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Mental Health 1 > Mental Health 1 > Flashcards

Mental Health 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The definition of a crisis is?

A

A difficult or dangerous situation that needs attention.

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2
Q

What is trauma, or a traumatic event?

A

Severe physical injury or a specific experience that triggers mental and emotional distress and results in suffering and disruption to a persons physical and/or emotional wellbeing.

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3
Q

What is bereavement?

A

Being deprived of an object or person.

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4
Q

What is grief?

A

The response to the loss in all of its totality - including its physical, emotional and cognitive, behavioural, and spiritual manifestations.

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5
Q

What are the four types of crisis?

A
  1. Developmental - transitions through life stages;
  2. Situational - ie loss of income/employment, car accident.
  3. Social - drug abuse, criminal activities, violence.
  4. Complex - severe trauma, severe mental illness, diagnosis of terminal illness, seeking asylum.
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6
Q

What is neuroplasticity?

A

The ability of the brain to adapt to changes imposed by trauma and illness - establish alternative neural pathways and neurogenesis (est new brain cells).

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7
Q

What are the five stages of grief?

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
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8
Q

What are the 4 key tasks in Worden’s task-based model on grief?

A
  1. Accept reality of loss;
  2. Work through pain of grief;
  3. Adjust to environment where person is missing;
  4. Find enduring connection while embarking on a new life.
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9
Q

What is vulnerability?

A

Being capable of being physically or emotionally hurt.

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10
Q

What two component’s of vulnerability did Rogers identify?

A
  1. Personal - learned capabilities, education, lifestyle, income, genetics, etc;
  2. Environmental - family/friends, community, employment, pollution, societal attitudes etc.

He identified that vulnerability was a dynamic balance of these two types of factors.

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11
Q

What is resilience?

A

A person’s capacity of adapting psychologically, emotionally, and physically , reasonably well. and without detriment to self, relationships or personal development in the face of adversity, threat or challenge.

It is a dynamic state.

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12
Q

What does NSSI stand for, and in what population is it most prevalent?

A

Non-suicidal self injury - prevalent in adolescents.

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13
Q

What is the most prevalent mental health issue in Australia?

A

Anxiety disorders - 14%

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14
Q

What is the most prevalent anxiety disorder in Australia?

A

PTSD - 6% (then social anxiety - 5%)

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15
Q

What is the most prevalent mood disorder in Australia?

A

Depression (4%)

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16
Q

What are the features of a major depressive disorder? How is it diagnosed under the DSM - V?

A
  • Persistent symptoms that interfere in most area’s of life

DSM - At least 5 or more of the following symptoms present during the same 2 week period, and represent a change from previous functioning:

  • At least one of depressed mood and loss of interest/pleasure;
  • Alongside - significant weight loss or weight gain, or decreased appetite nearly every day;
    Insomnia, or hypersomnia nearly every day;
    psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day;
    fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day;
    feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day;
    diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness nearly every day;
    recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicide ideation or attempt or planning.
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17
Q

What is anhedonia?

A

Lack of pleasure/joy.

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18
Q

What is the biopsychosocial model of causation?

A

The combination of various factors that interact to cause an illness (ie depression).
Ie: genetics; neurochemical; sex differences etc

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19
Q

What is dysthymia?

A

Persistent depressive disorder. Milder, but longer lasting than major depressive disorder. Chronic, and requires 2 years of symptoms for diagnosis.

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20
Q

What are the three types of mood disorders associated with childbirth?

A
  1. Postpartum Blues - transient mood disturbance, very common (50 - 70%), usually resolves itself. If lasting more than 2 weeks - assess for PND.
  2. Perinatal depression - depressed mood, excessive anxiety, insomnia and change in weight. 10-15% of women, counselling first line of treatment.
  3. Postpartum psychosis - Psychiatric emergency - rare with 1 - 2 cases per 1000 births, rapid onset usually within 2 days of birth. Can include delusions, hallucinations and disorganised behaviour.
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21
Q

What are Bowlby’s four phases of normal response to death?

A
  1. Shock & Protest
  2. Preoccupation
  3. Disorganisation
  4. Resolution
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22
Q

What is ECT and what is it used for?

A

Electroconvulsive therapy - an electric current is applied to the head of an anaesthetised client - produces seizure activity, with motor movements prevented by use of a muscle relaxant.

It is used for depression when an urgent response is needed (client’s life is threatened) or for treatment resistant depressive disorder.

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23
Q

What is an SSRI, and name examples with side effects.

A

Selective Serontin Reuptake Inhibitor - Fluoxotine, citalopram (20mg), sertraline (50mg Major depression)

S/E - Nausea, diarrhea, restlessness & anxiety; potential insomnia; sexual dysfunction; reduced appetite and weight; potentially headaches.

Potentially - hypomania, further deterioration of low mood; aggressiveness and suicial ideation.

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24
Q

What is an SNRI and name examples with side effects.

