risk –> angiodysplasia
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173
Q

Acute mesenteric ischemia types

A

1) Embolic
- usually from heart emboli
- sx SUDDEN + painful

2) Arterial thrombosis
- usually happens w/ CAD
- sx gradual + less severe than embolic

3) Nonocclusive
- due to low CO
- usually in critically ill pts

4) Venous thrombosis
- sx present for many days + gradual worsening

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174
Q

Acute Intestinal infarction signs

A
HypoTN
Tachypnea
Lactic acidosis
Fever
Altered mental status

Can lead to shock

CHECK LACTATE LEVELS IF SUSPECT MESENTERIC ISCHEMIA!!!!

Mesenteric ischemia has > 50% mortality rate!?!?!

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175
Q

Dx acute mesenteric ischemia

A

Mesenteric angiography

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176
Q

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

A

usually due to atherosclerosis

abdominal angina, usually postprandial

Wt loss b/c of fear of eating

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177
Q

Ogilvie’s syndrome

A

signs, sx, radiograph shows large bowel obstruction but there is no mechanical obstruct

Causes: recent surgery, trauma, malignancy, anticholinergics, etc

Decomrpress!

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178
Q

Most frequent cause of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin
Ampicillin
Cephalosporins

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179
Q

Dx pseudomembranous colitis

A

C diff toxins is stool is diagnostic (need 24 hrs)

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180
Q

Dx sigmoid volvulus

A

sigmoidoscopy

sigmoid colon #1 site for volvulus

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181
Q

Dx cecal volvulus

A

Barium enema???

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182
Q

Which volvulus needs surgery?

When do you NOT give barium enema in volvulus

A

–> cecal volvulus

–> don’t give BE if suspect stranulation

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183
Q

Most common causes of cirhosis

A

EtOH liver disease

Chronic viral infection (esp Hep C)

Others:

  • drugs - acetaminophen, methotrexiate
  • PBC
  • autoimmune hepatitis
  • R heart failure congestion, constrictive pericarditis
  • a1-antitrypsin deficiency
  • NASH
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184
Q

What do you useto classify severity of liver disease?

A

Child’s Classification

A is mild, C is severe

Factors

  • Ascites
  • Bilirubin (higher is worse)
  • Encephalopathy
  • Ntritioalstatus
  • Albumin (lowe is worse)
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185
Q

Gold standard to Dx liver cirrohsis

A

Liver biopsy

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186
Q

Classic sgns of chronic liver disease

A
Ascites
Varices
Gynecomastia, testicular atrophy
Pamar erythema, spider angiomas
Hemorrhoids
Caput medusae
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187
Q

Tx for esophageal/gastric varices

A

1) Hemodynamic stabilization
- give fluids to maintain BP

2) Variceal ligation/banding
- endoscopy when stabilized

or

2) Enoscopic sclerothrapy
- inject sclerosingitem into varices
- more risk of rebleed than ligation

3) IV octreotide + prophylactic antibiotics
- cause splanchnic vasocontrit and lower portal P

or

3) IV vasopressin
- not as good as octreotide –> lots of complicatons

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188
Q

Long term tx for esophageal/gastric varices

A

Beta blockers to prevent releed

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189
Q

Ascites from liver cirrhosis - what causes it?

A
  • too much fluid b/c of portal HTN so increased hydrostatic P
  • hypoalbuminemia (reduced oncotic P)

ONLY get ascites w/ portal HTN

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190
Q

Serum ascites albumin gradient (SAAG)

A

> 1.1 = portal HTN ver likely

<1.1 = portal HTN less likely

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191
Q

Tx ascites

A

Bed rest

Low Na diet

Diuretics (furosemide, spironolactone)

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192
Q

Monitoring pts w/ cirrhosis

A
  • LABS: CBC, renal fnt tests, electrolytes, LFTs
  • Endoscopy to see if esophageal varices
  • CT guided biopsy to see if HCC
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193
Q

Tx hepatic encephalopathy

A

1) Lactulose
- Gut bacteria met of lactulose causes acifification of colonic contents, causing NH3 —> NH4 (not absorbable –> ammonia trap)

2) Neomycin
- kills gut bacteria so dec ammonia production

3) Diet limiting protein

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194
Q

Features of hepatic encephalopathy

A
  • dec mental function, confusion, stupor, coma
  • asterixis
  • rigidity, hyperreflexia
  • fetor hepaticus = musty odor of breath
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195
Q

Complications of Liver failure

A

AC, 9H

Ascites*
Coagulopathy

Hypalbuminemia
portal HTN*
Hyper NH3
Hepatic encephalopathy*
Hepatorenal sx
HYPOglycemia (b/c liver stores glycogen)
HYPERbilirubinemia/jaundice
HyperESTROGEN
HCC
  • = most serious complications
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196
Q

Causes of spontaneous bacteral peritonitis.

SIgns?

A

E. coli
Klebsiella
Strep pneumo

SIGNS:

  • fever
  • change in mental stauts
  • ab pain
  • rebound tenderness
  • all happens in pt w/ known ascites
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197
Q

Spider angiomas - what are they?

A

Dilated cutaneous arterioles w/ central red spot

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198
Q

How long abstain from EtOH before get liver transplant (eligibility)?

A

6 months

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199
Q

Wilson’s disease

A

Liver can’t excrete copper b/c deficiency of ceruloplasmin

Ceruloplasmin is Cu-binding and needed for excetion

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200
Q

Do Kayser fleischer rings interfere w/ vision?

A

No

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201
Q

Tx Wilson’s disease

A
  • D- penacillamine
  • Zinc (prevents Cu uptake from diet)
  • Liver transplant
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202
Q

Dx hemochromatosis

A

ALT and AST

Iron studies

Liver biopsy –> needed for Dx

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203
Q

Complicatons of Hemochromatosis

A

1) Cirrhosis
- increase risk of HCC

2) Cardiomyopathy
- CHF, arrhythmias

3) DM
- iron deposits in pancreas

4) Arthritis
- usually in 2nd and 3rd MCP, hips, knees

5) Hypogonadism
6) Hypothyroidism
7) Bronze like skin

“CHAD CHuB”

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204
Q

Complications of hepatocellular adenoma

A

Usually asymptomatic

Rupture –> hemoperitoneum and hemorrhage is major risk

Resect tumors > 5cm that don’t regress after stopping OCP

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205
Q

1 benign liver tumor

A

Cavernous hemangioma

Malignant
- HCC
Cholangiocarcionmas

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206
Q

Dx cavernous hemangioma

A

US
CT w/ contrast

NOT biopsy b/c risk rupture and hemorrhage

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207
Q

Hepatic tumors assoic w/ OCP

A

Hepatocellular adenoma

NOT focal nodular hyperplasia - but this is in women usually

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208
Q

Types of HCC

A

1) Nonfbrolamellar
- more common
- assoc w/ Hepb B and C
- usually not resectable, short time

2) Fibrolamella
- no Hep assoc
- often resectable, longer survival time

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209
Q

HCC risk factors

A
Cirrhosis
Aflatoxin
Vinyl chloride
Thorotrast
AAT deficiency
Hemochromatosis, Wilson's
Schistosomiasis
Hepatic adenoma
Cigs
Glycogen storage disease type 1 (Von Gierke's)
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210
Q

Paraneoplastic sx of HCC

A
Erythrocytosis
Thrombocytosis
HYPER Ca
Carcionid
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteodrystrophy
HYPO glycemia
High cholesterol
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211
Q

HCC tumor marker

A

AFP

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212
Q

Heyde’s syndrome

A

Syndrome of aortic valve stenosis associated with gastrointestinal bleeding from colonic angiodysplasia.

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213
Q

Hemobilia

A

Blood drains into duodenum via common bile duct

Bleed starts anywhere in Hepatobilliary system.

Diagnose with arteriogram

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213
Q

GIST marker

A

c-kit

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214
Q

Causes of hemobilia

Clinical features

A

Trauma, tumors, infection
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
Surgery like cholecystectomy

GI bleed so melons or hematemesis, jaundice, RUQ pain

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215
Q

Budd chiari

A

Block hepatic vein outflow getting hepatic congestion and micro vascular ischemia

Hepatomegaly, RUQ pain, jaundice

Dx via hepatic venography, SAAG

Tx usually needs surgery because thrombocytes may not work. Liver transplant if cirrhosis

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216
Q

3 major causes of jaundice

A

Hemolysis
Liver disease
Biliary obstruction

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217
Q

Bilirubin metabolism

A

Hbg to bilirubin in spleen

Unconjugated bilirubin in plasma bound to albumin and not water soluble so NOT excreted in urine

Conjugated in liver

Excreted into intestine and made into urobilinogen and urobili by gut bacteria

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218
Q

Dark urine and pale stools means what?

A

Conjugated bilirubinemia

Conjugated is soluble so it is the only one to get into the urine.

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219
Q

Where are ALTs and ASTs

A

ALT - liver

ALT is more specific for liver damage

AST - in many tissues like brain, kidney, heart, skeletal muscle

Alcoholic hepatitis usually has higher increase in AST (a scotch and tonic)

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220
Q

If AST and alt are mildly elevated….

Moderate….

Severe…

A

Mild = Think chronic viral hepatitis or acute alcoholic hepatitis

Moderate = acute viral hepatitis

Severe = extensive hepatic necrosis due to ischemia, shock, Tylenol, severe viral hepatitis

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221
Q

LFT pearls

A

Increase in ALP and GGT, small ALT and AST increase = cholestatitic disease

Normal or increase in ALP, very big increase in ALT and AST = hepatocellular necrosis or inflammation

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222
Q

ABCDEFGHI of AST or ALT increase

A
Autoimmune hepatitis
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Drugs or toxins
Ethanol
Fatty liver
Growths (tumors)
Hemodynamic disorders (CHF)
Iron (hemochromatosis), copper (Wilson's), or aat deficiency
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223
Q

Cholesterol stone associations

A

Obesity, diabetes, hyperlipemia

Multiple preggers, OCP

Crohns, illegal resection

Old age

Native American

Cirrhosis

Cystic fibrosis

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224
Q

Pigment stone associations

A

Black
- hemolysis, alcoholic cirrhosis

Brown
- biliary tract infection

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225
Q

Boas sig

A

Cholelithiasis

Referred right Subcapsular pain of biliary colic

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226
Q

Pain from

Acute cholecystitis

Biliary colic

Is secondary to what?

A

Acute cholecystitis

  • gallbladder wall inflammation
  • several days

Biliary colic

  • contraction of gallbladder against obstructed duct
  • only a few hrs
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227
Q

High sensitivity and specificity test for cholelithiasis

A

RUQ ultrasound

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228
Q

Best for dx acute cholecystitis. What do you see?

A

RUq ultrasound

Thickened gallbladder wall
Pericholecystic fluid
Distended gallbladder
Presence of stones

CT good for ID complications of acute cholecystitis

HIDA if US inconclusive. Sensitivity and specificity are about the same.

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229
Q

Choledocholithiasis

A

Stones an originate in common bile duct and in gallbladder. Most come from gallbladder

Use ERCP (vs US for cholelithiasis) to dx

Can be asymptomatic for years but if there are symptoms, it is much more threatening than when you get symptoms from cholelithiasis.

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230
Q

Charcots triad

Reynolds Pentad

A

Sign of cholangitis

RUQ pain
Jaundice
Fever

Only in 50-70% cases

Charcots triad + septic shock + altered mental status

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231
Q

To do for pts with cholangitis

A

Blood culture
IV fluids
IV antibiotics after blood cultures obtained
Decompress CBD when patient stable

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233
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Features
Clinical presentation
Dx
Tx

A

Intrahepatic duct destruction leading to portal inflammation and cirrhosis
Vanishing ducts!

Antimitochondrial antibodies

Usually in middle aged women

Can get xanthomas or xanthelasmata, osteoporosis , hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, statorrhea, portal HTN, osteopenia

Test for AMAs, liver biopsy to confirm disease

Tx with liver transplant. Ursdeoxycholic acid can slow progression of disease

Cholestyramine for pruitus relief

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233
Q

Where are most of cholangiocarcinoma tumors?

A

Proximal third of CBD

Bad prognosis.

Associated with clonorchis sinensis infection in Asia, choledochol cysts

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234
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Features
Clinical presentation
Dx
Tx

A

Intrahepatic duct destruction leading to portal inflammation and cirrhosis
Vanishing ducts!

Antimitochondrial antibodies
Increased IgM
Increased ALP, cholesterol

Usually in middle aged women

Can get xanthomas or xanthelasmata, osteoporosis , hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, statorrhea, portal HTN, osteopenia

Test for AMAs, liver biopsy to confirm disease

Tx with liver transplant. Ursdeoxycholic acid can slow progression of disease

Cholestyramine for pruitus relief

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236
Q

Carcinoid tumors originate from

A

Neuroendocrine cells usually in appendix

Secrete serotonin

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237
Q

Drugs to increase RBC count. How do you tell which one a person took?

A

Steroids
– will have gynecomastia, HTN

EPO
–will NOT have gynecomastria, but will have HTN

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238
Q

What alcohol poisonings can you do hemodialysis for?

A

Methanol

Ethylene glycol

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239
Q

[Na] in normal saline

A

154

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240
Q

Tx nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

amiloride
HCTZ

Amiloride causes excretion of lithium if that is the cause

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241
Q

Amount of fluid restriction to correct hypoNa

A

800-1000cc

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242
Q

Coccidiodomycosis clinical features

A

SW US
Central and S America

Fever
Fatigue
Dry cough 
Weight loss
Pleuritic chest pain
Erythema multiforme
Erythema nodosum
arthralgias
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243
Q

Histoplasmosis clinical features

A

SE, mid atlantic, and central US

Acute pneumonia

  • cough
  • fever
  • malaise
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244
Q

Blastomycosis clinical features

A

South-centrl and north-central US

Lungs
Skin
Bones
Joints
Prostate
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245
Q

What is the Well’s score most useful for?

A

people with low probabiliyt of PE

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246
Q

Hemochromatosis iron panel

A

Increased

  • Fe
  • Ferritin
  • Transferrin saturation

Decreased TIBC

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247
Q

Cephalization on CXR

A

= redistribution of blood into the upper lobe vessels.

If hydrostatic P > 10 mHg, fluid begins to leak into interstitum of lung –> excess fluid compresses the lower lobe vessels, perhaps as a result of gravity.

As a result, upper lobe vessels are recruited to distribute a greater volume of blood. In order to carry a greater volume of blood, the upper lobe vessels increase in size

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248
Q

Cause of pancreatiis

A
EtOH
Gallstones
post-ERCP
Viral(mumps, coxsackie)
Drugs (Sulfas, thiazides, furosemide, estrogens, HAART)
Pancreas divism
HYPER TGs
Uremia
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249
Q

Ranson’s Criteria

A

To assess prognosis of acute pancreatitis

Admission Criteria (GA LAW)
Glucose > 200 mg/dL
Age > 55yo
LDH > 350
AST > 250
WBC >16,000
Initial 48 hrs (C HOBBS)
Ca < 8 mg/dL
Hct decrease > 10%
PaO2 < 60 mm Hg
BUN increas > 8 mg/dL
Base deficit > 4mg/dL
Sequestration of fluid > 6L

5-6 criteria has 40% mortality

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250
Q

How does hypo Ca of pancreatitis happen?

A

Fat saponification

Fat necrosis binds calcium

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251
Q

How do you dx acute pancreatitis

A

clniical presentation

lab studies are supportive
- Serum amylase and lipase are most sensitive and specific tests for dx acute pancreatitis

CT is confirmatory (most accurate)

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252
Q

Acute pancreatitis ab radiograph findings

A

Sentiel loop - air filled bowel in LUQ - sign of localized ileus

Colon cut off sign - air filled segent of tarnsverse colon cutoff at region of pancreatic inflammation

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253
Q

Pancreatic pseudocyst

A

encapsulated fluid collection appearing 2-3 weeks after acute attack

Has no epithelial lining

Can rupture, get infection, hemorrhage

Dx w/ CT and drain if > 5cm

Can be present at sites distant from pancreas

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254
Q

Tx for acute pancreatitis

A

Most only need supportive pain control, bowel rest, IV fluids, electrolyte corrections

Most don’t need more therapy

ERCP if it is severe biliary pancreatitis – can remove stone. NOT for EtOH pancreatitis

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255
Q

Pain control in acute pancreatitis

A

Fentanyl and meperidine

Not morphine b/c itcauses increase in sphincter of Oddi pressure

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256
Q

When give antibiotics for acute pancreatitis

A

If > 30% of pancreas is necrosed

imipenem

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257
Q

1 cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

Chronic alcoholism

Methanol can also cause!

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258
Q

Classic signs of chronic pancreatitis

A

steatorrhea
diabetes
pancreatic calcification on CT scan is diagnostic

usually have constant pain radiating to back

ERCP is gold standard to dx

NO elevation of amylase or lipase

NOT pancreatic cancer if this has been ongoing for > 1 year

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259
Q

What vitamin deficency can you get with chronic pancreatitis?

A

Vit B12

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260
Q

Classic chronic pancreatitis picture on ERCP

A

Chain of lakes

areas of strictre and duct dilatation throughout pancreatic duct

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261
Q

Tx chronic pancratitis

A

INsulin

Pancreatic enzymes ( —| CCK release to decrease secretions from bad pancreas)

H2 blockers (prevents gastric acid made so it doesn’t degrade pancreatic enzyme supplements)

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262
Q

Pancreatic cancer - risk factors

A

1 - SMOKING

Male sex
Black race
Obesity
FH of pancreatic cancer
chronic pancreatitis
CHRONIC diabetes
benzidine, b-naphthylamine

NOT ALCOHOL

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263
Q

Painles or painful jaundice in pancreatic cancer?

A

PAINFUL jaundice

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264
Q

Courvoisier’s sign

A

palpable gallbladder

indicates cancer of head of pancreas

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265
Q

Dx pancreatic cancer

A

CT preferred for diagnosis and assessment of spread

ERCP most sensitive but invasive

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266
Q

Pancreatic cancer tumor marker

A

CA 199

CEA (less sensitive and specific)

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267
Q

Aortoenteric fistula

A

Hx of aortic graft surgery who has small bleed of the duodenum

Quickly turns massive and fatal hemorrhage

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268
Q

Dieulafoy’s vascular malformation

A

Submucosal dilated arterial lesions causing massive GI bleed

Upper GI bleed

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269
Q

Melena

A

black, tarry liquid foul-smelling stool

due to degradation of Hb by bacteria in colon - further bleed is from rectum, more likely melena happens - usually upper GI bleed

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270
Q

Hematochezia

A

Usually a lower GI bleed

Can be upper GI if it is massive and bleeding is so fast it does not stay in GI tract for long

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271
Q

BUN/Cr in GI bleed

A

BUN/Cr usually increased w/ upper GI bleed, esp if pt has no renal insufficiency

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272
Q

When do you use arteriogrpahy for GI bleed?

A

For pts w/ lower GI bleeding

Perform during active bleeding

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273
Q

GI bleed indicatons for surger

A
  • hemodynamicallnstable pts not responding to IV fluid, transfusion, endoscopy intervenions, coagulopathy correctins
  • severe inital bleed or recurrence of bleed after endoscope
  • continued bleed > 24 hrs
  • visible vessel at base of ulcer
  • ongoing transfusion requirement
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274
Q

Staging esophageal cancer

A

1 - invades lamina propria or submucosa. nodes -

2a - invades muscularis propria or adventitia; nodes -

—> surgery up to here

–> palliative below

2b - invades up to muscularis propria; nodes +

3 - invades adventita or tumor invades adjacent structions

4- distant mets

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275
Q

Achalasia causes

A
US:
#1 - idiopathic
#2 - adenocarcinoma of proximal stomach
World:
#1 - Chagas
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276
Q

Esophageal squamous cll cancer causes

A
EtOH
Tobacco
Nitrosamines, hot food ingestions
HPV
Achalasia
Plummer Vinson sx
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277
Q

Types of esophageal hiatal hernias

A

Type 1 - Sliding

Type 2 - Paraesophageal

Type 3 - Sliding + Paraesophageal; tx like it is paraesophageal (surgical)

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278
Q

Where is Mallory weiss tear?

A

at Gastroesophageal junction

tear is only mucosal

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279
Q

Plummer vinson syndrome

A

Upper esophageal web –> dysphagia
Iron deficiency anemia
Koilonychia (spoon nails)
Atrophic oral mucosa

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280
Q

Schatzki’s ring usualy accompaniedby

A

sliding hiatal hernia

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281
Q

Platypnea

A

Dyspnea relived by laying down, exacerbated by sitting up

Platypnea is due to either hepatopulmonary syndrome or an anatomical cardiovascular defect increasing positional right-to-left shunting (bloodflow from the right to the left part of the circulatory system).

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282
Q

Sitophobia

A

food fear

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283
Q

Screening for lung cancer

A

National Lung Screening Trial

  • > 30 pack year smoking history
  • low dose chest CT yearly for those who are still smoking or smoked in the past 15 years
  • shows to have decreased motality but no long term data
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284
Q

Transudative pleural effusion causes

A

Due to increased hydrostatic or decreased oncotic P

CHF
Cirrhosis
PE
Nephrotic syndrome
Peritoneal dialysis
Hypoalbuminemia
Atelectasis
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285
Q

Exudative pleural effusion causes

A

Caused by increased capillary permeability

Bacterial pneumonia, TB
Malignancy, mets
Sarcoidosis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Viral infection
PE
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286
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome of Small cell lung cancer

A

SIADH
ACTH
Lambert Eaton
Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy - It is characterized by new bone formation on the outside of the diaphyses of long bones of the limbs, without destruction of cortical bone

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287
Q

Chylothorax pleural effusion - what is in the fluid?

Common causes of it

A

Triglycerides >110mg/dL

Cancer
Trauma

TB
Chronic mediastinal infections
Sarcoidosis
Lypmhangioleiomyomatosis
Radiation fibrosis
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288
Q

Absolute neutrophil count

A

(% neutrophils + % bands) * WBC / 100

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289
Q

Chemtherapy transfusion reaction - what do you do?

A

Shortness of breath, rash are red flags

Give

  • all things to inhibit all histamines (benadryl, pepcid)
  • epinephrine
  • steroids

Evaluate

Call oncologist

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290
Q

Traction diverticula

A

true

At midpoit of esophagus near tracheal bifurcation

Due to traction from contiguous mediastina inflamation and adenopathy (pulmonary TB)
–> TB causes hilar node scarring causing retraction of esophaus

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291
Q

Epiphreic diverticula

A
  • lower 1/3 of esophagus

- usually assoc w/ spastic esophageal dysmotility or achalasia

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292
Q

Associated blood type of duodenal ulcer? Gastric ulcer?

A

Duodenal - O

Gastric - A

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293
Q

Risk factors of duodenal ulcer? Gastric ulcer?

A

Duodenal - NSAIDs

Gastric - Smoking

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294
Q

1 nephrotic syndrome associated w/ Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Minimal change disease

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295
Q

1 nephropathy associated w/ carcionma

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

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296
Q

Conn’s syndrome lab values

A

HTN
Mild hyper Na
HYPO K
Metabolic alkalosis (decreased bicarb)

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297
Q

Reason for oxalate stones in Crohn’s, small bowel resection

A

Happens in IBD, small bowel resection, other malabsorption syndromes

Increased intestinal fat binds dietary calcium –> can’t bind oxalate in gut –> oxalate gets reabsorbed adn precipitates in kidney

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298
Q

Define the following therapies:

  • Salvage
  • Adjuvant
  • Consolidation
  • Induction
  • Maintenance
  • Neoadjuvant
A

Salvage = form of tx for disease when standard tx fails

Adjuvant = therapy given in addition to standard tx

Consolidation = given after induction therapy to really wipe out tumor cells

Induction = initial tx to kill tumor cells to send pt into remission

Maintenance = given after induction and consolidation to ensure remission

Neoadjuvant = tx given before standard tx

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299
Q

Reddish nodule –> ulcerates –> spreads forming subQ nodules and ulcers

No adenopathy or systemic signs

What is the offending agent?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

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299
Q

Reddish nodule –> ulcerates –> spreads forming subQ nodules and ulcers

No adenopathy or systemic signs

What is the offending agent?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

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300
Q

Elderly + dementia + severe depression + very concerned about memory loss

Tx?

A

Pseudodementia

SSRIs

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301
Q

HTN Hx + unilateral weakness + no changes on CT

A

Lacunar infarct

microatheroma and lipohyalinosis

Most commonly in internal capsule

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302
Q

HTN Hx + unilateral weakness + no changes on CT

A

Lacunar infarct

microatheroma and lipohyalinosis

Most commonly in internal capsule

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304
Q

Severe symptomatic hyper Ca

  • What happens?
  • How do you tx?
A

Hypercalcemia –> induces salt wasting –> significant volume depletion

Volume depletion causes more reabsoption of solutes, hence more reabsorb of Ca

Tx w/ normal saline (200 mL/hr) + calcitonin + bisphosphanates to reduce serum Ca levels and restore back volume

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305
Q

Sudden loss of vision
Onset of floaters
Fundus is difficult to visualize

A

1 cause of vitreous hemorrhage is diabetic retinopathy

Vitreous hemorrhage

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306
Q

Sudden painless, unilateral loss of vision
HTN hx perhaps
Disk swelling, venous dilation, cotton wool spots, retinal hemorrhages

A

Central retinal vein occlusion

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307
Q

Pellagra

  • what is it
  • causes of it
  • symptoms
A

It is niacin deficiency

Corn based diet
Alcoholics
Carcinoid sx patients
Hartnup’s disease

Diarrhea + Dermatitis + Dementia
- skin rash in sun exposed areas (can look malar rash!)

REMEMBER PELLAGRA when you see malar rash + diarrhea. SLE doesn’t have diarrhea

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308
Q

Fever in neutropenic patient

A

> 100.9 F

> 100.4 F for more than 1 hr

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309
Q

Febrile neutropenia

A

Happens when neutrophil count is low

Neutropenia = absolute neutrophil count < 1500/microL

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310
Q

What should tx of febrile neutropenia cover?

Monotherapy?

Combo therapy

A

Pseudomonas

Monotherapy: ceftazadine, imipenem, cefepime, meropenem

Combo: aminoglycoside + anti-pseudomonal beta lactam

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311
Q

1, #2 muscles involved for myasthenia gravis

A

1 - extraocular muscles

2 - muscles of jaw (bulbar muscles)

CPK usually normal in myasthenia gravis

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312
Q

Myasthenia gravis vs. primary muscle problem - what lab value is helpful to distinguish?

A

CPK normal in MG

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313
Q

Myasthenia gravis vs. ALS

A

normal reflexes in MG

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314
Q

Toxoplasmosis

  • Tx
  • Prophylaxis
A

Tx = Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

Prophylaxis = TMP-SMX

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315
Q

Rapid plasma reagin test

A

Screens for syphillis

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316
Q

anti-thyroperoxidase antibodies + enlarged rubbery goiter

  • What am I at risk for?
A

Hashimoto’s

Lymphoma of thyroid (60x)

Dx via core biopsy as FNA may miss diagnosis

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317
Q

Normocytic anemia +
Hyper Ca +
Renal failure +
Elevated total serum protein w/ normal albumin

A

Multiple Myeloma

Mnemonic: CRAB

  • Calcium
  • Renal impairment
  • Anemia
  • Bones (pain, lytic lesions)

HyperCa because of bone lysis from plasmocyte-released humoral factors and expanding plasma cell mass

Hyper Ca can present as CONSTPATION!

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318
Q

Can you see MM lesions on bone scan?

A

No

There is no associated new bone formation

Use skeletal survey (xray)

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319
Q

Thrombocytopenia +
Hemolytic anemia (increase in indirect Bili, decrease Hg, increase retic count) +
Altered mental status +
Renal failure

A

TTP-HUS

Peripheral blood smear to tell if there are schistocytes

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320
Q

Colloid solutions used to..

A

in burns or conditions w/ hypoproteinemia

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321
Q

Classic signs of dehydration

A

Dry mucosa
Marginally high Hct, electrolytes
BUN/Cr > 20

Tx w/ intravenous crystalline solution (normal saline)

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322
Q

How does respiratory alkalosis happen in preggers?

A

Progesterone stimulates medulla respiratory centers

This leads to tachypnea –> resp alkalosis

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323
Q

Digital Rectal Exam signs for

  • BPH
  • Prostate cancer
A

BPH - smooth, firm enlargement of prostate

PC - palpable nodule at periph of prostate

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324
Q

If get ROS and PE suggestive symptoms of BPH, what is the first thing to do?

A

Ab ultrasound to look for hydronephrosis

- put in catheter if needed

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325
Q

What test do you use to evaluate spinal stenosis?

A

MRI

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326
Q

Alterations in consciousness + disorganized speech + visual hallucinations + Extrapyramidal symptoms

A

Lewy Body Dementia

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327
Q

Pickwickian syndrome (obesity hypoventillation syndrome)

A

Obesity impedes expansion of chest and ab wall during breathing

Underventillation of lungs and chronically elevated PaCO2, decreased PaO2

Abnormal ABG

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328
Q

Causes of blood diarrhea - bacterial

A

CSS YE

Campylobacter
Shigella
Salmonella
Yersinia
E. coli
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329
Q

HIV pt + bloody diarrhea + normal stool exam

A

Highly suspicious for CMV

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330
Q

Electrolyte risk with immobilization (eg paralysis)

A

Hypercalcemia

  • possibly due to increased osteoclastic bone resorption
  • tx w/ hydration + bisphosphonates
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331
Q

Rhabdomyolysis electolyte imbalance

A

HYPO Ca

Ca preceipitates w/ PO4 b/c it is released from damaged muscles

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332
Q

Prinzmetal’s angina

  • Risk factors
  • Tx
A

Smoking is risk factor

Tx

  • CCB
  • nitrates
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333
Q

Prior sensitization is needed for phototoxic or photoallergic drug?

A

Photoallergic

Phototoxic does not need prior sensitization for drug eruption - an example is tetracyclines

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334
Q

Prior sensitization is needed for phototoxic or photoallergic drug?

A

Photoallergic

Phototoxic does not need prior sensitization for drug eruption - an example is tetracyclines

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335
Q

Strk + no hemorrhage on CT w/o contrast + within 4.5 hrs after onset, what is best med to give to improve neuro outcomes?

A

tPA

NOT STREPTOKINASE

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336
Q

Endotracheal intubation common common complication

A

Right mainstem bronchus intubation causng asymmetric chest expansion during inspiration and markedly decreased or absent reath sounds on the L side

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337
Q

Endotracheal intubation common common complication

A

Right mainstem bronchus intubation causng asymmetric chest expansion during inspiration and markedly decreased or absent reath sounds on the L side

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338
Q

Manifestatons of Sarcoidosis

A

Pulm - Bilateral hilar adenopathy

Eye - uveitis

Heme - Lymphadenopathy, Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly

MS - polyarthriis

CNS/Endo - Central DI, Hypercalcemia (makes a1-hydroxylase), increased ACE

Lofgren’s syndrome - erythema nodosum + hilar adenopathy + migratory olyarthralgias + fever

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339
Q

Lofgren’s sydnrome

A

erythema nodosum + hilar adenopathy + migratory olyarthralgias + fever

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340
Q

Lofgren’s sydnrome

A

erythema nodosum + hilar adenopathy + migratory olyarthralgias + fever

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341
Q

NF-2 genetics

A

Autosomal dominant
Severe disease casued by frameshift or NONSENSE mutations

Less severe are missense

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342
Q

Bradycardia +
AV block +
HypoTN +
Diffuse wheezing

A

Beta blocker toxicity

Tx w/ glucagon

Wheezing indicative of bb toxicity
Can also get cold and clammy due to cardiogenic shock from bradycardia and hypoTN

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343
Q

Most common origin of ectopic foci for afib

A

Pulmonary vein

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344
Q

1 cause of atrial flutter

A

reentrant circuit rotating around tricuspid annulus

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345
Q

Analgesic abuse nephropathy

A

Tubulointerstitial disease

Characterized by focal glomerulosclerosis

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346
Q

Hyperglycemic nonketotic state is not symptomatic until what glucose level

A

600 mg/dL of glucose in blood

get altered mental state

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347
Q

Cardiac cath complications

A

Arthroembolism (cholesterol) –> dislodges anywhere

Common sequelae of embolism:

  • Blue toes
  • Increase Cr
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348
Q

Optic neuritis sx

A
  • Pain with eye mvmt
  • Change in color perception
  • Afferent pupilary defect and field loss
  • papilledema
  • more in fems, multiple sclerosis
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349
Q

Tx Bacillary angiomatosis

A

Oral Erythromycin

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350
Q

How long does heart transplant last?

A

~10 years

Nerves severed so be careful of atypical MI
- palps, diaphoresis, but no chest pain

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351
Q

When do you admit a pyelonephrtis patient?

A

Usually if they can’t meds PO b/c vomitting too much

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352
Q

Emphesematous cholecystitis

  • what is it?
  • how does it happen?
  • clinical manifestaitons
A

Acute choecystitis arising b/c of infection w/ gas forming bacteria (Clostridium, Escherichia, Staph, Strep, Pseudomonas, Klebs)

  • Due to vascular compromise (stenosing of cystic A), immunosuppression (DM2), gallstones
  • Crepitus in ab wall adjacent to gallbladder is occasionally detectable - NO peritoneal signs though

Dx w/ ab radiograph

only a small increase in bilirubin or AST/ALTs

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353
Q

underlying path of lateral epicondylitis

A

Degeneration of extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon near the lateral epicondyle

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354
Q

What restrictive lung disease doesn’t respond to steoids?

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary FIbrosis

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355
Q

1 finding in interstitial lung disease on PFTs

A

Decreased diffusion capacity to CO

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356
Q

What kind of age distribution for diagnosis does Crohns have?

A

Bimodal

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357
Q

How much blood do you ave to lose to become tachycardic? Orthostatic?

A

Tachy - 15%

Ortho -30%

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358
Q

1 cause of septic arthritis

A

Staph aureus

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359
Q

Beck’s triad

A

Cardiac tampanode

  • hypotension
  • distended neck veins
  • muffled heart sounds
  • pulsus paradoxus
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360
Q

Young black male + painless hematuria. What do you expect? How does it happen?

A

Sickle cell trait

Episodes of painless hematuria are classic

Papillary ischemia is possible cause

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361
Q

Tx of stroke in sickle cell patient

A

Exchange transfusion
- decreases % of sickle cells in blood and another stroke of happening

Continue hydroxyurea

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362
Q

EKG finding of supraventricular tachycardia

A

Narrow QRS complex

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363
Q

Renal artery stenosis occurs most commonly w/ which nephrotic syndrome?

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

Sudden onset

  • ab pain
  • fever
  • hematuria
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364
Q

Most specific arrhythmia for digoxin toxicity

A

Atrial tachycardia w/ AV block

Digoxin increases vagal tone thus decreasing conduction through AV node
Digoxin also increases ectopy in the atria and venticles

Rare for atachy + AV block together so pretty specific for dig toxicity

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365
Q

Secondary AA amyloidosis

A

Results from deposition of acute phase reactants (serum amyloid A) in setting of chronic inflammatory disease (psoriasis IBD, rheumatoid arthritis)

Nephrotic syndrome common, hepatomegaly

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366
Q

Elevated BUN + no increase in Cr

OR

Increased BUN/Cr

A

Pts receiving steroid treatments

Prerenal renal fail

GI bleed

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367
Q

Most common feature of hemophillia

A

Hemarthroses

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368
Q

Acute monocytic leukemia features

A

Bleeding gums
Leukocytosis + lots of blast forms
Staining - + alpha-naphthyl esterase
peroxidase (-) b/c lack auer rods

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369
Q

How do you tell the difference between peripheral vascular disease (arterial stenosis) and venous insufficiency?

A

Artery - shiny, hairless skin

Vein - skin discoloration (purple/pink), hair is ok, edema

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370
Q

Normal skin at birth –> dry skin w/ horny plates over extensor surfaces of limbs

A

Ichthyosis vulgaris

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371
Q
Blood transfusions received before 
1992
1986
1980s 
Should be screened for...?
A

1992 - Hep C
1986 - Hep B
1980s - HIV

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372
Q

Essential tremor

A

Stable at rest

Usually noticeable when pt attempts to do something requiring fine movement

Tx w/ beta blocker - propanolol
anticonvulsants - primidone
topiramate
benzos - clonazepam

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373
Q

Parkinson’s tremor

A

Worse at rest (4-6 Hz)

Better when try to do something

Asymmetric, assoc w/ rigidity

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374
Q

Dx acute MI

Dx reoccurence of MI

A

Acute - Troponin T (takes longer to return to normal)

Reoccurence - CK-MB

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375
Q

What do you give for all that have high risk of developing aplastic crisis

A

Folic acid

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376
Q

If someone says they got something in their eye

A

High velocity…

  • don’t see anything with penlight
  • use fluorescein exam (slit lamp, etc)
  • never use MRI because it will risk dislodging the item
  • use CT or Ultrasound
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377
Q

Dyspnea + fever + cough (nonproductive)
Tachypnea + cyanosis + minimal chest findings
Bilateral diffuse interstitial infiltrates beginning in perihilar region

A

P. jirovecei

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378
Q

Most common places for perihilar involvement of P. jiroveci

A

lymph nodes
spleen
liver
bone marrow

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379
Q

HIV pt with CD4 count < 50 / mm3 should receive what prophylaxis against what?

A

Mycobacterium avium complex
–>Azithromycin

CMV (but also if serum CMV IgG is +)
–> Ganciclovir

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380
Q

Metabolic syndrome diagnosis

A

3/5 present:

  1. Ab obesity (> 40 inc men, > 35 inc women)
  2. Fasting glucose > 100 -110 mg.dL
  3. BP > 130/80 mm Hg
  4. Triglycerides > 150 mg/dL
  5. HDL (Men < 40 mg/dL; women < 50 mg/dL)
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381
Q

Bloody diarrhea bacterial causes

A
Campylobacter
Shigella
Salmonella
Yersinia
E coli

E coli doesn’t have a fever sometimes (vs the other) and has more ab pain than the others - that’s how you tell the difference

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382
Q

Pts w/ cirrhosis - what do you do for them first?

A

Endoscopy ASAP - esophageal varicies are a big bleed risk. Use beta blockers to prophylactically decrease risk of bleeding.

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383
Q

SLE + anti-ds DNA antibodies

First step in tx?

A

Kidney biopsy

  • informs different nephritis treatments
  • is baseline to compare other biopsies to monitor disease progression
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384
Q

Equation for anion gap

A

AG = Na - (HCO3 + Cl)

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385
Q

What is cor pulmonale most commonly caused by?

A

COPD

Less frequent:

  • Pneumoconiosis
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Kyphosis
  • Primary pulmonary HTN
  • repeated episodes of PE
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386
Q

Cause of S3

Reasons for S3

Tx for symptoms for abnormal S3
Tx for long term for abnormal S3

A

Inflow from L atrium strikes blood already in LV causing an extra sound

Normal in younger athletes and preggers

Abnormal - usuall sign of left ventricular failure

Tx symptoms - diuretics
Tx long term - beta blockers

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387
Q

Atypical lymphocytes Ddx

A

VACTER RM

Viral hepatitis
Acute HIV infection
CMV
Toxoplasmosis
EBV (mono)
Rubella

Roseola
Mumps

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388
Q

What diabetes medication do you hold on hospital admission? Why?

A

Metformin

Metformin gets processed by liver and excreted by kidney. If kidney excretion is bad, will build up metformin and get lactic acidosis.

If pt needs CT w/ contrast, can possibly get renal damage and will decrease ability to excrete metformin.

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389
Q

When do you stop colonoscopy screenings?