A

Serotonin and Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor - duloxetine (60mg), desvenlafaxine (50mg)

Often prescribed for severe depression.

S/E - headaches, sexual dysfunction; GIT;

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25
Q

What is a TCA and name an example with side effects.

A

Tricyclic antidepressant - amitryptyline, clomipramine (50-75mg)

S/E - sedation; dry mouth; constipation; blurred vision; seizures; urinary retention; hypotension (should be monitored)

Possibly severe cardiac complications.

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26
Q

What is MAOI and name an example with common side effects.

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitor - phenelzine (45mg), tranylcypromine (20mg)

S/E - Drowsiness or insomnia; agitation; fatigue; GIT; weight gain; hypotension & dizziness; dry mouth/skin; sexual dysfunction, constipation.

Requires dietary restriction of Tyramine as results in hypertension.

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27
Q

What is a RiMA and name an example with side effects.

A

Reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor - moclobemide (300-450mg)

Better tolerated than MAOI, reduced interation with Tyramine. Fewer side effects and non-sedating.

S/E - insomnia, nausea, dizziness.

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28
Q

What is serotonergic syndrome?

A

Also known as serotonin toxicity - Medical emergency.

Symptoms - altered mental state/cognition ie delirium, agitation, restlessness; autonomic hyperactivity; abnormal neuromuscular activity such as myoclonus and hyperreflexia or rigidity.

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29
Q

What does “Affect” refer to?

A

facial expressions which are seen by others ie flat; restricted; reactive.

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30
Q

What does dysphoria mean?

A

Genera term for unpleasant feeling of mood. May be uncomfortable, sad or irritable.

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31
Q

What is diurnal variation?

A

Fluctuation of mood during the day eg? Worse in the morning or the evening?

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32
Q

What is a NaSSAs and provide an example with side effects.

A

Noradrenaline-Serotonin Specific antidepressants - mirtazapine (30-45mg).

Relatively new - helpful if anxiety or sleeping issues.

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33
Q

What are NARIs, with examples and side effects.

A

Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors - reboxetine (8mg).

Less likely to cause sleepiness or drowsiness.

S/E - difficulty sleeping; inreased sweating, sexual difficulties, urinating and increased HR after initial doses.

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34
Q

What are the 5 practice domains and capabilities of the Australian National Framework for recovery-oriented mental health services?

A
  1. Promoting a culture and language of hope
  2. Supporting personal recovery: autonomy and self-determination (focus on strengths, collaborative care)
  3. Person-first, holistic (cultural considerations)
  4. Organisational commitment and workforce development
  5. Action on social inclusion and social determinants of health, mental health and wellbeing.
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35
Q

What are the priorities of the roadmap for reform 2012 - 22?

A
  1. Promote person-centred approaches
  2. Improve mental healh, social and emotional wellbeing of all;
  3. Prevention of mental illness;
  4. Early identification and intervention;
  5. Quality services;
  6. Social and economic participation for people with mental illness.
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36
Q

What is a stereotype?

A

A depersonalised conception of individuals in a group

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37
Q

What is intolerance?

A

unwillingness to accept different opinions or beliefs from people of different backgrounds

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38
Q

What is Stigma?

A

attribute or trait deemed as unfavourable

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39
Q

What is prejudice?

A

preconceived unfavourable belief about individuals or groups that disregards knowledge, thought or reason.

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40
Q

What is discrimination?

A

differential treatment of individuals or groups that is NOT merit based.

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41
Q

What is the stress-vulnerability model?

A

A model that relates the level of stress experienced to a person’s natural vulnerability threshold and their responses (ie crisis or coping).

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42
Q

What is ambient stress?

A

Stress from day-to-day living such as noise, smell, pollution.

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43
Q

What are protective factors in the stress-vulnerability model?

A

Can be medication or social/psychological factors such as support network, stress management skills, their health literacy or understanding of illness.

Can act as a buffer against stress.

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44
Q

What are acquired and innate vulnerabilities?

A

Acquired - experience of trauma, perinatal complications, family or peer experiences, life events.

Innate - genetics.

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45
Q

What are the two main parts of a mental health assessment?

A

1 - Mental health history;

2 - Mental state examination.

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46
Q

What are the components of the mental state examination?

A
  1. Appearance - body build, posture, distinguishing marks, apparent and chronological age, level of hygiene and grooming.
  2. Behaviour - rapport, engagement, psychomotor activity, eye contact.
  3. Affect - appropriate/normal, restricted, blunted, flat; congruent or incongruent.
  4. Mood - pervasive or sustained emotion subjectively experienced and reported by patient: dysphoric, euthymic, irritable, elevated, euphoric, depressed, anxious, angry, fearful.
  5. Speech - quality, rate, volume and tone.
  6. Thought form - amount and rate of production, continuity of ideas, language, illogical, coherent, irrelevant.
  7. Thought content - delusions, suicidal thoughts, obsessions, complusions.
  8. Perception - hallucinations, delusion, depersonalisation, derealisation
  9. Cognition and intellectual functioning level of consciousness, memory, orientation, concentration, abstract thought.
  10. Insight and judgement - degree of understanding current situation/illness; identify consequences and draw conclusions.
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47
Q

What should be included in the mental health history as part of the mental health assessment?