A

85 yo

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390
Q

Best test to evaluate pt w/ epigastric pain

A
Upper GI endoscopy
Can diagnose:
- PUD
- gastritis
- esophagits
- rule out cancers of esophagus and stomach
- H. pylori infection w/ biopsy
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391
Q

Mets of gastric carcinoma

A

Krukenberg - mets to ovary

Blumer’s shelf - mets to rectum (can feel on rectal)

Sister mary joseph’s node - mets to periumbilical lymph node

Virchow’s node - mets to supraclavircular ofssa nodes

Irish’s node - mets to left axillary adenopathy

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392
Q

Risk factors for gastric carcionma

A
atrophic gastritis
gastric polyps
H. pylori
Pernicious anemia
Nitrates diet
Blood type A
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393
Q

Most common malignancy in asbestosis patients

A

Bronchogenic carcionma

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394
Q

Causes of renal transplant dysfunction in early post-op period

Tx?

A
Ureteral obstruct
acute rejection
cyclosporine toxicity
vascular obstruct
ATN

IV steroids best tx

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395
Q

Effects of an AV fistula

A

Decreases systemic vascular R

Increases cardiac preload

INcrease cardiac output

Widens pulse pressure
Strong arterial pulsation (brisk carotid upstroke)
Systolic flow murmur
Tachy
Flushed extremities

LV hypertrophy
PMI displaced to left

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396
Q

How can you have heart failure in AV fistula pts?

A

Heart still pumps lots of CO but circulation is unable to meet O2 demand of peripheral tissues

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397
Q

High output cardiac failure causes

A
Thyrotoxicosis
AV fistula
Paget disease
Anemia
Thiamine deficiency
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398
Q

Congenital AV fistula causes

A

PDA
Angiomas
Pulmonary AVF
CNS AVF

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399
Q

Acquired AV fistula causes

A

Trauma
Femoral cath
Aortocaval fistula (eg atherosclerosis)
Cancer

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400
Q

Tx Meniere’s disease

A

Decreasing triggers that increase endolymphatic retention

Avoid:

  • EtOH
  • Caffeine
  • Nicotine
  • Foods high in salt
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401
Q

Do you need to bridge heparin and warfarin in pts w/ afib? DVT?

A

A fib - NO!

  • Your protein C and S levels are normal so if start warfarin without bridging, will have a slight depletion of C and S but not enough to cause necrosis
  • heparin use if want to cardiovert someone

DVT - yes!

  • Body is actively depleting protein C and S to try and break up clots
  • if add warfarin without heparin, you’re going to decrease C and S even more and will definitely have necrosis
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402
Q

Hypertension in pts w/ thyrotoxicosis

A

Predominantly SYSTOLIC HTN, w/ increase in pulse pressure

Caused by hyperdynamic circulation due to hyperTH. Possibly due to increased expression of myocardial SR Ca-dependent ATP

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403
Q

Managing Nephrolithiasis

A

Imaging
- helical CT highest sensitivity and specificity

Pain

  • Narcotics and NSAIDs if have normal renal function
  • NSAIDS better because narcotics can worsen N/V

Size of stone
- < 5 mm = pass spontaneously, drink lots of fluids

Urology consult
- if anuria, urosepsis, acute renal fail

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404
Q

Multiple sclerosis CSF findings

A

Oligoclonal bands (mostly IgG)

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405
Q

Most important contributor to CHF edema

A

Increased renal sodium retention

Results from RAAS due to renal hypoperfusion secondary to decreased CO

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406
Q

Pathophysiology of non-EtOH fatty liver disease

A

Insulin resistance –> fat accumulation in hepatocytes by increasing rate of lipolysis and elevating circulating insulin levels –> intrahepatic fatty acid oxidation –> increase in oxidative stress –> local increase in proinflammatory cytokines TNF-a –> liver inflammation, fibrosis, cirrhosis

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407
Q

Immediate goal of managing pt w/ confusion if hx is limited

A

Tx potentially reversible causes of confusion

Thiamine –> Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Dextrose –> hypoglycemia
Supplemental O2 –> hypoxia
Naloxone –> Opiate OD

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408
Q

Major cause of morbidity and mortality in SAH pts

A

Vasospasm of arteries at base of brain

Signs of ischemia happen about 7 days after SAH

Use CCB to prevent!

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409
Q

Warm agglutinin disease

  • what is it
  • causes
  • tx
A

IgG

Extravascular hemolysis –> splenomegaly

May have spherocytes

Causes

  • lymphoma, leukemia (CLL)
  • SLE
  • a-methyldopa

tx w/

  • steroids
  • rituximab
  • splenectomy
  • immunosuppressive drugs
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410
Q

Cold agglutinin antibody disease

  • what is it
  • causes
  • tx
A

IgM

Intravascular (activates complement –> hemolysis)

Causes:

  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • EBV

tx w/

  • supportive care
  • RBC transfusions
  • NOT steroids
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411
Q

Common causes of priapism

A

Sickle cell
Leukemia
Perineal or genital trauma (laceration of cavernous artery)
Neurogenic lesions (spinal cord, cauda equina compression)
Meds - trazodone, prazosin (#1)

412
Q

What spinal process are diabetics prone to develop?

- How do you dx?

A

Epidural abscesses

Do an MRI to eval cord compression

413
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

  • Ascitic fluid Dx
  • When do paracentesis?
  • Most commonly cultured organisms
  • Empiric therapy?
A

Dx: + ascitic culture, PMN > 250 / mm3

When: Before antibiotics

Org: E coli, Klebsiella

Empiric tx: 3rd gen cephalosporin

414
Q

Acute aortic dissection presentation

A

HTN (not HYPO)
Tearing chest pain
Unequal pulses

Early diastolic murmur - dissection causes aortic regurg

415
Q

Presentation of influenza

When does tx need to start?

A

Leukopenia
Acute onset fever, chills, cough, malaise, myalgias, coryza

Antiviral therapy (ostltamivir) must be started w/in 48 hrs to significantly decrease duration and severity

416
Q

SLE hemotologic abnormalities

A

Anemia (warm agglutinin hemolysis)

Thrombocytopenia (like ITP in Ab formed against platelets)

Neutropenia (Ab-destruction of WBC)

417
Q

Medial medullary syndrome

A

Occlusion of vertebral artery/branch

Contralateral paralysis of arm and leg
Contralateral loss of tactile, vibratory adn position sense

DEviation of tongue to injured side

418
Q

Wallenberg syndrome

A

Lateral medulla injury

Ipsilateral Horner
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation on body

Loss of pain and temp of face
weakness of palate, pharynx, vocal cords

cerebellar ataxia

419
Q

Acute pericarditis EKG

A

Diffuse ST elevations

PR depressions

420
Q

Breath sounds over consolidated lung retions

A

LOUDER + more prominent expiratory component if airways are patent

  • egophony also present
  • crackles
  • decreased if airways are blocked
421
Q

Acalculous cholecysititis commonly seen in pts…

A
  1. Extensive burns
  2. Severe trauma
  3. Prolonged TPN
  4. Prolonged fasting
  5. Mechanical ventillation
422
Q

Zenker’s diverticulum

  • Where?
  • Why?
  • Dx?
  • Tx?
A

Happens right above UES by herniating POSTERIORLY between fibers of crcopharyngeal muscle

Motor dysfunction and incoordination responsible for problem
Can sometimes see the outpouching in the neck!

Dx - contrast esophogram to clearly show diverticulum

Surgical tx = excision and cricopharyngeal myotomy

423
Q

When do you do a carotid endarterectomy?

A
"Symptomatic" carotid stenosis of 70-99%
Asymotompatic stenosis of 60-99%
Low surgery risk
Good 5 year predicted survival
Accessible lesin

<50% - just aspirin

424
Q

When do a carotid angioplasty w/ stenting?

A

High surgical risk
Poor 5 year survival

NOT for asymptomatic pts

425
Q

DVT anticoagulation contraindications

How do you tx?

A

Recent surgery
Hemorrhagic stroke
Bleeding diathesis
Actve bleeding

IVC filter

426
Q

Cluster headache features

A

Intense unilateral retroorbital pain, usually waking pt up from sleep
Starts suddenly, peaks rapidly, lasts 2 hrs
More in men

Redness of ipsilateral eye, Horner’s, runny nose, tearing

427
Q

Causes of macrocytic anemia

A

Folate deficiency
B12 deficiency
Orotic aciduria

Myelodysplastic syndrome
Acute myeloid leukemias

Drugs

Liver disease
EtOH abuse
HYPO thyroid

428
Q

Pernicious anemia

A

1 cause of B12 deficiency

Usuall have other autoimmune d/o (thyroid, vitiligo)

Shiny tongue (atrophic glositis)
Ataxia (shuffling, broad based)
DCMLS deficit
429
Q

How long do you have to be on a pure vegan diet to replete your B12 stores?

Folate stores?

A

B12 - 4-5 years

Folate - 4-5 months

430
Q

Extraintestinal manifestations of UC

A

Sclerosing cholangitis
Uveitis
Erythema Nodosum
Spondyloarthropathy

Toxic megacolon
Colon cancer

431
Q

1 valvular abnormality in infective endocarditis (not IV drug use related)

A

Mitral regurgitation

432
Q
Urinalysis:
Gluc - negative
Ketones - trace
LE - negative
Blood - Large
RBC - 0-1
WBC - 5-10

What do you suspect?

A

Rhabdomyolysis –> myoglobinuria

ALWAYS suspect this if test results have large amt of blood on UA but absence of RBCs on microscopy

433
Q

Altered mental status causes

A

Decreased glucose
Decreased Na
HYPO thyroid

Increased Ca
Uremia
NH3
Increased CO2

434
Q

Can you gain wt with cancer?

A

YES!

Hyper ACTH of small cell –> Cushings –> fat redistribution

435
Q

Ectopic ACTH causes

A

Lung cancer
Carcinoid
Pancreatic cancer
Neuoendocrine tumors

436
Q

Important electrolyte disturbance w/ SAH

A

Hyponatremia –> Cerebral salt wasting syndrome

1) Inappropriate secretion of vasopressin –> water retention
2) Increased secretion of ANP/BNP –> cerebral salt wasting
3) SIADH also commonly seen

437
Q

What lab values are best representations of acid base status?

A

pH

PaCO2

438
Q

Pronator drift

A

Sensitive an specific for UMN lesion

UE supinators naturallyw eaker than pronators - exaggerated in pts w/ UMN lesion

Extend arms wti palms up, affected arm will tend to pronate ad drift down

439
Q

Most common site of hypertensive hemorrhage (intracerebral)

- features on PE

A

Putamen (35%) - BASAL GANGLIA!
Internal capsule lying adjacent almost always involved–> hemiparesis

Cerebellum (16%), thalamus, and pons also common

Motor deficits opposite site of lesion
Gaze deviation TOWARDS side of lesion

440
Q

What’s the best way to improve LV function in pt with tachysystolic afib?

A

Control rhythm or rate

441
Q

Uremic coagulopathy

A

Abnormal hemostasis seen in pts w/ CRF

Abnormal bleeding and bruising are characteristic

Guanidinosuccinic acid is #1 uremic toxin implicated in pathogenesis of platelet dysfunction seen in CRF

PTT and PT and TT usually normal

Bleeding time usually prolonged
Platelet count normal, platelet dysfunction present

442
Q

Extrarenal complicatins of ADPKD

A

Hepatic cysts (#1)

Berry aneurysm

MV prolpse
Aortic regurg

Colonic diverticula

Ab wall and inguinal hernia

443
Q

Extrahepatic sequelae of chronic hep C

A
Chronc arthralgia (false + RF or ANA)
Cryoglobulinemia
Porphyria cutanea tarda
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
B cell lymphomas
Plasmacytomas
Sjogren's, thyroiditis
Lichen Planus
Idipathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
444
Q

FeUrea

A

< 35% = pre-renal azotemia

> 35% = intrinsic renal failure

445
Q

FeNa

A

< 1%

  • prerenal
  • the physiologic response to a decrease in renal perfusion is an increase in sodium reabsorption to control hyponatremia, often caused by volume depletion or decrease in effective circulating volume (e.g. low output heart failure).

> 2-3%

  • ATN or kidney damage
  • either excess sodium is lost due to tubular damage, or the damaged glomeruli result in hypervolemia resulting in the normal response of sodium wasting.
446
Q

Risks for contrast induced nephropathy

A

FeNa < 1
Diabetes
Decreased GFR

447
Q

Black currant jelly stools

A

Intusuception

448
Q

How do you decide how and where to tx a patient with pneumonia?

A
CURB-6
C = Confusion
U = Urea (BUN > 20)
R = RR > 30
B = systolic BP = 65

0-1 = outpt, 2 = admission

449
Q

Facticious thyrotoxicosis - labs

A

Hyperthyroidism signs (no goiter or exophthalmos though)

LOW TSH
HIGH T3 and T4

Dx w/ 24 hr radioiodine uptake test –> diffusely decreased iodine uptake by thryoid

Biopsy = follicular atrophy

450
Q

Reasons for pain postcholecystectomy

A

1) Sphincter of oddi dysfunciton
- abnormal ALP
- dilatation of biliary tree
- high pressure of sphincter on manometry

2) common bile duct stone
- abrnomal ALP
- dilatation of biliary tree

3) functional pain
- normalLFTs
- no dilatation of biliary tree
- diagnosis of exclusion

451
Q

When do a cholecystectomy?

A

Indicated for all pts w/ symptomatic gallstones (eg pancreatitis) who are medically stable enough for surgery

452
Q

Mass in anterior mediastinum

A

Thymoma
Retrosternal thyroid
Teratoma
Lymphoma

Dx w/ CT scan

453
Q

Mass in middle mediastinum

A
Bronchogenic cysts
Tracheal tumors
Lymph node enlargement
Aortic aneurysms of arch
Pericardial cysts
454
Q

Mass in posterior mediastinum

A
Neurogenic tumors
- meningocele
lymphoma
diaphragmatic hernias
esophageal tumors
aortic aneurysms

Dx w/ MRI

455
Q

How do you decrease risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?

A

Use non-ionic contrast agents

456
Q

Tricuspid valve endocarditis + pleuritic pain + cavitating lung nodules on xray

A

Staph aureus

septic embolism to lungs from staph IV use

457
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy causes

A
Alcohol
Adenovirus
Beri beri
Coxackie
Chagas
Cocaine
Doxorubicin/Danorubicin
Enterovirus

Hemochromatosis
HHV 6
Parvovirus B19
Peripartum cardiomyopathy

458
Q

Tx after diagnose solid testicular mass suggestive of cancer (via US)

A

Radial orchiectomy

- remove testis and associated cord

459
Q

Diabetes insipidus features

A

Polyuria
Polydipsia
DILUTE urine w/ increased serum osmolality

Pts prefer cold water

460
Q

Primary polydipsia features

A

Excessive water drinking

Both plasma and urine are diluted

461
Q

SIADH features

A
Hyponatremia
Low serum osmolality
Inappropriate high urine osmolality
Hypouricemia and low BUN
Normal or reduced Cr b/c of dilution
Euvolemia
462
Q

Osmotic diuresis features

A

Happens w/ hyperglycemia, glucosuria, mannitol admin

Urine and serum osmolality elevated
Urine > serum

463
Q

Pap smear screening guidelines

A

Start at 21 no matter if sex active

21-30:
- screen every 2 years

> 30 w/ 3 consecutive (-) paps, screen every 3 years

If have CIN II/III, screen w/ pap smear every 6 months until 3 negatives obtained
- then resume standard (annual) screening

464
Q

What should all chronic hep C people get?

A

Vaccinations to Hep A and B if not already immune

465
Q

Heat stroke

  • characteristics
  • consequences
A

Body temp > 105

Dehydration common –> hot, dry skin and hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, hemoconcentration

Seizures
ARDS (scattered rales on exam)
DIC (low platelets, increased PT/PTT) - eg epistaxis
Hepatic/renal failure

466
Q

Electrical alternans

A

Pathognomonic for pericardial effusion

Due to swining motion of heart in pericardial cavity causing beat to beat variation in QRS axia adn amplitude

EA + sinus tachy very specific for pericardial effusion

467
Q

Mixed cryoglobulinemia

A

Palpable purpura
Proteinuria
Hematuria (RBC casts)

Arthralgias
Hepatospelnomegaly
Low complement

HCV infection usually

468
Q

Colon cancer screening

A

Start age 50 or 10 years before 1st diagnosis in family member

Do every 10 years for average risk

469
Q

Mammogram screenings

A

age 50 - 75
- every 2 years

> 75
- NONE!

470
Q

Common complication of CABG

A

Afib

Rate of afib increases w/ CABG + aortic valve replacement

471
Q

Pickwickian syndrome (Obesity Hypoventilation syndrome)

A

Severe obesity + alveolar HYPOventilation during wakefullness + thick neck

Low voltage QRS on EKG
Polycythemia secondary to hypoventilation

472
Q

Smoking cessation cardiovascular benefits

A

LITTLE effect on BP reduction

Significantly reduce risk of cardiovascular disease

473
Q

Risk factors for osteosarcoma

A

Radiation
Chemo
Paget’s

474
Q

Osteitis fibrosis cystica

A

Due to HYPER PTH

Osteoclastic resorption –> replace bone w/ fibrous tissue (brown tumors)

475
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Triad
Altered mental status
Ataxia
Nystagmus, conjugate faze palsy

DOES NOT cause asterixis

476
Q

Chalazion

A

Painful swelling –> nodular rubbery lesion

Is a chronic granulomatous condition happening when meibomian gland becomes obstructed - chronically can be due to sebaceous carcinoma

Need to do biopsy-histo to see what it is so make sure it’s not basal cell carcinoma

477
Q

Hordeolum

A

Stye
Acute infection of gland of eyelid

Use antistaph meds

478
Q

Indicators for severity in pancreatitis

A

Hgb

Cr

479
Q

Clubbing

A

Chronic hypoxia
NOT in COPD though

If COPD has clubbing, there is another hypoxic event happening on top of the COPD

480
Q

UA vs. NSTEMI vs. STEMI features on EKG and Labs

A

UA - (-) trop, nonspecific EKG

NSTEMI - (+) trop, ST depressions, T wave inversions

STEMI - (+) trop, Q waves

481
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities of chronic alcoholism

A

Hypomagnessemia
Hypokalemia
Hypophosphatemia

482
Q

Hypomagnesia

  • consequences
  • importance of Mg
  • how to correct
  • causes of it
A

Can cause refractory hypokalemia

Mg is important cofactor for K uptake and maintenance of intracellular K levels

NEED TO GIVE Mg first for hypoK

Get hypo Mg also with

  • diuretics
  • poor nutritoin
  • malabsorb
  • alcohol
483
Q

Hypophosphatemia effects

A

Weakness
Rhabdomyolysis
Paresthesias
Respiratory failure

484
Q

Hypoalbuminemia effects

A

Decreased oncotic pressure –> edema

Hypocalcemia (b/c Ca bound by albumin)

485
Q

INTRAVASCULAR hemolytic anemia

- panel of lab results

A

Increased

  • indirect bilirubin
  • urinary urobilinogen
  • hemoglobinemia
  • hemoglobinuria
  • LDH

Decreased
- Haptoglobin (binds up the free Hg)

486
Q

Tumors almost NEVER mets to brain

A

Non-melanomatous skin cancer
Oropharyngeal cancer
Esophageal carcinoma
Prostate cancer

487
Q

Do you screen for bladder cancer?

A

Never

Even w/ smoking history or family history

488
Q

Common cause of lactic acidosis in pts w/ atherosclerotic disease and afib

A

Bowel ischemia

Lactic acidosis b/c lactate is end product of anaerobic metabolism in ischemic tissue

489
Q

Common infectious cause of adrenal insufficiency

A

TB

Histoplasmosis
Coccidiodomycosis
Cryptococcosis
Sarcoidosis

490
Q

What should all pts complaining of asthma like sx be questioned about as well?

A

Reflux!

GERD in 75% of asthma pts

491
Q

Dystonia

A

sustained muscle contraction resulting in twisting, repetitive mvmts or abnormal postures

Torticolis is a focal dystonia

492
Q

Akathisia

A

Sensation of restlessness causing pt to move frequently

493
Q

Athetosis

A

Slow writing mvmts affecting hands and feet

Characteristic of Huntingtons and goes wtih chorea

494
Q

Myoclonus

A

involuntary jerking of muscle or muscle group

495
Q
Sore throat
Odynophagia
Drooling
Progressive airway obstruction
Stridor
Fever
A

Epiglottitis!

Common pathogens:

  • Hib
  • Strep pyogenes
496
Q

BNP diagnosing CHF

A

> 100 pg/mL diagnoses CHF w/ high sensitivity

497
Q

Common causes of thyrotoxicosis

A

You get increased TH but decreased radioactive iodine uptake

  • Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis (painless) - postpartum relation usually
  • Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (De Quervain’s)
  • Levothyroxine OD
  • Iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis
  • Struma ovarii (teratoma in ovary producing thyroid hormones)
498
Q

When do you think pancreatic pseudocyst?

A

A few weeks (~4) post acute or chronic pancreatitis

Dx via US

Resolves spontaneously; only drain if persists for more than 6 weeks, infected, or > 5cm

499
Q

Best way to dx disc herniation/abscess

A

MRI of spine

500
Q

Bacterial overgrowth in small bowel has what manifestations?

A

Assoc w/ hx of ab surgery

Tetany (b/c vit D deficiency so dec Ca)
Night blindness (vit A def)
Neuropathy (vit B12 def)
Dermatitis
Arthritis
Hepatic injury
501
Q

Subclavian atherosclerosis prefers which artery?

A

Left artery subclavian

502
Q

Myasthenia crisis

A

Life-threatening
Weakness of resp and pharyngeal muscles
Usually caused by intercurrent infection
Can be caused by anticholinesterase overdose

Need to do:

  • endotracheal intubation
  • w/d anticholinesterases for several days
503
Q

Osteomyelitis - most common cause

A

Staph aureus

504
Q

Osteomyelitis - sexually active

A

N. gonorrhae

Septic arthritis more common

505
Q

Osteomyelitis - Diabetics and IV drug users, stepping on a nail

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Serratia

For IV drug users, spine is usual place for osteomyelitis
Will have tenderness to gentle percussion over spinous processes of involved vertebrae

506
Q

Osteomyelitis - Sickle cell

A

Salmonella

507
Q

Osteomyelitis - prosthetic replacement

A

Staph aureus

Staph epi

508
Q

Osteomyelitis - vertebral disease

A

M. tuberculosis (pott’s)

509
Q

Osteomyelitis - cat and dog bites or scratches

A

Pasteurella multocida

510
Q

Flank pain
Poor urine outflow w/ intermittent episodes of high volume urination
UA - occasional RBCs, WBCs, NO CASTS

A

Obstructive uropathy due to renal calculi

511
Q

Anterior blood supply to brain

A

Internal carotid –> branches –> ACA, MCA

512
Q

Posterior blood supply to brain

A

Paired vertebral arteries –> basilar artery –> paired PCA

513
Q

ACA stroke

A
Contralateral motor and/or sensory deficits more in the lower limb
Urinary incontinence
Gait apraxia
Primitive reflexes 
Abulia (lack of will/initiative)
Paratonic rigidity
514
Q

MCA stroke

A

Contralateral motor and/or sensory deficits more in the upper limb
Homonymous hemianopia

IF dominant lobe (left) –> aphasia
IF nondominant lobe (right) –> neglect and/or anosognosia

515
Q

PCA stroke

A

Homonymous hemianopia
Alexia w/o agraphia (dominant hemi)
Visual hallucinations (Calcarine cortex)
Sensory sx (thalamus)
3rd nerve palsy w/ paresis of vertical eye mvmt
Motor deficits *cerebral peduncle, midbrain)

516
Q

Internal carotid stroke

A

MCA stroke + amaurosis fugax

517
Q

Lacunar infarcts

A

Pure motor hemiparesis
Pure sensory stroke
Dysarthria-clumsy hand
Ataxic hemiparesis

518
Q

Difference in PFTs b/n Ankylosing spondylitis and restrictive lung diseases

A

Both have decreased

  • FEV1
  • FVC
  • FEV1 / FVC

AS has increased FRC b/c fixation of chest wall in inspiratory position
Restrictive lung disease has decreased FRC

519
Q

Lupus anticoagulant features

A

PTT normal or increased

vWF, bleeding time, platelet count normal

D-dimer normal or high

520
Q
Pain with neck extension
Trismus (inability to open mouth normally)
Fever
Sore throat
Dysphagia
Odynophagia
A

Retropharyngeal abscess

Do CT of neck

521
Q

Best initial test for squamous cell carcionma of mucosa of head and neck

A

Panendoscopy

  • esophagoscopy
  • bronchoscopy
  • laryngoscopy

to detect primary tumor

522
Q

Signs of cerebellar dysfunction

A
Ataxia
Broad based gait
Dysmetria
Intention tremor
Difficulty with rapid alternating movements
Nystagmus
Muscle hypotonia
523
Q

Causes of atypical pneumonia

A
M. pneumo
C. pneumoniae
Legionella
Coxiella
Influenza
524
Q

Erysipelas

A

Specific type of cellulitis
Inflammation of superficial dermis –> prominent swelling

  • sharply demarcated, erythematous, edematous, tender

Usually caused by S. pyogenes

525
Q

Cellulitis after a puncture wound- what org do you suspect?

A

Pseudomonas

526
Q

MPGN type 2 - pathophysiology

A

Unique among glomerulopathies

Caused by IgG antibodies (C3 nephritic factor) against C3 convertase of alternative complement path
- antibodies reacting w/ C3 convertase –> persistent complement activation –> kidney damage

527
Q

Common causes of UTIs in ppl w/ catheters

- which ones produce alkaline urine?

A

Alkaline:
- Proteus

Candida
Pseudomonas
Klebs

528
Q

Pleural fluid glucose:
< 30 mg/dL
30-50 mg/dL

A

< 30 mg/dL

  • empyema or rheumatic effusion
  • decreased glucose b/c high met activity of WBC in fluid

30-50 mg/dL

  • malignancy
  • lupus
  • esophageal rupture
  • TB
529
Q

Pica causes

A
Iron deficiency (blood loss)
Psych disease
530
Q

Vit D toxicity

A

Constipation
Ab pain
Polyuria
Polydipsia

531
Q

Pneumococcal (PPSV) vaccine indications

A

Given once all adults >=65

Give to all adults < 65 w/ chronic diseases:

  • Cardio
  • pulm
  • hepatic
  • renal
  • metabolic (eg diabetes)
  • immunosuppression

Need booster 5 years later if vaccinated before age 65

HIV pts whose CD4 > 200 need pneumovax

532
Q

Granulomatosis w/ polyangitis

  • Features
  • Tx
A

Triad

  • systemic vasculitis (subQ nodules, palpable purpura, pyoderma grangenosum)
  • upper and lower airway inflammation (saddle nose deformity, epistaxis, otitis, sinusitus)
  • glomerulonephritis (RBC casts, proteinuria, sterile pyruia)

+c-ANCA (vs proteinase-3)

Tx w/ cyclophosphamide

533
Q

Proximal weakness of lambert eaton vs. polymyositis

A

Both have proximal weakness

CPK high in polymyositis
CPK normal in LE

Polymyositis - anti Jo1 and ANA
Lambert eaton - anti voltage gated Ca channels

534
Q

Cocaine use

  • Clinical features
  • Complications
A

Features

  • tachy, HTN, dilated pupils
  • chest pain b/c coronary vasoconstrict
  • psychomotor agitation, seizures

Complications:

  • MI
  • Dissection
  • Intracranial hemorrhage
535
Q

Temporal arteritis pt - tx w/ steroids - now comes in with myopathy - what does pt have?

If no tx w/ steroids for TA and came in with morning stiffness and pain in shoulders, hip girdle and neck, what does pt have?

A

Myopathy - steroid-induced myopathy
- ESR normal

Pain/stiffness - polymyalgia rheumatica

  • in 50% of TA
  • ESR elevated
536
Q

Choriocarcinoma loves to spread to

A

Lungs

537
Q

RCC triad

A

Hematuria
Abdominal Mass
Flank Pain

Also can have left sided scrotal varicocele

538
Q

Abnormal labs in Paget’s

A

Increased ALP

Urinary n telopeptide

539
Q

Dermatomyositis

  • Findings
  • Autoantibody
  • Associations
A

Findings

  • proximal extensor muscle inflammatory myopathy
  • periorbital edema = hemiotrope sign
  • violaceous poikloderma on chest and lateral neck = shawl sign
  • poikloderma on knuckles, elbows, knees = Gottron’s sign
  • Gottron’s papules = lichenoid papules over joints = pathognomonic
  • more in females

Autoanitbody
- anti-Mi-2 (against helicase)

Associations
- Malignancies (ovarian, breast, lung, urogenetal female)

540
Q

Inflammatory diseases assoc w/ aoritc aneurysms

A
Behcet 
Takayasu arteritis
GCA
Ankylosing spondylitis
RA
Psoriatic arthritis
Relapsing polychondritis
Reactive arthritis
541
Q

Inflammatory disease assoc w/ carpal tunnel

A

RA
Sarcoidosis
Amyloidosis

542
Q

Criteria for starting long term O2 therapy in COPD

A

PaO2 < 55 mmHg
OR
SaO2 < 88% on room air

Pt w/ cor pulmonale
OR
Hct > 55%

If become hypoxic during exercise or sleep

543
Q

Grave’s disease

- specific signs

A

Exophthalmos
Pretibial myxedema
Thyroid bruit

544
Q

HYPERthyroidism features

A

Nervousness, insomnia, irritability

Hand tremor, hyperactivity, tremulousness

Excessive sweating, heat intolerance

Weight loss, increased appetite

Diarrhea, frequent defecation

Palps

Muscle weakness

545
Q

Graves Proptosis pathophys

A

Autoimmune attack on extraocular muscles

Lymphocytes infiltrate EOM and orbita fat –> edema, proliferaion of local interstitial fibroblasts, and deposition of glycosaminoglycans –> fibrosis and increased edema w/ EOM enlargement

546
Q

Thyroid storm

A

Med emergency

usually precipitating factor like infection, DKA or stress

high mortality rate

Fever
Tachy
Agitation or psychosis
Confusion
N/V, diarrhea

Tx

  • supportive (IV fluids, cooling blankets, glucose)
    • antithyroid agents
  • b-blockers
547
Q

Myxedema coma

A

Depressed state of consciousness + HYPOthermia + respiratory depression

Can develop after years of severe untreated hypoTh

Med emergency

Tx

  • supportive to maintain BP and respiration
  • IV thyroxine and hydrocortisone
548
Q

HYPOthyroidism features

A

Fatigue, weakness, lethargy

Menorrhagia, wt gain

Cold intolerance

Constipation

Slow mentation, inability to concentrate

Muscle weakness

Depression

Diminished hearing

Dry skin, coarse hair, hoarseness, nonpitting edema, Bradycartia

Goiter

549
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Rubbery, nontender goiter

Antimicrosomal antibodies

Can also have increased LDL, decreased HDL, normocytic anemia

550
Q

Papillary carcinoma of thyroid

  • Features
  • Tx
A

MOST COMMON
Least aggressive
RIsk factor: hx radiation to head/neck
Spreads via lymphatics in neck - distant mets are rare

Tx

  • lobectomy w/ isthmusectomy
  • total thyroidectomy if tumor > 3 cm, bilateral, advanced, or distant mets
  • TSH suppression theapy, radioiodine therapy
551
Q

Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid

  • Features
  • Tx
A
Loves to absorb I
Prognosis worse than follicular
spread HEMATOGENOUS
Distant mets common
Tumor extension past capsule distinguishes it from benign adenoma

Tx

  • Total thyroidectomy
  • Postop I ablation
552
Q

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

  • Features
  • Tx
A

1/3 assoc w/ MEN II
Arises from parafollicular C cells - makes calcitonin
Stains w/ congo red

More malignant than follicular cancer!

Tx
- Total thyroidectomy

553
Q

Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid

  • Features
  • Tx
A

Mostly in elderly
Highly malignant
CAn arise from longstanding follicular or papillary thryoid carcinoma
Death usually in months

Tx

  • chemo and radiation
  • palliative surgery for airway
554
Q

Hurthle cell tumor

A

Variant of follicular cancer but more aggressive
Spread by lypmhatics
Tx - total thyroidectomy

555
Q

Felty syndrome

A

Form of RA w/ splenomegaly and granulocytoenia

Usually happens if A present fore more than 10 years

556
Q

Lab values w/ glucocorticid use

A

Decrese:

  • Eosinophil
  • Lymphopenic

Increase bone marrow release and mobilize marginated neutrophil pool (neutrophilia)

557
Q

What makes a Q wave pathologial?

A

If it is greater than 1/3 of the R wave

558
Q

Albumin charge change

- Example w/ Ca

A

Increase pH of blood

  • more negative charge on albumin
  • increase affinity to Ca
  • increase albumin-bound ca
  • decreases levels of ionized calcium
559
Q

Hypocalcemia signs

A
Crampy pain
Paresthesias
Perioral tingling
Tetany
Carpopedal spasm
Seizures
Prolongation of QT interval on EKG
560
Q

Hypo K + alkalosis + normotension

  • what do you suspect?
A
Surreptitious vomitting (urine Cl low)
Diuretic abuse (Cl urine high)
Bartter syndrome (Urine Cl high)
Gitelman syndrome (Urine Cl high)
561
Q

Presbycusis

A

Sensorineural hearing loss w/ age

symmetrical high freq hearing impairment

562
Q

Otosclerosis

A

Chronic conductive hearing loss w/ bony overgrowth of stapes

Usually starts as low freq hearing loss

563
Q

Pancoast tumor

A

Shoulder pan radiating into armin ulnar distribution

Caused by tumor ivasion of 8th cervical - 1st thoracic nerves

564
Q

What can an apical pulmonary tumor cause in terms of symptoms?

A

Horner’s - sympathetic trunk compression
Pancoast - brachial plexus compression
Hoarse voice - R recurrent laryngeal N compression
SVC syndrome - compress SVC ad decrease blood return from head

565
Q

Normal distribution of statistical values

A

Mean = median = ode

566
Q

Positive skew (tail on right) distribution

A

Mean > median > mode

567
Q

Negative skew (tail on left) distribution

A

Mean < median < mode

568
Q

Rapidly developing hirsutism

  • Best test to dx
  • how to interpret the results?
A

Suggestive of androgen-sereting neoplasm of adrenal or ovary

Serum testosterone and DHEAS (sulfated form of DHEA)

Increased testosterone, normal DHEAS = ovarian source

Increased DHEAS, normal testosterone = adrenal source

DHEA is secreted from both ovaries and adrenals
DHEAS is made only in adrenals

569
Q

Hairy cell leukemia

  • What is it?
  • Markers?
A

Type of B lymphocytic derived chronic leukemia

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase stain

CD11c marker

570
Q

Hypo K+ effects

  • physio effects
  • EKG
A
Weakness
Fatigue
Muscle cramps
Flaccid paralysis
Hyporeflexia
Tetany
Rhabdomyolysis
Arrhythmias (afib, torsades)

Broad flat T waves, U waves, ST depression

571
Q

Cystinuria

A

Impaired amino acid transport of dibasic amino acids (csteine, lysine, argiine, ornithine)

Cysteine is poorly soluble in water –> get renal stones

+ urinary cyanide nitroprusid test

572
Q

Cysteine kidney stones

A

Usually due to cystinuria

Hard and radioopague stones

UA shows hexagonal crystals

+ urinary cyanide nitroprusside test

573
Q

Pt presentation:

  • lower ab pain, bloody diarrhea, tenesmus over several weeks
  • acute fever, leukocytosis, hypoTN, tachy

What are you worried about?

A

Probably has undiagnosed IBD

Now has toxic megacolon

Can be lethal

574
Q

Dx toxic megacolon

A

Radiographic evidence of colonic distension +
3 of the below:

  • Fever > 38C
  • HR > 120
  • Neutrophilic leukocytosis > 10,500
  • Anemia

Plus at least one of the below:

  • vol depletion
  • altered sensorium
  • electrolyte disturbance
  • hypoTN

Dx w. abdominal Xray to confirm dilated colon > 6cm

575
Q

SIADH tx

A

Hypertonic (3% saline) SLOWLY

Rate of correction not more than 0.5-1 mEq/L/hr

576
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalous

A

Abnormal gait
Incontinence
Dementia (memory loss w/o focal neurologic changes)

577
Q

Toxoplasmosis CNS

A

Mass lesions
Usually multiple
In basal ganglia and at cortical grey[white matter interface
Ring-enhancing

578
Q

Common causes of brain abscesses

A

Anaerobic Strep

Bacteroides

579
Q

On CT:

  • isolated, round smooth bordered ring enhancing intracranial lesion on contrast CT
  • immunocomp pt
  • known extracranial bacterial infection
A

this is a brain abscess

580
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis screening

A

Screen all sexually active women age 24 and younger

Screen other asymptomatic women at increased risk for STIs

581
Q

Sources for PE clots

A

LE DVT most common

  • proximal deep veins (iliac, femoral, popliteal) = > 90%
  • calf vein is less than proximal
582
Q

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

  • symptoms
  • how do you tell the difference w/ orbital cellulitus?
A

CST happens b/c facial/ophthalmic venous sys is valveless

Headache
Binocular palsies
Periorbital edema
Hypoesthesia or hyperesthesia in V1/V2 distribution
CAN BECOME BILATERAL

Dx w/ magnetic resonance venography

Orbital cellulitus DOES NOT have headache, bilateral cranial nerve findings, or bilateral periorobital edema

583
Q

VIPoma

A
Diarrhea
Hypo K --> leg cramps
Decreased H+ in stomach
Dehydration
Ab pain
Wt loss
Facial flushing
Redness

Tx - ocretotide to help w/ diarrhea

584
Q

Glucagonoma

A

Necrotizing dermatitis
Wt loss
Anemia
Persistent hyperglycemia

585
Q

Role of spleen in immune system

A

Blood borne antigens enter spleen via splenic A –> phagocytosed by dendritic cells in WHITE PULP

Dendritic cells present antigens on MHC 2 –> TH cells –> activated TH cells go to marginal zone of spleen –> contact B cells in primary follicles

B cell activation –> secondary follicles –> germinal centers w/ lots of plasma cells form –> make antibodies –> bind antigen –> facilitate phagocytosis by opsoniziation

586
Q

Leukocyte adhesion defect

A

Chemotaxis impaired

Autosomal recessive

Defect in integrin B2

587
Q
Osteonecrosis 
= aseptic necrosis
= avascular necrosis 
= ischemic necrosis
= osteochondritis dessicans
A

Vasculature of bone disrupted –> bone and bone marrow infaction

Bone can’t remodel –> trabecular thinning –> collapse of affected bone

Use MRI to dx (most sensitive)

Precipitating factors:

  • steroid use
  • chronic EtOH
  • hemoglobinopathies
  • trauma
  • antiphospholipid syndrome
588
Q

Liver main functions

A

Synthetic
- make clotting factor, cholesterol, proteins

Metabolic

  • met drugs and steroids
  • detoxify

Excretory
- bile excretion

589
Q

Isolated systolic HTN

A

Caused by decreased elasticity of arterial wall

  • increase in SBP but not DBP
  • get widened pulse pressure

Always treated b/c assoc w/ increased risk for CV events

Tx: thiazide, ACE-I or CCB

590
Q

What abnormal labs are indications for thyroid function tests?

A

Hyperlipidemia (increased LDL)

Unexplained hypo Na

Elevated serum muscle enzymes

Anemia (normocytic, normochromic)

591
Q

How do you tell between NPH and atrophy of brain?

A

Sulci - enlarged in atrophy, not enlarged in NPH

Both have increased ventricle size

Clinical symptoms different though

592
Q

MMSE < what is suggestive of dementia

A

24

593
Q

Pt w/ PID - what else should you test them for?

A

HIV
Syphilis
Hep B
Pap smear

Hep C if IVDU

594
Q

Liver main functions

A

Synthetic
- make clotting factor, cholesterol, proteins

Metabolic

  • met drugs and steroids
  • detoxify

Excretory
- bile excretion

595
Q

Tx calcium stones

A

Hydrocholorthiazide (NOT FUROSEMIDE)

Hydration

596
Q

Typical renal colic but no stone on flat film of abdomen and pelvis
- what do you consider?

A
  1. radiolucent stone (uric acid)
  2. calcium stones < 1-3 mm in diameter
  3. Non stone causes (obstruction via blood clot, tumor)
597
Q

Tx uric acid stones

A

Hydration

Alkalnize urine
- oral KHCO3 or potassium citrate

Low purine diet w/w/o allopurinol

598
Q

Secretin stimulation test

A

Done if suspected Z-E but gastrin values not diagnostic

Secretin stimulates release of gastrin from GASTRINOMA cells

Normally, secretin —-| g cell and gastrin release

599
Q

Indications for parathyroidectomy in hyperparathyroidism

A

Symptomatic

OR

Asymptomatic + 1 of features below:

  • serum calcium `> 1 mg/dL above upper limit of normal
  • < 50 yo
  • Bone mineral density < 1-2.5 at any site
  • reduced renal function
600
Q

Small bowel obstruction:

Proximal vs. distal obstruction

A

Proximal - frequent vomiting, severe pain, minimal ab distention

Distal - less frequent vomitting, LOTS Of ab distention

601
Q

Tx hypo PTH

A

Calcium gluconate in severe cases

Oral Ca

Vit D supplementation

602
Q

What is diagnostic of hyper PTH?

A

Chloride/phosphorus ratio of > 33

Cl high secondary to renal bicarb wasting

603
Q

Causes of Cushing’s syndrome

A
  • Iatrogenic (prednisone)
  • ACTH secreting adenoma of pituitary –> bilateral adrenal HYPERPLASIA
  • Adrenal adenoma
  • Ectopic ACTH from tumor
604
Q

ACTH secreting adenoma of pituitary–> changes in adrenals?

A

Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

605
Q

Helpful signs for increased cortisol in a pt

A

Impaired collagen production

  • easy bruising
  • striae

Myopathy

Virilization

Anti-insulin effects (glucose intolerance)

Protein catabolism
- periph muscle wasting

Impaired immunity

Enhance catecholamine activity
- HTN

606
Q

Whcih cushings syndromes do you see masculinization?

A

ACTH secreting adenoma

Ectopic ACTH

607
Q

Pheochromocytoma

  • features
  • labs
A

Features

  • HTN
  • headache
  • sweating
  • tachy, palps
  • anxiety

Labs

  • HYPER glycemia, lipidemia
  • HYPO K
608
Q

Rule of 10s for pheochromocytomas

A

FaCEBk Me

10% are...
Familial
Children
Extraadrenal
Bilateral
Malignant
609
Q

Are plasma or serum emtanephrines better for pheo dx?

A

Plasma

610
Q

What does it mean if epi levels are high in suspected pheochromocytoma?

A

Tumor is in adrenal or near adrenal (organ of zuckerandl at aortic bifurcation)

Nonadreanal tumors can’t methylate norepi –> epi

611
Q

MEN I

A

Parathyroid hyperplasia
Pancreatic islet cell tumor - ZE, insulinoma
Pituitary tumors

612
Q

MEN IIa

A

Medullary thyroid carcionma
Pheochromocytoma
Parathyroid

613
Q

MEN IIb

A

Mucosal neuromas + Marfanoid habitus
Medullary thryoid carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma

614
Q

Causes of primary hyper ALDO

A
  • Conn syndrome = adrenal adenoma making aldo
  • Adrenal hyperplasia
  • Adrenal carcinoma
615
Q

Dx primary hyper ALDO

A

screen w/ early AM plasma aldosterone to plasma renin activity ratio
— > 30 –> hyperaldo

Saline infusion test
- should dec aldo but won’t in primary aldo

Oral sodium loading

  • high NaCl diet for 3 days
  • High urine aldo + high urine Na = primary aldo
616
Q

Why is it impt to differentiate adrenal adenoma from hyperplasa?

How do you tell the difference?

A

HTN assoc w/ hyerplasia NOT benefited by bilateral adrenalectomy

HTN assoc w/ adenoma is usually cured by removal of adenoma

Adrenal venous sampling for aldo levels

  • high aldo on one side indicates adenoma
  • high level on both sides = bilateral hyperplasia
617
Q

1 cause of Addison’s disease worldwide?

A

Addison - TB

Insufficiency - exogenous glucocorticoids, abrupt stop in usage

618
Q

Clinical findings of adrenal insufficiency

A
Wt loss
Weakness
Pigmentation
Anorexia
Nausea
Postural HYPO TN
Ab pain
Hypo glycemia
619
Q

What appears in primary but not secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Hyperpigmentation

Hyperkalemia

620
Q

Alcoholic liver cirrhosis

- Labs

A

Labs

  • AST > ALT by 2x BUT usually less than 500 IU/L. If more, some other hepatic injury happened
  • modest hepatic transaminitis
  • modest inc GGT
621
Q

Why does AST increase more than ALT in alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Hepatic deficiency of pyridoxal-6-P, a cofactor for ALT enzymatic activity

622
Q

Pleural fluid studies in pleural effusion

- what studies tell you when you need a chest tube?

A

pH

  • low pH usually means empyema
  • need thoracostomy w/ low pH

Glucose

  • need thoracostomy w/ low glucose
  • low in RA, TB, empyema, malignancy, esophageal rupture

Protein

Gm stain

Cell count

Cytology

623
Q

Empyema

A

collection of pus within a naturally existing anatomical cavity, such as the lung pleura

Usually in context of pneumonia

+ empyema if:

  • has pus
  • has + gm stain
  • has pH < 7.2 but serum pH is normal
624
Q

Blood in urine

  • at beginning of stream
  • at end of stream
  • throughout stream
A

Beg:
- injury in urethra (urethriti, for ex)

End:
- disease in prostate or bladder

All throughout:
- Ureter or kidney disease

625
Q

Polyarthralgia
Tenosynovitis
Painless vesiclopustural skin lesions

A

Dissemnated gonococcal infection

626
Q

What side of the heart is most restrictive cardiomyopathy on?

A

Right

627
Q

When is it best to use bronchoalveolar lavage?

A

Eval suspected malignancy and opportunistic infection (eg PCP)

628
Q

Bilateral sacroilitis
LImited spine mobilit > 3 mo duration
20-30 yo

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

629
Q

Modified acid-fast stin showing oocysts in stool suggestive of…

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

Isosporal belli (not as common in US)

630
Q

Presence of spores in stool

Severe malabsorption and persistent diarrhea in HIV pts

A

Microsporidia
Enterocytozoon bieneusi
Encephalitozoon intestinalis

631
Q

Symptoms of intracranial hypertension (> 20 mm Hg)

A
Headaches worse in AM
N/V early in day
Vision changes
Papilledema
Cranial nerve deficits
Somnolence
Confusion
Unsteadiness
Cushing's reflex (hypertension and bradycardia)
632
Q

New onset RBBB can suggest….

A

PE

633
Q

Dietary recommendation for pts w/ renal calculi

A
  1. Decreased dietary protein and oxalate
  2. Decreased sodium intake
  3. Increased fluid intake
  4. Increased dietary calcium

Vit C will increase oxalate stone formation – don’t take too much! Esp if have renal failure

634
Q

Herpetic whitlow

A

Common viral infection of hand

Caused by HSV1 or 2

Self limiing

Health care workers coming in direct contact w/ infected orotracheal secretions are at high risk of developing whitlow

635
Q

Most important cause of torsades de pointes

A

Hypo Mg

636
Q

Prolonged QRS suggests…

Prolonged QT suggests…

A

QRS:bradyarrhythmia (eg BBB)

QT: tachyarrhythmia

637
Q

Older pt with new diagnosed achalasia + wt loss - what do you do next for the pt?

A

Endoscopy

Achalasia could be secondary to systemic diseases (Chagas, amyloidosis, sarcoid) or due to mass at GE junction
Use endo to rule out mass!

638
Q

Dawn phenomenon vs. Somogyi effect

A

Both cause morning hyperglycemia

Dawn - due to inc in nocturnal secretion of GH

Somogyi - rebound response to nocturnal hypoglycemia –> morning hyperglycemia

639
Q

Diagnosis of diabetes

A

1 of the following:

  • 2 fasting glucose > 125 mg/dL
  • 1 gluc level = 200 mg/dL w/ symptomes
  • Inc gluc level on oral gluc tolerance testing
  • HbA1c > 6.5%
640
Q

Optimal tx for DM type 2 pts

A

Glycemic control

BP < 130/85

LDL < 100, HDL > 40

Smoking cessation

Daily aspirin (if not contraindicated)

641
Q

1 COD in diabetic patients

A

Coronary artery disease

642
Q

Autonomic neuropathy of DM

A

Impotence in men

Neurogenic bladder - retention, incontinence

Gastroparesis - chronic N/V, early satiety

Constipation and diarrhea

Postural hypoTN

643
Q

Defense against HYPOglycemia

A

Insulin decreases
Glucagon increases
Epinephrine increases next
Cortisol also helps

Glucose < 50 –> symptoms

644
Q

Main organ at risk w/ hypoglycemia

A

Brain

Brain can’t use free fatty acids as energy source

645
Q

Hypoglycemic unawareness

A

Diabetics w/ severe neuropathy –> autonomic response (epi) to decreased glucose is not activated
- these reactions are supposed to be sweating, tremors, increased BP and pulse, anxiety, palps

Can lead to neuroglycopenic symptoms
- headache, visual distrubances, confusion , seizures, coma

Therefore, if hypoglycemic, can go into seizure or coma

646
Q

Whipple’s triad

A

Used to dx Insulinoma

Hypoglycemic sx broung on by fasting
Blood glucose < 50 during symptomatic attack
Glucose admin brings relief of sx

647
Q

Where are most gastrinomas?

A

Gastrinoma triangle

  • cystic duct (superior)
  • junction of 2nd and 3rd duodenum portions (inferior)
  • neck of pancreas (medially)
648
Q

Dx Zollinger Ellison syndrome

A

Secretin injection test

  • usually prevents gastrin secretion
  • ZES, gastrin will increase a lot after secretin
649
Q

Glucagonoma manifestations

A
Necrotizing migratory erythema (below waist)
Glossitis
Stomatitis
BM
Hyperglycemia
650
Q

Somatostatinoma features

A

Malignant, poor prognosis

Gallstones
Diabetes
Steatorrhea

651
Q

VIPoma features

A

Watery diarrhea –> dehydration, hypo K, acidosis
Achlorhydria (VIP —| gastric secretion)
Hyperglycemia
Hypercalcemia

652
Q

Bartonella henselae

  • features
  • treatment
A

Localized cutaneous and lymph node d/o near site of inoculum

Vesicular, erythematous and papular phases - can be pustular or nodular

Dx w/ clinical or + B henselae antibody test or tissue w/ + Warthin-Starry stain

Tx azithromycin

653
Q

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

  • features
  • vs. Stevens Johnson?
  • drug causing
A

Erythematous mobilliform eruption —-> exfoliation of skin (+ Nikolsky’s sign)

> 30% of body skin involved

10% involved only in SJS

Oral mucosa has blisters

Common drug causes:
sulfa
barbs
phenytoin
NSAIDs
654
Q

Best imaging for vertebral osteo

A

MRI

can also see if there is abscess or cord compression

655
Q

Most common site of ulnar nerve entrapment

A

Elbow, medial to epicondylar groove

656
Q

Gene mutation for hemochromatosis

A

AR disease

C282Y on chromosome 6

657
Q

Complications of GCA

A
Aortic aneurysms (do serial CXR)
Blindness
658
Q

Causes of membranous glomerulonephritis

A
Hep B, C
Syphilis
Gold
Penicillamine
SLE
Rheumatoid
659
Q

What bacteria can cause food poisoning in short time?

How do you tell the difference between what bacteria it is?

A

Bacteria w/ PREFORMED toxins

  • Staph aureus
  • B. cereus

Tell by what food the person ate

Staph:

  • poultry and eggs
  • meats
  • mayos
  • pastries
  • milk and daily

B. cereus:
- starchy foods (rice)

660
Q

Generalized myxedema of hypothyroidism

- where can it go?

A

Deposition of mucopolysaccharides (matrix substances, mucin)

  • perineurium of median nerve and tendons passing through carpal tunnel
  • skin
  • heart
  • nerves
661
Q

Carpal tunnel due to deposition of substances. What do you see this in?

A

Hypothyroidism

Dialysis (beta-2-microglobulin)

662
Q

Accumulation of fluid in carpal tunnel can cause carpal tunnel syndrome. When does this happen?

A

Preggers

3rd trimester

663
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome due to:

  • tenosynovial inflammation
  • synovial tendon hyperplasia

When do each happen?

A

Tenosynovial - RA

Hyperplasia - acromegaly

664
Q

Essential measures in managemetn of DKA

A

Restore intravascular volume
- NS

Correct hyperglycemia
- Regular insulin IV

Correct electrolyte abnormalities
- K correction crucial

Tx precipitating factors
- use antibiotics for infections

665
Q

Baker cyst

A

Assoc w/ RA

Tender mass in popliteal fossa

Happen b/c excessive fluid production by inflamed synovium

Can burst and look like a thrombophlebitis (DVT)

666
Q

Heart burn, wt loss, chest pain unrelated to eating, dysphagia, regurg of food

What is this?

A

Esophageal cancer, most likely

Use barium swallow, EGD and biopsy, and PET scan to evaluate

667
Q

Common etiologies of constrictive pericarditis

A

Idiopathic
Viral
Cardiac surgery and radiation therapy
TB pericarditis

668
Q

Clinical presentation of constrictive pericarditis

A

Fatigue and dypsnea on exertion
Periph edema and ascites
Increased JVP
Pericardial knock

669
Q

Diagnostic findings of contrictive pericarditis

A

Increased pericardial thickening and calcification

Prominent x and y descents on JVP

670
Q

How do you first evaluate pts w/ probably prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Hx

Rectal exam

Urinalysis

Serum Cr measurement —-> if increased, US of kidneys or CT of abdomen for reason for obstruction, hydronephrosis or underlying renal disease

671
Q

1 middle ear pathology in pts w/ acquired immunodeficiency

A

serous otitis media

conductive hearing loss

dull tympanic membrane that is hypomobile

672
Q

How best do you alter course of diabetic NEPHROpathy once azotemia occurs?

A

Intensive BP control

< 130/80

ACE inhibitors preferred tx

You would want to control glucose once proteinuria/albuminuria happens

673
Q

Suddenet onse vertigo, vomiting, occipital headache in HTN pt

A

Cerebellar hemorrhage (strong suspicion)

Can also see:
6th nerve paralysis
conjugate deviation
Blepharospasm
Coma
674
Q

If a young pt presents w/ stroke, look for…

Order…

A

Vasculitis
Hypercoag state
Thrombophilia

Order
Protein C, Protein S, antiphospholipid antibodies
Factor 5 leiden mutation
ANA
ESR
Rheumatoid factor
VDRL/RPR
Lyme
TEE
675
Q

PUpillary findings in intracerebral hemorrhage and corresponding level of involvement

A

Pinpoint pupils = pons

Poorly reactive pupils = thalamus

Dilated pupils = putamen

676
Q

Top causes for COPD exacerbation

A

Smoking

Environmental pollutants/exacerbators

Pneumonia

  • S. pneumo
  • H. influenza
  • M. catarrhalis
677
Q

How do you dx renal artery stenosis?

A

Captopril renal scan

678
Q

Parkinson’s disease

  • pathophys
  • how this is logical for treatment
A

Dopaminergic path of basal ganglia is compromised
Cholinergic system operate unoppossed

Lewy bodies (hyalin inclusion bodies) are key neuronal finding in brains

Tx will enhance dopamine’s influence or inhibit Ach influence

679
Q

When do you not do a LP on a suspected SAH?

A

If slit lamp exam reveals papilledema

May cause herniation - repeat CT scan before LP

680
Q

Parkinson’s clinical features

A

Pill rolling tremor @ rest - worse w/ emotional stress - gone w/ doing tasks

Bradykinesia

Cogwheel rigidity

Shuffling gait

Expressionless facies

Dementia in advanced disease

Personality changes early on - withdrawn, apathetic, dependent, depression

681
Q

Complicated GERD

  • Manifestations
  • Diagosis
A

Manifestations

  • dyphagia
  • odynophagia
  • wt loss
  • bleeding
  • Fe deficiency anemia
  • typical sx: heartburn, regurg, bitter/sour taste

Diagnosis

  • Endoscopy (esophagoscopy)
  • —also do endo if complicated GERD or antacids/meds don’t control the codition
682
Q

Contraction alkalosis

A

Intracellular volume contraction

Increased aldo functions to restore intravascular volume but also causes increased H+ and K+ loss –> alkalosis!

683
Q

Thyroid myopathy

A
  • predminant PROXIMAL symptoms
  • can have a tremor (action)
  • can happen in hyper or hypo thyroid
684
Q

Central vs 7th nerve palsy of face

A

Central - forehead wrinkling is ok b/c LMN is bilaterally innervated by both UMN; one is knocked out, the other still works

7th nerve - LMN knocked out, doesn’t matter that it is bilateral, the signal will not go through. So forehead and lower face both out.

685
Q

Irreversible causes of dementia

A
Alzheimer's
Parkinson's
Huntington;s
Multi infarct dementia
Dementia w/ lewy bodies, Pick's disease
Unresectable brain mass
HIV dementia
Korsakoff's 
PML
CJD
686
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

Comprehension ok, can’t speak or write

Posterior part of dominant frontal lobe infarct

687
Q

WBC count in synovium of

  • crystal induced arthritis
  • septic arthritis
A

Crystal: 10-50,000

Septic: 50-150,000

688
Q

1 cause of prosthetic joint septic arthritis

A

1 -Staph aureus

2 - Strep

Salmonella can cause in elderlyand immunocompromised

689
Q

1 cause of septic arthritis in young sex active ppl

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

690
Q

Syringomyelia

  • Characteristics
  • Pathophys
  • Acquired causes
A

Areflexic wakness in upper extremities
Loss of pain and temp w/ preserved position and vibration in cape ditribution

Presence of cord cavity that communicates w/ central canal of spinal cord
Usually in lower cervical or upper thoracic region

Acquired causes:

  • trauma
  • inflammaory spinal cord d/o
  • spinal cord tumors
691
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

A
  • NO anemia, hyper Ca, lytic lesions, and renal insufficiency
  • serum monoclonal protein < 3 g / dL
  • < 10% plasma cells in bone marrow

Dx w/ metastatic skeletal bone x rays to exclude MM
1% risk of progression to MM

692
Q

Multiple Myeloma

A
  • Presence of anemia, hyper Ca, lytic lesions, and renal insufficency
  • Serum monoclonal protein > 3 g/dL
  • > 10% plasma cells in the bone marrow
  • Elevated beta-2 microglobulin
693
Q

Dx amyloidosis

A

Serum Immunoelectrophoresis (SIEP)

Biopsy ab fat pad, rectum, organ involved

694
Q

Diagnostic test to dx MS

A

MRI

  • sensitive in ID demyelinating lesions in CNS
  • # lesions on MRI NOT necessarily proportional to disease severity or speed of progression
695
Q

Gm - bacteria causing pneumonia

A
E coli
klebs
Pseudomonas
Enterobacter
Proteus
Serratia
Acinetobacter

Rare in healthy individuals

696
Q

What space in the neck carries the highest risk of spreading an infection to the mediastinum?

A

Retropharyngeal space

  • between alar and prevetebral fascia
697
Q

Complication of infection in paapharngeal space

A

Involvement of the carotid sheath –> erosion of carotid artery and jugular thrombohlebitis

698
Q

What does it mean when it says toe webs are fissured and macerated?

A

Tinea pedis!

699
Q

Complication of infection in paapharngeal space

A

Involvement of the carotid sheath –> erosion of carotid artery and jugular thrombohlebitis

700
Q

What does it mean when it says toe webs are fissuredand macerated?

A

Tinea pedis!

701
Q

Top causes for COPD exacerbation

A

Smoking

Environmental pollutants/exacerbators

702
Q

Gold std for dx SAH

A

Xanthochromia

- results from RBC lysis and implies blood has been in CSF for hours and not due to traumatic tab

703
Q

Parkinson’s disease

  • pathophys
  • how this is logical for treatment
A

Dopaminergic path of basal ganglia is compromised
Cholinergic system operate unoppossed

Tx will enhance dopamine’s influence or inhibit Ach influence

704
Q

When do you not do a LP on a suspected SAH?

A

If slit lamp exam reveals papilledema

May cause herniation - repeat CT scan before LP

705
Q

Parkinson’s clinical features

A

Pill rolling tremor @ rest - worse w/ emotional stress - gone w/ doing tasks

Bradykinesia

Cogwheel rigidity

Shuffling gait

Expressionless facies

Dementia in advanced disease

Personality changes early on - withdrawn, apathetic, dependent, depression

706
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy

A

Degenerative condition of

  • brainstem
  • basal ganglia
  • cerebellum

Like parkinson’s:

  • bradykinesia
  • limb rigidity
  • cognitive decline

NOT like parkinson’s

  • no tremor
  • ophthalmoplegia
707
Q

Huntington’s

- pathyophys

A

Autosomal dominant, chromosome 4 trinucleotide repeat

Loss of GABA producing neurons in striatum

708
Q

Huntington’s

  • clinical features
  • diagnosis w/….
A

Chorea
Altered behavior - irritable, personality changes, psychosis, OCD

Dx w/ MRI - atroph of head of caudate
- DNA testing confirms diagnosis

709
Q

Seizure causes

A

4M’s, 4I’s

Metabolic / electolyte disturbances - hypo Na, water intox, hypo glycemia, hyperglycemia, HYPO Ca, uremia, thyroid storm, hyperthermia

Mass lesions - brain mets, tumors

Missing drugs

  • noncompliance w/ antiseizures
  • w/d from EtOH, benzos, barbs

Misc

  • Eclampsia
  • HTN encephalopathy

Intoxications - cocaine, lithium, lidocaine, theophylline, Mercury, lead, CO

Infections - septic shock, meningitis, brain abscess

Ischemia - stroke, TIA

Increased ICP - trauma

710
Q

Alzheimer’s pathophys

A

Decreased Ach synth –> impaired cortical cholinergic function

Diffuse cortical atrophy on CT or MRI

711
Q

Features of Cushings

A
Central obesity
Hirsutisum
Moon facies
Buffalo hump
Purple striae on abdomen
Lanugo hair
Acne
Easy bruising
HTN
Diabetes
Hypogonadism
Masculinization in fems
Proximal muscle wasting and weakness
Osteoporosis
Aseptic necrosis of femoral head

Depression
Mania

Decreased immunity

712
Q

What is arousal dependent on? Cognition?

A

Arousal - Intact brainstem
- reticular activating system in brainstem

Cognition - cerebral cortex

713
Q

Causes of delirium

A

SMASHED (Coma) + P DIMM WIT

Postop state

Dehydration and malnutrition

Infection

Meds - TCAs, steroids, anticholinergics, hallucinogens, cocaine

Metals

W/D states

Inflammation, fever

Trauma, burns

714
Q

DDx of coma or stupor

A

SMASHED

Structural brain pathology (stroke, bleed, tumor)

Meningitis, mental illness

Alcohol, acidosis

Seizures, substrate deficiency (thiamine)

Endocrine (Addisonian crisis, thyrotoxicosis, hypoTH), encephalitis, extreme disturbances in Ca, Mg, PO4

Drugs (opiates, barbs, benzos, sedatives), dangerous compounds (CO, CN, MeOH)

715
Q

Unilateral fixed dilated pupil

A

Herniation w/ CN III compression

This is anisocoria

716
Q

Spinal lesion - how can you tell it is in the spinal cord?

A

Decrease in sensation below a sharp band in the abdomen/trunk

Pinprick felt above level but not below it

Pathognomonic for spinal cord disease

Level of lesion = sensory level

717
Q

Intranuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

Strongly assoc w/ MS

Lesion in MLF –>
= ipsilateral medial rectus palsy on attempted lateral gaze (can’t adduct)
= horizontal nystagmus of abducting eye (contralateral to size of lesion)

718
Q

Diagnostic test to dx MS

A

MRI

  • sensitive in ID demyelinating lesions in CNS
  • # lesions on MRI NOT necessarily proportional to disease severity or speed of progression
719
Q

Guillain Barre

  • characteristics
  • treatment
A

Inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy - ascending paralysis/weakness

Usually follows infection: C. jejuni, Herpes, Mycoplasma, H. influenzae, HIV

Tx:

  • NOT steroids b/c can be harmful
  • monitor pulmonary function
  • IV IgG if pt has significant weakness
  • plasmaphoresis
720
Q

Principles of using Ultrasound

A

Images muscle, soft tissue, bone surfaces very well - can delineate interfaces b/n solid and fluid filled spaces
- shos structures of organs

Has trouble penetrating bone
- has difficulty if there is gas b/n transducer and organ of interest (eg seeing pancreas under the bowel is hard)

721
Q

Clinical features of neonatal lupus

A

Skin lesions

Cardiac abnormalities (AV block, transposition of great vessels)

Valvular and septal defects

Increased risk for neonatal SLE if have anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies

722
Q

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

  • pathophys
  • lab values
A

X linked recessive - mutation on gene coding for dystrophin protein –> muscle cells die then
No inflammation

Labs:
- Serum CPK HIGH

723
Q

Tuberous sclerosis

A

AD

Cognitive impairment
Epilepsy
Facial angiofibromas, adenoma sebaceum

Retinal hamartomas
Renal angiomyolipomas
Rhabdoomyomas of heart

724
Q

Sruge Weber

A
Acquired disease
Presence of capillary angiomatoses of pia mater
Facial vascular nevi (port wine stain)
Epilepsy and mental retardation
- tx epilepsy mainly
725
Q

+ Ro (SS-A) and La (SS-B)

A
Sjogren's
Subacute cutaneous
Neonatal lupus
Complement deficiency
ANA negative lupus
726
Q

Horner’s syndrome

A

Ipsilateral -
ptosis
miosis
anhidrosis

Causes:

  • pancoast
  • internal carotid dissection
  • brainstem stroke
  • cervical spine injury
727
Q

Poliomyelitis

A
  • Anterior horn cells and motor neurons of spinal cord and brainstem involved
  • LMN involvement

Asymmetrical muscle weakness
Normal sensation

728
Q

Peripheral vs central vertigo

A

Periph
- hearing loss and tinnitus only occur here

Central
- focal neuro problems only occur here

729
Q

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies HLA

A

HLA B27

730
Q

Difference between lupus and drug-induced lupus

A

NO Renal or CNS involvement in drug induced lupus

- also no butterfly rash, alopecia, and ulcers

731
Q

Pathophys of scleroderm

A

Cytokines stimulate fibroblasts –> abnormal amt of collagen deposition

It is quantity of collagen that causes the problems assoc w/ this disease (composition of collagen is normal)

732
Q

Most important thing to do in syncope workup

A

Differentiate b/n cardiac and noncardiac causes

Always get an EKG

733
Q

Seizure causes

A

4M’s, 4I’s

Metabolic / electolyte disturbances - hypo Na, water intox, hypo glycemia, hyperglycemia, HYPO Ca, uremia, thyroid storm, hyperthermia

Mass lesions - brain mets, tumors

Missing drugs

  • noncompliance w/ antiseizures
  • w/d from EtOH, benzos, barbs

Misc

  • Eclampsia
  • HTN encephalopathy

Intoxications - cocaine, lithium, lidocaine, theophylline, Mercury, lead, CO

Infections - septic shock, meningitis, brain abscess

Ischemia - stroke, TIA

Increased ICP - trauma

734
Q

When do you tx a person who has 1st seizure

A

DO NOT Tx

Tx w/ antieplipetics if
EEG abnormal
brain MRI abnormal
Patient is in status epilepticus

735
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - features

A

D/o of anterior horn cells and corticospinal tracts

UMN and LMN signs

Progressive muscle weakness noticed 1st in legs or arms
Fasiculations
Impaired speech and swallowing
Respiratory muscle weakness
Wt loss, fatigue
OK throughout:
bladder, bowel
sensation
cognition
EOM
sex functions
736
Q

Features of Cushings

A
Central obesity
Hirsutisum
Moon facies
Buffalo hump
Purple striae on abdomen
Lanugo hair
Acne
Easy bruising
HTN
Diabetes
Hypogonadism
Masculinization in fems
Proximal muscle wasting and weakness
Osteoporosis
Aseptic necrosis of femoral head

Depression
Mania

Decreased immunity

737
Q

Sjogren’s classic triad

A

Can’t see, can’t spit, can’t climb a tree

Xerophthalmia
Xerostomia
Arthritis

738
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

Expressive, nonfluent aphasia
Speech is slow and needs effort
Good comprehension of language

739
Q

COnduction aphasia

A

Can’t repeat

Pathology involves connections b/n Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas

740
Q

Global aphasia

A

Disturbance in all areas of language function

Often assoc w/ R hemiparesis (damage of L hemisphere)

741
Q

Spinal lesion - how can you tell it is in the spinal cord?

A

Decrease in sensation below a sharp band in the abdomen/trunk

Pinprick felt above level but not below it

Pathognomonic for spinal cord disease

Level of lesion = sensory level

742
Q

Principle of imaging of MRI

A

Good for tissues w/ many H nuclei and little density contrast

Good to detect differences between 2 similar but not identical tissues

Brain
Muscle
Connective tissue
Most tumors

743
Q

Principles of imaging of CT scans

A

CT of the head

  • detects infarction, tumors, calcifications, hemorrhage, bone trauma
  • dark structure = infarction and edema
  • bright structure = calcifications and blood
744
Q

Causes of

  • dematomyositis
  • polymyositis
  • inclusion body myositis
A

derm - humoral immune response

poly - cell mediated process

inclusion body - cell mediated process

745
Q

Fibromyalgia

A

Multiple trigger points (tender to palpation)
11/18 to diagnose

Stiffness, body aches, fatigue, sleep disrupted, anxiety, depression

746
Q

Clinical features of neonatal lupus

A

Skin lesions

Cardiac abnormalities (AV block, transposition of great vessels)

Valvular and septal defects

747
Q

Positive ANA conditions

A
SLE
RA
Scleroderm
Sjogren's syndrome
Mixed connective tissue disease
Polymyositis and dermatomyositis
Drug-induced lupus
748
Q

Risks for skin cancer

A

Recent changed mole - 10x
Family hx melanoma - 8x
Sun sensitivity - 2x
Previous sunburns - 2x

749
Q

Graft vs host disease

A

Common after bone marrow transplatntation

T cell mediated immune response by donor

Targets

  • skin
  • intestine
  • liver
750
Q

+ Ro (SS-A) and La (SS-B)

A

Sjogren’s
Subacute cutaneous
Neonatal lupus

751
Q

SLE HLA

A

HLA DR2, 3

752
Q

Sjogren’s HLA

A

HLA DR3

753
Q

RA HLA

A

HLA DR4

754
Q

Facticious diarrhea (laxative abuse)

A

Watery
Increase in freq and vol of stool
10-20 bowel mvmts / day

Characteristic biopsy finding:

  • dark brown discoloration of colon w/ lymph follicles shining through as pale patches (melanosis coli)
  • can return to normal after laxative
755
Q

Difference between lupus and drug-induced lupus

A

NO Renal or CNS involvement in drug induced lupus

- also no butterfly rash, alopecia, and ulcers

756
Q

Pathophys of scleroderm

A

Cytokines stimulate fibroblasts –> abnormal amt of collagen deposition

It is quantity of collagen that causes the problems assoc w/ this disease (composition of collagen is normal)

757
Q

Ways to Dx sjogren’s

A

ANA, Anti-Ro, Anti-La

Schirmer test - filter paper to measure lacrimal gland output

Salivary gland biopsy (lip or parotid)

758
Q

If someone has dysphagia to solids only, what test do you do to eval?

A

Barium esophagram w/ tablet

Liquid barium may not see obstruction

759
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis clinical features

A

Inflammatory polyarthritis

  • NO DIP joints
  • PIP, MCP, wrists, knees, ankles, elbows
  • ulnar deviation of MCP
  • Boutonniere deformities of PIP joints
  • Swan neck deformities of MCP

Morning stiffness
Constitutional symptoms

Cervical spine involvement - life threatening

Pericarditis, conduction abnormalities, valvular incompetence

Pleural effusions (low glucose)

Episcleritis, scleritis

760
Q

Poor prognostic indicators in RA

A

High RF titers
SubQ nodules
Erosive arthritis
Autoantibodies to RF

761
Q

Antibodies in RA

Radiologic findings

A

rheumatoid factor

Anti citrullinated protein antibody

Erosions + periarticular osteoporosis

762
Q

Sjogren’s classic triad

A

Can’t see, can’t spit, can’t climb a tree

Xerophthalmia
Xerostomia
Arthritis

763
Q

Pathogenesis of gout

A

Increased prod of uric acid

  • HGPRT deficiency
  • PRPP synthetase overactivity
  • chemo, hemolysis, heme malignancies

Decreased excretion of uric acid

  • renal disease
  • NSAIDs, diuretics
  • Acidosis
764
Q

Pathophys of gout

A

ECF saturated with uric acid –>
uric acid crystals collect in synovial fluid –>
IgGs coat monosodium urate crystals – >
phagocytosed by PMNs –>
release inflammatory mediators and protelytic enzymes from PMNs –>
Inflammation

765
Q

Tophi

A

Happens w/ uncontrolled gout for > 10 years

Aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by giant cells in an inflammatory reaction

Common locations:

  • forearms
  • elbows
  • knees
  • achilles tendons
  • pinna of external ear
766
Q

Diagnosis of gout

A

Joint aspiration + synovial fluid analysis
- needle shaped and negatively birefringent urate crystals

Radiographs
- punched out erosions w/ overhanging rim of cortical bone

767
Q

Pseudogout vs. gout

A

Different crystals

Pseudogout usually in larger joints (knee)

Pseudogout classically monoarticular

768
Q

Pseudogout Dx

A

Joint aspirate
- weakly + biregringent rhomboid crystals (calcium pyrophosphate)

Radiograph
- chondrocalcinosis (cartilage calcification)

769
Q

Causes of

  • dematomyositis
  • polymyositis
  • inclusion body myositis
A

derm - humoral immune response

poly - cell mediated process

inclusion body - cell mediated process

770
Q

Fibromyalgia

A

Multiple trigger points (tender to palpation)
11/18 to diagnose

Stiffness, body aches, fatigue, sleep disrupted, anxiety, depression

771
Q

Test to confirm prostatitis

A

Mid-stream urine sample

Give antibiotics

Prostate is tender and boggy

772
Q

Treatment for acute mechanical back pain

A

Without significant neuro deficit
- mobilization + NSAIDs (not bedrest)

W/ lots of neuro deficit
- early surgical decompression

773
Q

Risks for skin cancer

A

Recent changed mole - 10x
Family hx melanoma - 8x
Sun sensitivity - 2x
Previous sunburns - 2x

774
Q

Graft vs host disease

A

Common after bone marrow transplatntation

T cell mediated immune response by donor

Targets

  • skin
  • intestine
  • liver
775
Q

Methanol vs ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Methanol damages vision

Ethylene glycol damages kidneys

  • oxalic acid binds ca –> hypoCa and Ca-oxylate crystal deposits
  • Glycolic acid injures the renal tubules
776
Q

Pancreatic cancer clinical features

  • tumor in body/tail
  • tumor in head
A

Body/tail - pain adn wt loss

Head - stetorrhea, wt loss, jaundice

777
Q

Most sensitive screen for diabetic nephropathy

A

Random urine for microalbumin/creatinine ratio

24 hr collection best but inconvenient

778
Q

Dx rotator cuff tear

A

MRI

779
Q

Facticious diarrhea (laxative abuse)

A

Watery
Increase in freq and vol of stool
10-20 bowel mvmts / day

Characteristic biopsy finding:

  • dark brown discoloration of colon w/ lymph follicles shining through as pale patches (melanosis coli)
  • can return to normal after laxative
780
Q

Dx acute aortic dissection

A

TEE

CT w/ contrast

781
Q

Rotator cuff tear vs .tendonitis

A

Happens usually w/ fall out on outstretched hand

Shoulder pain and weakness

Tendonitis is helped by lidocaine injection - tear is not

782
Q

Which pleura has nerve endings that give you pleuritic pain?

A

Parietal pleura

783
Q

If someone has dysphagia to solids only, what test do you do to eval?

A

Barium esophagram w/ tablet

Liquid barium may not see obstruction

784
Q

Fulminant liver failure

A

no previous liver disease +
Jaundice +
hepatic encephalopathy

785
Q

When monitoring DKA, and response to treatment, what is most reliable index to monitor response to tx?

A

Serum anion gap
pH

Fall in serum and urinary ketones lags behind changes in arterial pH or anion gap

786
Q

1 macrocytic d/o in sickle cell disease

A

Folate deficiency

787
Q

Causes of toxic megacolon

A

ulcerative colitis

CMV colitis in HIV pts

788
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

Irreversible amnesia
Confabulation
Apathy

789
Q

Indicators for surgery in pts w/ aortic stnosis

A

SAD -
Syncope
Angina
Dyspnea (from CHF)

Pts w/ severe AS going for CABG

Asymptomatic pts w/ severe AS + poor LV sys function, LV hypertrophy ? 15 mm, valve area < 0.6 cm2 or abnormal response to exercise

790
Q

When should DM screening start?

A

age 45 w/ no risk factors

earlier if have risk factors

791
Q

Managing dysphagia/odynophagia in HIV pts

A

1 cause of ulcerative esophagitis = CMV

#1 cause of this is candida
- 1-2 wk course empiric oral fluconazole

If doesn’t work…endoscopy to investigate other etiologies

792
Q

CMV esophatitis

A

Evidence of large, shallow superficial ulcerations

Focal substernal burning pain w/ odynophagia

Presence of intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions

Tx = ganciclovir

793
Q

HSV esophagitis

A

Multiple, small, well circumscribed w/ small and deep appearance of ulcers

Cells show ballooning degeneration + eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions

Tx = acyclovir

794
Q

Cancer assoc w/ pernicious anemia

A

Gastric intestinal-type cancer

Gastric carcinoid tumors

795
Q

Pathophys of senile purpura

A

These are ecchymotic lesions in areas susceptible to trauma in elderly

Happens b/c perivascular CT atrophies as ppl age

No tx needed

796
Q

Lupus anticoagulant

A

IgM or IgG that PROLONGS activated PTT

  • binds phospholipids used in assay
  • it is NOT an anticoagulant though and increases risk of thrombosis and spontaneous abortion
797
Q

How do you change the urine pH to prevent gouty attacks?

A

Urine alkalinization

798
Q

Spinal stenosis

A

Pain is posture-dependent

Flexion of spine = widening of canal
Extension - narrowing of canal

Pain exacerbated by standing still, walking
Pain improved by sitting, lying down

Normal arterial pulses
Straight leg test negative

Dx w/ MRI

Tx laminectomy

799
Q

Herniated disc

A

Low back pain sciatica presentation
- radiates to thighs adn below knee

Pain worsens w/ sitting

+ straight leg test

800
Q

PFTs of COPD

A

Decreased

  • VC
  • FEV1 / FVC

Increased

  • functional residual capacity
  • total lung capacity
801
Q

Nephrotic syndrome - etiology of hypercoagulation

A
Loss of antithrombin 3 in urine
altered levels of protein C and S
Increased platelet aggregation
Hyperfibrinogenemia b/c increased hepatic synth
Impaired fibrinolysis

RENAL VEIN thrombosis most common manifestation of coagulopathy

802
Q

Complications of nephrotic sydnrome

A

Protein malnutrition
Fe-resistant microcytic hypochromic anemia b/c lose transferrin
Vit D deficiency b/c lose cholechalciferol-binding protein
Decreased thyroixin levels b/c loss of TBG
Increased susceptibility to infection

803
Q

Solitary nodule that is….on CXR:

  • popcorn calcification
  • bulls eye
A

Popcorn - hamartoma

Bulls eye - granuloma

804
Q

How can TIA produce syncope?

A

This is rare

Needs to affect posterior circulation and brain stem in order for syncope to occur

805
Q

Pt receives transfusion - then in 1 hr, gets fever, chills, flank pain, hemoglobinuria. What happeend?

A

Acute hemolytic transusion reaction

ABO mismatching from clinical error or blood mistyping

hemoglobinuria present!!

Can get DIC, acute renal fail, shock
Tx - supportive

806
Q

Pt receives transfusion - fevers, chills, malaise. What happened?

A

Reaction to cytokines in transfused blood products
OR
Antibodies in pt’s plasma reacting w/ donor’s leukocytes

Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

Prevent using leukoreduced blood prods (wash RBCs)

807
Q

Pt receives tranfusion - within seconds - minutes, gets anaphylactic reaction. What happened?

A

IgA deficiency

808
Q

CMV vs. EBV mononucleosis

A

Both
- atypical lymphocytes (large, basophilic w/ vacuolated appearance)

CMV only:

  • no pharyngitis
  • no cervical lymphadenopathy
  • negative monospot test
809
Q

Bartter syndrome

A

Polyuria, polydipsia, growth and mental retardation
- usually presents early but can present late

Defective Na and Cl reabsorb in TAL
Causes hypovolemia –> activates RAAS
Increased urine Cl level

810
Q

Gitelman syndrome

A

Defect in DCT in reabsorb Na and Cl
Causes hypovolemia –> activates RAAS
Increased urine Cl level

811
Q

1 complication of PUD

A

Hemorrhage - upper GI bleed

812
Q

Shifts K+ out of cell (causing hyperkalemia)

A

DO Insulin LAB

Digitalis
HyperOsmolarity
Insulin deficiency
Lysis of cells
Acidosis
B-adrenergic antagonist
813
Q

Shifts K+ into cell (causing hypokalemia)

A

Hypoosmolarity
Insulin (increases Na/K ATPase)
Alkalosis
B-adrenergic agonist

INsulin shifts K INto cells

814
Q

Renal Cell carcionma (RCC) paraneoplastic conditions

A
Anemia / erythrocytosis
Thrombocytosis
Fever
Hyper Ca
Cachexia
815
Q

Dx RCC

A

CT scan of abdomen

816
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

  • cause
  • pathophys
  • symptoms
  • dx
A

JC virus (polyomavirus)

Loves cortical white matter

Onset of symptoms gradual
- hemiparesis, distrubances in speech, vision, gait

MRI confirms diagnosis
- multiple demyelinating, nonenhancing lesions w/ no mass effects

No tx available

817
Q

Most common mass lesion in HIV pts

A

2 = primary CNS lymphoma

Cerebral toxo

Both are ring enhancing lesions
Toxo loves basal ganglia
Lymphoma loves periventricular

818
Q

Dizziness vs vertigo

A

Dizziness - imbalance and unsteadiness
Vertigo - illusion of head mvmt, head spinning
- actute vertigo usually due to dysfunction of labyrinth

819
Q

Leukomoid reaction

  • what is it?
  • whcat can it look like?
  • how do you tell the difference?
A

Marked increase in leukocytes due to severe infection or inflammation

Key is increased leukocyte ALP (LAP)

It can look like CML
- LAP is decreased in CML though

820
Q

Nontender gallbladder + biliary obstruction evident on US + direct bilirubin elevation + disproportionate elevation of ALP

What is this? How do I eval it?

A

Pancreatic cancer

CT of the abdomen

821
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

1 malignant tumor of eyelid (lower margin)

Slow growing papule w/ pearly, rolled borders and overlying telangiectasia

Tx w/ surgical excision using microscopically-controlled margins (Mohs technique)

822
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Less common than basal
Faster growing

Often arises from precursor (eg actinic keratosis)

Usually has overlying hyperkeratosis

823
Q

Keratoacanthoma

A

Rapidly growing volcano-like nodule w/ central keratotic plug

Usually self limited but treated like SCC

824
Q

Secondary bacterial pneumonia most commonly due to

A

Strep pneumo
Staph aureus
H. influenzae

825
Q

Which is the pathogen to cause post-viral URI necrotizing pulmonary bronchopneumonia w/ multiple nodular infiltrates –> can cavitate to small abscesses?

A

Staph aureus

blood streaked sputum

826
Q

Legionnaire’s disease

A

Can cause intersitial infiltrates on CXR

827
Q

How do you see amyloidosis deposits in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Deposits are revealed under polarized light

Apple green birefringence under polarized light after staining w/ congo red

828
Q

Psammoma bodies?

A

PSMM

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Serous cystadenoma of the ovary
Meningioma
Mesothelioma

829
Q

Which thyroid carcionma has hematogenous spread?

A

Follicular thyroid cancer

830
Q

Carcinomas spread via….

A

Lymphatics

831
Q

Sarcomas spread via….

A

Hematogenous

832
Q

Carcinomas that love to spread hematogenously

A
RCC
HCC
Follicular thyroid carcinoma
Choriocarcionma
Prostate adenocarcionma
833
Q

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

Digital clubbing accompanied by sudden-onset arthropathy, commonly affecting wrist and hands

Can be attributed to pulm etiologies like:
lung cancer
TB
Bronchiectasis
Emphysema
834
Q

HNPCC Amsterdam Criteria I

A

At least 3 relatives w/ colorectal cancer (1 is 1t degree relative of the other 1)

Involvement of >=2 generations

At least one case diagnosed before 50 yo

Family adenomatous polyposis excluded

835
Q

Which lynch syndrome is associated w/ high risk of extracolonic tumors? What is the most common extracolonic tumor?

A

Lynch syndrome II

Endometrial carcinoma

836
Q

1st line tx of anal fissure

A

Local anesthetic + stool softner + dietary modification (high fiber diet and fluids)

837
Q

Pt w/ prostate cancer who underwent orchiectomy has bone pain - mets! What do you d to manage bone pain?

A

Radiation therapy

838
Q

Caudia equina syndrome

A

Surgical emergency

Absent rectal tone
Urinary incontinence
Motor and sensory loss in extremities

839
Q

S/E of PEEP in person w/ ARDS

A

Alveolar damage
Tension pneumo
Hypotension

This happens if pressures are too high! Can rupture fragile lung parenchyma –> air leakage into pleural space

840
Q
Risk factors:
HTN
Smoking
Elevated cholesterol
Alcohol
DM

Which has highest risk for

  • CVA?
  • CAD
A

CVA –> HTN (4x risk)

CAD —> hypercholesterolemia

841
Q

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

A

DECREASE platelet count
INCREASE bleeding time

Decrease platelet survival b/c anti GpIIb/IIIa antibodies
Increased megakaryocytes on labs

842
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

DECREASE platelet count
INCREASE bleeding time

Decrease platelet survival
Deficiency of ADAMTS 13 —> decrease degradation of vWF multimers –> increase platelet aggregation and thrombosis

Labs: Schistocytes, increased LDH

Sx

  • neuro symptoms
  • renal symptoms (more in HUS)
  • fever
  • thrombocytopenia
  • microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
843
Q

What MI is most commonly assoc w/ sinus bradycardia?

Why?

A

Inferior MI

Increased vagal tone in 1st 24 hrs after infarction
Decreased RCA blood supply to SA node

844
Q

How does afib happen in grave’s? How do tx?

A

Increased sensitivity of beta-adrenoreceptors to sympathetic stimuli

Beta blocker (propanolol) to tx

845
Q

If kidneys want to icnrease bicarb retention (perhaps to fight alkalosis), what will reabsorb less?

A

Chloride

846
Q

Common fungal meningitis is AIDS pts

A

Cryptococcus

847
Q

Situational syncope

A

Middle age man
Lose consciousness after urination
Lose consciousness during coughing fits

848
Q

Grover disease

A

Acantholytic dermatosis

Pruiritus
Erythematous to brown keratotic papules over the anterior chest, upper back, and lower rib cage

Etiology unknown

849
Q

Most common electolyte abnormality in adrenal insufficiency?

How does it happen?

A

Hyponatremia

Volume contraction b/c mineralocorticoid deficiency
Increased vaspressin (ADH) b/c lack of cortisol suppression
850
Q

Features of primary hyperaldo

A

HYPER TN

HYPO K

Metabolic alkalosis

Decreased renin

Elevated aldo

851
Q

Diastolic decrescendo murmur @ L 3rd intercostal space that increases with handgril

A

Aortic regurgitation

852
Q

Corrected Ca value

  • when do you use it?
  • how does it get calculated?
A

Corrected Ca = 0.8 (normal albumin - measured albumin) + measured Ca

853
Q

Impetigo #1 cause

A

Staph aureus + Strep pyogenes

Bullous impetigo has bullae and usually Staph aureus

Nonbullous impetigo more common

854
Q

Hyperkalemia causes

A

Tumor lysis syndrome
Renal insufficiency
ACE inhibitor

855
Q

What is quickest way to decrease serum K concentration?

A

Insulin/glucose administration

856
Q

1 cause of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

TB

Autoimmune in developed countires

857
Q

Vision abnormality assoc w/ NF 1

A

Optic glioma

858
Q

Risk factors assoc w/ ab aorta aneurysm expansion and rupture

A

Large diameter

Rate of expansion

Current cigarette smoking

859
Q

Indications for surgery on AAA

A

aneurysm > 5.5 cm
Rapid rate of aneurysm expansion (> 0.5 cm in 5 mo or > 1 cm / yr)
Presence of sx (ab, back, flank pain; limb ischemia)

860
Q

PaCO2 needed to compensate for pt’s metabolic acidosis

A

PaCO2 = 1.5 (HCO3-) + 8

If CO2 lower, cannot be due to physio compensation alone - mixed acid base present

861
Q

Why is there malabsorption in ZE syndrome?

A

Inactivation of pancreatic enzymes b increased stomach acid

862
Q

Goal oxyhemoglobin saturation in COPD pts?

A

90-94%

863
Q

Glucagonoma sx

A

Hyperglycemia
Necrotizing dermatitis (erythematous plaques on skin)
Wt loss

Often mets to liver, is malignant
DOES NOT respond to chemo - need surgery

864
Q

How to tell the difference between cardiac or liver related LE edema?

A

Hepato jugular reflex

- positive in ppl w/ heart disease

865
Q

Pt presentation:

  • drank unknown bottle of lye
  • retrosternal/epigastric pain, hypersalivation, and odynophagia/dysphagia

What do you worry about?
What should you give?
How do you manage?

A

Worry a/b liquefactive necrosis of esophageal wall –> perforation and mediastinitis

Give IV hydration and get serial ab and chest XRAYS

Endoscopy to see extent of esophageal damage –> determines if need more tx

If perforation, Gastrografin study performed

DO NOT neutralize alkali w/ acid as can exacerbate injury by releasing heat

866
Q

When do you do a urine culture for a suspected cystitis?

A

When complicated.
- infections in women who are preggers, young, old, diabetic, immunocompromised, abnormal anatomy

No need for uncomplicated.

867
Q

Serum ascites albumin gradienet (SAAG)

A

Serum albumin - ascites albumin

> = 1.1 g/dl = transudative = portal HTN

868
Q

Persistent muscle pain
Gets worse w/ exercise
Joints not swollen
Palpation over affected muscles–> tenderness

ESR WNL

What does she have?

A

Fibromyalgia

Radiograph and labs have no abnormalties

869
Q

Infection that begins to drain fluid (yellow)
Gm + branching bacteria

What is it?
What do you tx with?

A

Actinomyces israelii
- sulfur granules draining

Tx w/ high dose IV penicillin for 6-12 wks

870
Q

Scrofula

A

Draining infection caused by TB

871
Q

Conditions needing hyperbaric O2 tx

A

The bends (deep sea diving)
CO poisoing
Slow healing ulcers

872
Q

Causes of primary hypo parathyroidism

A

Post surgical
- during thyroidectomy

Congenital absence of parathyroid glands
- Digeorge

Autoimmune
- In APECED syndrome = mucocutaneous candidiasis in polyglandular autoimmune endocrinopathy type 1

Defective CaSR on parathyroid glands
- pseudohypoparathyroidism

873
Q

Common causes of steppage gait/foot drop

A

Most commonly due to peripheral neuropathy

Trauma to common peroneal nerve or spinal roots contributing to peroneal nerve (L4 - S2)

Charcot Marie Tooth (congenital)

874
Q

Postoperative cholestasis

  • How does it happen?
  • How does the jaundice happen?
  • lab abnormalities
A

Benign condition happening after major surgery w/ hypoTN, lots of blood loss into tissues, massive blood replacement

Jaundice happens b/c

1) Increased pigment load (b/c of transfusion)
2) decreased liver functioning (b/c hypoTN)
3) Decreased renal bilirubin excretion (b/c tubular necrosis)

ALP very high
AST, ALT usually normal/slightly elevated

875
Q

In spinal cord injury, you need to cath a pt. What can you do to decrease UTI?

A

Intermitten cath rather than indwelling cath

Indwelling can form biofilm along catheter wall

876
Q

Type 2 diabetes w/ increasingly blurred vision over 1 week - what is happening?

A

Nonketotic hyperosmolar syndrome

Acute hyperglycemia –> cause myopic increase in lens thickness and intraocular hypoTN secondary to hyperosmolarity –> blurred vision!

877
Q

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

A

Classically affects new moms holding infants w/ thumb abducted + extended

Inflamm of abductor pollicis longus adn extensor pollicis bevis as pass through fibrous sheath at radial STYLOID process

Tenderness on direct palpation

+ Finkelstein test

878
Q

A pt has suspected bacterial pneumonia. What do you do 1st? After that?

A

CXR

Antibiotics ASAP w/o waiting for sputum Gm stain or cx

879
Q

Best way to eval liver damage in

  • acute hepatitis
  • chronic hepatitis
A

Acute - LFT, viral serology

Chronic - liver biopsy

880
Q

Types of neuropathies in diabetes mellitus

A

Symmetrical:

peripheral neuropathy

mononeuropathy

  • cranial (CN 3 most often - ischemic neuropathy, usually only motor, not PSNS b/c have diff blood supplies)
  • somatic

autonomic neuropathy

881
Q

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

  • What is it?
  • How to alleviatae?
A

1 paroacetxysmal tachy in ppl w/o structural heart disease

Usually due to re-entry into AV node

To dec conduction through AV node:

  • valsalva
  • carotid sinus massage
  • immersion in cold water
  • –> these all are vagal manuevers
882
Q

Liver cysts w/ daughter eggs

  • What is this due to
  • What occupation do you worry about this?
A

Echinococcus granulosus

Sheep farmers!

Loves to go to lungs too

883
Q

Simple renal cyst

  • what should it NOT look like
  • what is it?
A

Benign, only observation needed.

Make sure mass does not have:

  • multilocular mass
  • thickened irregular walls
  • thickened septae within mass
  • contrast enhancement
884
Q

What is Wilson’s disease assoc w/?

A

Fanconi syndrome
Hemolytic anemia
neuropathy

885
Q

How do you dx Wilson’s?

A

Liver biopsy –> hepatic cover level > 250 mg /gm dry wt

Low serum ceruloplasmin w/ high urinary Cu excretion

886
Q

Trousseau’s syndrome

A

migratory thrombophlebitis

usually due to adenocarcinoma

  • most in pancreas
  • lung
  • prostate
  • stomach
  • acute leukemia
  • colon cancer

Thrombophlebitis of atypical sites like arms and chest is impt clue to underlying carcinoma

887
Q

Smudge cells

A

CLL

888
Q

Paravertebral tenderness = ?

Spinal tenderness = ?

A

Para - lumbosacral strain

Spinal - compression fracture, etc

889
Q

Acute, afebrile, blood tinged sputum. Young pt. no smoking hx
PE revealed b/l wheezes
No findings on CXR

What is the dx?
What is the cause?

A

Acute bronchitis

Usually viral in etiology

890
Q

How to histoplasma cause cytopenias, lymphadenopathy, adn hepatospenomegaly?

A

B/c it targets histiocytes and reticuloendothelial system

891
Q

Dx herpes encephalitis

A

PCR of HSV DNA in spinal fluid is gold standard

892
Q

PPD testing

Inducation > 5 mm is + in…

A

HIV
Recent TB contact
Signs of Tb on CXR
Organ transplants, pts on immunosuppression

893
Q

PPD testing

Induration > 10 mm is + in…

A
Recent immigration from TB endemic area
IVDU
Residents/employees of high risk settings (prisons, homeless shelters)
Diabetes
CKD
Heme malignancies
Fibrotic lung disease
Kids < 4 yo, teens exposed to high risk adults
894
Q

PPD testing

Inducation > 15 mm is + in…

A

Healthy ppl w/ no TB infection risk factors

895
Q

Pts w/ hemochromatosis and cirrhosis are at increased risk of infection with…

A

Listeria monocytogenes
Yersinia enterocolitica
Vibrio vulnificus

Possibly b/c impaired phagocytosis due to iron overload in reticuloendothelial cells

896
Q

Romberg test

A

Proprioception test

Ataxia, (+) romberg = ataxia is sensory in nature
- DCMLS damaged

Ataxia, (-) romberg = cerebllar dysfunction

Romberg is NOT a test of cerebellar function

897
Q

Pronator drift

A

+ pronator = spasticity

Can happen w/ UMN lesion

If pronates, person have pronator drift on that side - tehrefore CONTRALATERAL pyramidal tract lesion

A lesion in the cerebellum = upward drift

898
Q

If history and physical suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis, how do you confirm the dx?

A

Plain film X ray demonstrating fused sacroiliac joints and/or bamboo spine

899
Q

How do you explain sx of P vera?

  • dizziness/headache
  • pruritus
  • PUD
A

Dizziness/headache - hyperviscosity

Pruirtus - increased histamine (mast cell degranulation) and prostaglandins (stimuli from RBC0

PUD - increased histmine, activates more acid prod by stomach

900
Q

TImeline to tx acute acetaminophen OD

A

If eaten within 4 hrs, can give activated charcoal

Obtain acetaminophen level @ 4 hrs (1st timepoint where hepatotoxicity evident)

Then decide to give N acetylcysteine based on result - ok if given wtihin 8 hrs of ingestion

901
Q

How does syphillis rash spread?

A

Secondary syphilis

Start on trunk –> palms and soles

902
Q

1 cause of glomerulonephritis in adults

A

IgA nephropathy

serum complement levels normal

LOW in post-strep

903
Q

If you have chronic UTI w/ Klebs, what kidney stone are you more prone to?

A

Struvite stones

904
Q

How does aspirin cause an anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

1) Uncouples ox phos –> increase rate of O2 consumption in periph tissues –> hyperpyrexia
2) Inhibits enzymes for carb and lipid metabolism –> accumulate pyruvate, lactic, and acetoacetic acid
3) Impair renal fx –> accumulate organic acids like sulfuric and phosphoric acid

905
Q

Fever, tinnitus, and tachypnea - what do you suspect?

A

Aspirin intoxication

906
Q

How does preggers or oral contraceptive increase gallstone formation?

A

Estrogen –> increase cholesterol secretion

Progesterone –> reduce bile acid secretion, slows gallbladder emptying (stasis)

907
Q

1 site of mets

A

1 - Lymph nodes

2 - Liver
–> GI, lung, breast, melanoma loves to go here

908
Q

Aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease

A

All 3 features:

ASthma
Chronic rhinosinusitis w/ nasal polyps
Bronchospasm/nasal congestion after Aspirin/NSAID use

Can also have anosmia b/c nose messed up

909
Q

What shown to prolong survival in pts w/ COPD and hypoxemia?

A

Long term supplemental O2 therapy

910
Q

What serum omsmolality does neuro manifestations happen?

A

> 310

U osm = 2 (Na) + glucose / 18 + BUN / 2.8

911
Q

Bone marrow transplant pt ~45 days s/p transplant who has lung adn intestinal pathology. What microbe is this?

A

CMV

  • pneumonitis
  • lower GI ulcers –> ab pain and diarrhea
912
Q

Suspected melanoma - what do you do to tx?

A

Excisional biopsy

After confirm dx of melanoma, excise w/ wide margins

913
Q

Melanoma - what are the work ups for diff size lesions?

A

Depth < 1 mm
- excise w/ 1 cm tumor free margin

Depth > 1 mm
- sentinel lymph node study

914
Q

Cerebellar tumor

A

Ipsilateral ataxia
Fall toward side of lesion

Nystagmus
intention tremor
ipsilateral muscular hypotonia

915
Q

Festinating, shuffling gait

A

Parkinson’s

916
Q

Broad based gait

Feet lifter higher than usual and make slapping sound w/ floor

A

Tabes dorsalis

917
Q

During walking, keep affected arm adducted adn affected leg extended
Will swing leg in semicircle

A

Hemiparetic patient from stroke

918
Q

Waddling gait

A

Muscular dystrophy

- b/c weakness of glut muscles

919
Q

Metabolic abnormalities of tumor lysis syndrome

A

Hyper PO4
Hyper K
Hyper uricemia
–> high PO4 and K b/c both intracelluar and released w/ lysis

Hypo Ca
–> decreased b/c freed PO4 binds Ca taking down the [ ]

920
Q

Age distribution of craniopharyngioma

A

Biomodal

kids
- stunted growth

age 55-65 yo
- sex dysfunction

921
Q

Presenting symptoms of craniopharyngiomas

A

Suprasellar tumors

Hypopituitarism
Headaches
Bitemporal blindness

922
Q

Mediastinal widening

A

Often in aortic dissection

923
Q

Folate vs. B12 deficiency - how do tell the difference?

A

Both have increase homocysteine

ONLY Cobalmin has elevated methylmalonic acid (folate does not convert methylmalonyl coa –> succinyl Coa)

924
Q

Type A lactic acidosis

A

Lactic acidosis from poor O2 delivery to tissues

CO poisoning
Shock

925
Q

HIV needle stick

  • what do you do?
  • how do you test?
A

Test for HIV ASAP
- repeat after 6wks, 3 mos, 6 mos

Ppx of 2-3 drugs
- 2 NRTIs + Protease inhibitor

926
Q

Difference between drug induced liver injury and isoniazid induced liver injury

A

Both have liver injury like viral hepatitis

BUT INH doesn’t have rash, arthralgias, fever, leukocytosis, eosinophilia

927
Q

Vanishing duct (ductopenia) in liver causes

A
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Failing liver transplant
Hodgkin's
GVHD
Sarcoid
CMV
HIV
Medication tox
928
Q

Characteristic LP finding of SAH

A

Xanthrochromia

Happens b/c RBC go into CSF and have time to be lysed and digested into bilirubin, thus making a yellow color

If blood in LP b/c damaged BV while doing it, would be red rather than yellow b/c not enough time to digest

929
Q

Only ilicit drug to cause vertical nystagmus

A

Phencyclidine

Use benzos to tx severe psychomotor agitation

930
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis

A

Assoc w/ parkinsonism or HIV

Fine, loose, waxy scales w/ underlying erythema on scalp, central face, presternal region, interscapular areas, umbilicus, body folds

931
Q

Type 4 RTA

A

Can happen in diabetic nephropathy

Aldo deficiency or renal tubular insensitivity to aldo

Retain K
Waste Bicarb
Nonanion gap metabolic acidosis

932
Q

How do you tell b/n cardiac and noncardiac pulmonary edema

A

PCWP

> 18 –> impaired LV function

< 18 –> noncardiac etiology (eg ARDS)

933
Q

Correcting hypernatremia

A

Usually water deficit in relation to sodium –> hypotonic fluid loss and decreased access to free water

Isotonic 0.9% saline

Once normal volume, switch to 0.45% saline

Don’t correct more than 1 mEq/L/h or cerebral edema

934
Q

What’s a quick and easy way to tell b/n COPD and asthma?

A

Bronchodilator response test

  • measure FEV1 before and after bronchodilator
  • significant FEV1 improvement –> reversible etiology –> asthma
935
Q

HIV ppx for CD4 count less than:
50
100

A

50
- Azithromycin, clarithromycin or Rifabutin for ppx against mycobacterium avium complex

100
- Itraconazole for histoplasmosis (if live in endemic area)

936
Q

What do you do for solitary brain met w/ stable extracranial disease? Multiple mets?

A

Single - surgical resection, brain radiation

Multiple - palliative whole brain radiation

937
Q

How big is a pituitary microadenoma?

A

< 10 mm in diameter

938
Q

Rabies post exposure prophylaxis

A
  1. If dog NOT captured, assume rabid
    ++++give post-exposure ppx
  2. If dog captured and NO features of rabies, keep to observe for 10 days.
    +++++see signs in dog, give post-exposure ppx immediately
  3. Post exposure ppx for bites on head and neck
939
Q

Recommendation for screening for AAA

A

65-75 yo M w/ PMH smoking benefit most from screening

Should do 1x abdominal US in pts

940
Q

What’s the logic behind the timeline for A1c showing you glucose values?

A

tells you glucose levels over past 100-120 days

This correlates w/ RBC survival time

941
Q

Person comes in w/ stroke…first thing you do?

A

CT noncontrast of the head

942
Q

Winter’s formula for PaCO2 compensation of metabolic acidosis

A

PaCO2 = 1.5 (HCO3-) + 8

943
Q

Chronic epigastric pain suddenly worsens and becomes diffuse
Pneumoperitoneum

What is it?

A

Gastric ulcer perforation

944
Q

If a pt has an UGIB w/ depressed level of consciousness, + hematemesis, what do you do?

A

Intubation!

Stabilize first with ABCs

Then endocscopy w/ band ligation or sclerotherapy to stop bleeding

945
Q

What kind of effusion is CHF?

A

Transudative

pH = 7.35 for transudative

946
Q

What is the pH for pleural effusion in

  • empyema
  • normal
  • inflammation
  • transudative
A

empyema - 7.2

normal - 7.64

inflammation - 7.3

transudative - 7.35

947
Q

Always include in workup of acute delirium in elderly?

A

UA

Serum electolytes

948
Q

When do you start colonoscopy screening for UC?

A

Once disease present for at least 8 years regardless of age of pt

Do exam every 1-2 years

Need prophylactic colectomy if evidence of dysplasia

949
Q

Dejerine Roussy syndrome

A

Thalamic stroke

Usually of VPL nucleus

Contralateral hemianesthesia w/ transient hemiparesis, athetosis or ballistic mvmt

Thalamic pain phenomenon

950
Q

W/ diabetic peripheral neuropathy, how do you get the paresthesias pain? How about the numbness?

A

Small fiber neuropathy –> pain, allodynia, paresthesias; sensory OK

Pure large fiber –> more numbness, ankle reflex lost

951
Q

Psoriatic arthritis

- signs adn symptom

A

DIP usually involved

Morning stiffness
Deformity of involved joints
Dactylitis
Onycholysis (Separation of nail bed)

952
Q

Eggshell calcification of liver cyst

A

Hydatid cyst!

Echinoccoccus granulosus

953
Q

Well’s criteria (Modified)

A

3 pts
PE as likely or more likely than alternate dx
clin s/s of DVT

1.5 pts
HR > 100 bpm
prior DVT or PE
Immobilization (>3d) or surgery w/in 4 wk

1 pt
Hemoptysis
malignancy

6 = High prob for PE

954
Q

Previous hx of rheumatic fever
Dental cleaning procedure
Then get infective endocarditis

What order do you do your tx?

What if it is a person who was IVDU who get IE?

A

Blood cx 1st

Then empiric antiboiotics

Then Transesophageal echo to see valvular vegetations

Transthoracic Echo if tricuspid endocarditis - IVDU

955
Q

Dukes major criteria

A

For IE diagnosis

+ Blood Cx

Evidence of endocardial involvement on echo

956
Q

Dyspepsia

A

1 or more of sx:

  • epigastric pain
  • postprandial fullness
  • early satiety

w/ ab burning, nausea, bloating

NOT HEARTBURN b/c that is GERD

  • usual etiology is GERD, meds, etc
957
Q

Pt > 55 yo w/ dyspepsia

  • what are the alarm sx?
  • what do you do for this pt?
  • what do you do for pt w/ alarm sx?
A
Alarm sx:
unexplained wt loss
vomiting
dysphagia
GI blood loss
odynophagia
FH GI cancer

No alarm sx - test for H pylori or empiric H pylori tx (PPI)

Alarm sx - upper endo

958
Q

Alcohol w/d timeline

A

6-24 hrs
- reflex hyperactivity in brain –> anxiety, insomnia, tremors, diaphoresis

48 hrs

  • hallucinations
  • w/d seizures

48-96 hrs
DTs
HTN, agitation, tachy, hallucinations, fever

959
Q

What’s the best marker for opioid intoxication w/ suggestive clinical feature?

A

Bradypnea

NOT miosis - sometimes don’t have miosis

960
Q

Hepatorenal syndrome

A

Complication of ES liver disease

Decreased GFR in absence of shock, proteinuria, or clear cause of renal dysfunction
- als no response to 1.5 NS bolus

Type 1 - rapidly progressive, pts die w/in 10 wks w/o tx

Type 2- slower; survive 3-6 mos

Usually die of infection and hemorrhage

Need to get liver transplant to survive

961
Q

Pruritic elevated serpiginous lesions on skin - what caused this? how did you get it?

A

Ancylostoma braziliense
- hookworm!

Sandy beaches, sandboxes

962
Q

Can you get mild elevations in transaminases, bilirubin, and amylase in cholecystitis?

A

Yes!

Even w/o obvious common bile duct or pancreatic disease
- sludge or pus into CBD causes these elevations

BUT ALP is not increased unless cholangitis or choledocholithiasis

963
Q

Tx acute cholecystitis

A

NPO

IV antibiotics

analgesics

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy soon after hospitalization

964
Q

Sx hypercalcemia

A
Confusion
Lethargy
Fatigue
ANorexia
Polyuria
Constipation
965
Q

What type of pericarditis does not present w/ classic EKG diffuse ST segment elevations?

A

Uremic pericarditis

Inflammatory cells don’t penetrate myocardium

Tx uremic pericarditis w/ dialysis

966
Q

What’s a normal decreased reflex finding in elderly?

A

Decreased achilles tendon

967
Q

What sx are typical for asbestosis? Uncommon?

A

Typical - progressive dyspnea

Uncommon - cough, sputum prod, wheezing

968
Q

Large exophytic papule w/ collarette scale

  • what is this?
  • how do you dx?
  • what do you have to be careful of?
  • Tx?
A

Bartonella henselae!

Tissue bx + microscope ID of org

Biopsy can cause hemorrhage - be careful!

Abx to regress lesion

969
Q

Pt works in daycare

  • acute onset of polyarticular (MCP, PIP, wrist) and symmetric arthritis
  • resolves in 2 months

What is it?

A

Parvovirus

970
Q

How long do you have arthritis before diagnosed as RA?

A

at least 6 wks

971
Q

pANCA positivity

A

Anti-MPO

Microscopic polyangitis
Churgg strauss
Ulcerative colitis

972
Q

Factorial design study

A

Randomization to diff interventions w/ additional study of 2 or more variables

973
Q

Diarrhea in HIV pt - what do you do 1st?

A

ID causal organism

Then do antibiotic

974
Q

Tx pts w/ diabetic gastroparesis

A

Diabetes control + dietary mod

Small frequent meals

Metoclopramide - improve gastric emptying
Erythromycin
Cisapride (not used in US)

975
Q
Anorexia
N/V
Early satiety
Postprandial fullness
bad glucose control

What is this?

A

DIabetic gastroparesis

976
Q

Macrocytic anemia

  • causes
  • what does it look like?
A
Vit B12 deficiency
Folic acid deficiency
Hypothyroidism
Liver disease
Antimetabolites

Macroovalocyte RBCs, hypersegmented neutrophils, anisocytosis, poiklocytosis, basophilic stipling
Retic count decreased
Bone marrow hypercellular

977
Q

P vera can be associated with what? And why?

A

Gout! 40% w/ pvera have gou

Myeloprolif d/o are common causes of uric acid overproduction
- increased catabolism and turnover of purines

978
Q

Delayed sleep phase syndrome

A

Circadian rhythm d/o

Can’t fall asleep at normal bedtimes (10 or midnight)

979
Q

Advanced sleep phase disorder

A

Circadian rhythm disorder

Can’t stay awake in evening (usuallya fter 7 pm) so social functioning difficult

pts complain of early AM insomnia

980
Q

What is a sensitive marker of dehydration?

A

BUN/Cr ratio

981
Q

What do you risk giving bicarb in tx lactic acidosis or ketoacidosis?

A

Bicarb may paradoxically depress cardiac performance and worsen acidosis by enhancing lactate production

982
Q

What do you suspect w/:

  • decreased haptoglobin
  • increased LDH
  • decreased Hg
  • venous thrombosis
A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

  • abnormal anchor protein GP1 which usually binds CD55 adn CD58 which stop complement from destroying RBC
  • intravascular hemolytic anemia
  • PNH have tendency towards venous thrombosis, particularly hepatic veins
  • mild thrombocytopenia too

Use flow cytometry tests to dx - find if cells have CD 55 and 59 on surface

983
Q

When do you do a DEXA scan for women for osteopororsis?

A

65 yo - one time

Osteopenia = T score -1.5 to - 2.5
Osteoporosis = T score less than - 2.5
984
Q

Monoarticular or asymmetric arthropathies

A

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies

Septic arthritis

Crystalline arthritis

985
Q

Symmetrical polyarthritis

A

Viral arthritis (mumps, rubella, parvovirus)

Rheumatoid arthritis
SLE

–> tell the difference b/c viral will resolve but RA and SLE do not resolve in less than 4 weeks

986
Q

Live vaccines are NOT recommended in HIV pts. But which is the only one that is?

A

MMR

  • measles is life threatening in HIV pts
  • usually ok for counts > 200 (CD4)
987
Q

Causes of aortic aneurysm

  • ascending
  • descending

CXR findings

A

ascending
- cystic medial necrosis or CT d/p

descending
- atherosclerosis

CXR

  • widended mediastinal silhouette
  • increased aortic knob
  • tracheal deviation
988
Q

Tx acute cholangitis

A

CBD blockage –> infection up the bile duct w/ increased ALP

Supportive
Broad spectrum antibiotics

No response,
Biliary drainage w/ ERCP

989
Q

Types of polyps in colon

A

Hyperplastic - nonneoplastic, no further work up needed

Hamartomatous - juvenile, peutz jeghers - usually not malignant

Adenoma - most common, can be premalignant

990
Q

Probability of adenoma progressing into cancer

A

Sessile vs/ stalked (pedunculated)
- sessile more cancerous

Tubular, tubulovillous, villous
- villous more malignant

Size
- bigger size, more liekly malignant (>2.5cm)

991
Q

Intraepidermal blisters + erosions w/ multinucleated giant cells w/ molded stell gray nuclei

A

HSV
VZV

vessicles

992
Q

Extensor weakness
Chronic interstitial nephritis
Anemia w/ low-normal MCV

What is happening?

A

Lead poisoning

993
Q

How can you tell if someone syncopized vs. seized?

A

Confused following episode = seizure

994
Q

Tx pt w/ radioactive iodine - what hyperthyroid d/o is most likely to become hypothyroid after?

A

Grave’s

The whole thyroid gland is hyperfunctional so will have diffuse take up - complete thyroid ablation

995
Q

Bronchiectasis vs. chronic bronchitis

A

Bronchiectasis

  • chronic, recurrent cough
  • mucoPURULENT expectoration
  • occasional hemoptysis
  • episodes respond to antibiotics

Chronic bronchitis
- NONPURULENT expectoration

996
Q

Dx bronchiectasis 1st?

A

High rest CT scan of chest

997
Q

Which kidney is easier to palpate if it is enlarged?

A

Right kidney

Lies lower than L kidney

998
Q

Rapidly progressive dementia
Myoclonus
Sharp, triphasic synchronous discharges on EEG

A

CJD

999
Q

Most common cause of death in pts w/ acute MI

A

Reentrant ventricular arrhythmia (vfib)

1000
Q

Conjugated or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

A

Conj -
direct bilirubin > 50% of total bili

Unconj -
indirect > 90% of total bilirubin

1001
Q

Recent travel in water area

High grade fever
GI sx
Neuro sx

Rales + CXR = focal lobar consolidatin

What is it?
How to dx?
How to tx?

A

Legionella pneumophilia

Sputum stain = lots of neutrophils, no organisms b/c intracellular
Cx on charcoal agar
Urinary antigen testing

Tx

  • azithromycin (macrolides)
  • levofloxacin (newer fluoroquinolones)
1002
Q
Low back pain
Difficulty starting urination
LE sensory and motor loss
Sciatica
Loss of sensation in medial thigh
Poor rectal tone, perineal anesthesia
A

Cauda equina syndrome

Spinal nerve roots issue - LMN issue

1003
Q

Parasellar signs due to pituitary adenoma more commonly seen in…? Why?

A

Men

Early sx in men (eg impotence) are often attributed to psych causes and med eval is delayed –> larger tumor growth

1004
Q

Dx acromegaly

A

Oral glucose suppression test
- glucose doesn’t suppress GH (normally does)

IGF1 is increased - GH not useful b/c wide physio fluctuation of GH levels

1005
Q

Calcification of suprasellar region on brain imaging

A

Diagnostic of craniopharyngioma

1006
Q

Which hormones in pituitary lost first usually?

A

LH, FSH, GH

then…

TSH, ACTH

1007
Q

DDx polyuria + polydypsia

A

DIabetes mellitus
Diuretic
DI
Primary polydipsia

1008
Q

Diabetes insipidus causes

  • Central
  • Nephrogenic
A

Central

  • trauma
  • tumors
  • sarcoidosis
  • TB
  • syphilis
  • encephalitis

Nephrogenic

  • Lithium
  • Hyper Ca
  • Pyelo
  • Demeclocycline
  • mutations in ADH receptor
1009
Q

Hypoosmotic hyponatremia types

A

HypoVOL HypoNa = volume contracted

HyperVOL Hypo Na = volume expanded w/ edema

SIADH = volume expanded w/o edema

1010
Q

Why don’t you see edema in SIADH?

A

Natriuresis still happens despite hypoNa

Vol expansion –> increase ANP –> increase Na urine excretion
Vol expansion –> dec PCT Na abrosption
Vol expansion —| Renin-angiotensin-aldo system

1011
Q

Manifestations of Hyper PTH / increased Ca

A

Stones
- Nephrolithiasis

Bones

  • Osteitis fibrosa cystica
  • bone aches adn pains

Groans

  • Muscle pain and wekaness
  • Pancreatitis
  • PUD
  • Gout
  • Constipation

Psych
- depression, fatigue, anorexia, sleep issues

Other
- polydipsia, polyuria
- HTN
- short QT
0 wt loss
1012
Q

Characteristics of rheumatic heart disease

A

JONES

Joints
Pancarditis
SubQ nodules
Erythema Nodosum
Syndenhams chorea

2 major criteria or 1 major and 2 minor criteria to dx

Minor:
fever
Increased ESR
Proplonged PR

1013
Q

Dx endocarditis

A

TEE
TTE for R heart valve endocarditis

Dukes criteria (2 major, 1 major + 3 minor, 5 minor)
Major:
sustained bacteremia
Endocardium involved on echo

Minor:
predisposing condition
fever
janeway lesions, pulmonary emboli
Glomeruli nephiritis
Oslers nodes
ROths spots
\+ blood cx
1014
Q

When is feNa most useful

A

If oliguria present

1015
Q

3 vessel opathies in diabetes

A
Nephropathy
Neuropathy
- autonomic
- peripheral
- retinopathy
1016
Q

What should you order for most pts with aki?

A

Renal ultrasound

1017
Q

Most common mortal complications of early phase AKI

A

Hyperkalemic cardiac arrest

Pulm edema

1018
Q

What is microalbuminuria measured by

A

Microalbumin: Cr ratio

1019
Q

What should you order for most pts with aki?

A

Renal ultrasound

1020
Q

Most common mortal complications of early phase AKI

A

Hyperkalemic cardiac arrest

Pulm edema

1021
Q

What lab value can you find on lupus antiphospholipid?

A

increase PTT

1022
Q

Cryprecipitate

A

Factor 8
Fibrinogen
vWF
Factor 12

1023
Q

What should you order for most pts with aki?

A

Renal ultrasound

1024
Q

Most common mortal complications of early phase AKI

A

Hyperkalemic cardiac arrest

Pulm edema

1025
Q

What should you order for most pts with aki?

A

Renal ultrasound

1026
Q

Most common mortal complications of early phase AKI

A

Hyperkalemic cardiac arrest

Pulm edema