A
  1. Reason for referral, sources of information used, identifying information for the client;
  2. History of presenting problem;
  3. Past MH history
  4. Legal status - any court orders or proceedings?
  5. Drug & Alcohol history - more detailed assessment if needed
  6. Family history both medical and mental health
  7. Patient medical history - including lab tests on current presentation
  8. Personal history including experiences of trauma, cultural influences, spiritual?
  9. Current supports including living situation
  10. Parental/carer status
  11. Risk assessment for self-harm, neglect, violence, victimisation or absconding.
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48
Q

What is the difference between a mentally ill person and a mentally disordered person under the Mental Health Act?

A

Mentally ill person is those suffering a mental illness and as a result there are reasonable grounds to believe that care and treatment is necessary to protect themselves or others.

A Mentally disordered person may or may not have a mental illness, but their behaviour is so irrational, care and treatment is also necessary to protect them or others.

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49
Q

How is Mental Health defined under the Mental Health Act?

A

A condition that seriously impairs the mental functioning of a person and is characterised by one or more of:

  • delusions
  • hallucinations
  • serious disorder of thought form
  • severe mood disturbance
  • sustained/repeated irrational behaviour.
50
Q

What characteristics, on their own, are NOT evidence of mental illness under the Mental Health Act?

A
  • presence or lack of religious beliefs
  • philosophy
  • political views
  • sexual orientation / preference
  • past or current sexual promiscuity
  • immoral / illegal conduct
  • disability
  • antisocial behaviour
  • use of substances
51
Q

Which articles from the Universal Declaration of Human Rights are relevant to the issue of involuntary treatment?

A

Article 3 - right to life, liberty and security of person;
Article 9 - not subject to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile;
Article 13 - right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each state.

52
Q

Which demographic has the highest suicide rates?

A

Men aged over 85.

53
Q

What is self-harm?

A

Intentional physical damage to one’s own body, non-fatal act, where the motivation or intent is NOT to die.

54
Q

Define and describe the information included in psychoeducation?

A

process of providing education and information to those seeking or receiving mental health services; provision of knowledge to increase mental health literacy and self-awareness to inform future decision-making.

Includes info on the relevant illness, symptoms, medication, treatment options, resources etc.

55
Q

What is a stressor?

A

Any internal or external stimulus that promotes a stress response.

56
Q

What is chronic stress?

A

hypersecretion of cortisol and sustained sympathetic nervous system response - results in physical illness and psychopathology from damage to the CNS and cardiovascular system.

57
Q

What is a panic disorder?

A

unpredictable experiences of intense, episodic, surges of anxiety.

Symptoms include tachycardia, sweathing, shaking, dyspnoea, chest pain, dizziness, nausea, tingling, sense of depersonalisation.

58
Q

What is generalised anxiety disorder?

A

Constant excessive worry where the person is consumed by everyday situations and issues. Includes somatic symptoms such as restlessness and irritability, insomnia, fatigues and hyperarousal.

Often occurs concurrently with major depressive disorder.

59
Q

What is OCD?

A

Obsessive compulsive disorder - recurring experience of anxiety-creating thoughts that become obsessive in nature, often with themes of risk to self or others.

Compulsive behaviours develop to decrease the perception of harm and create a sense of safety.

Treatment includes medication (SSRIs at a higher dose) and talk therapy.

60
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

generalised, consistent and significant unrealistic fear of public spaces.

Commonly fear help will not be available - often results from panic disorder.

Avoidance = safety behaviour.

61
Q

What is social anxiety?

A

Fears of general social situations, particularly if performance expectations.

62
Q

What is PTSD?

A

Reaction to first hand or vicarious trauma such as threatened or actual physical/sexual harm, personal violence, war, serious accidents, natural disaster, sudden catastrophic medical events.

63
Q

What are the four distinct symptom clusters of PTSD?

A
  1. Intrusive reexperiencing - nightmares dissociative flashbacks, recurrent memories
  2. Hyperarousal - heightened startle response, intense physiological response to trauma recall, hypervigilance.
  3. Persistant avoidance of trauma stimuli
  4. Mood and cognitive alterations - emotional numbing, anhedonia, fear, low mood, poor concentration, generalised thoughts about danger.
64
Q

Anxiety results in an increased risk of suicide. Why?

A

Increase in impulsivity.

65
Q

What factors might precipitate or exacerbate physiological experiences of anxiety?

A 
Caffeine,
Opium and hallucinogenic drugs
medications
loss of sleep
premenstrual oedema
poor nutrition
threats to body integrity (surgery or injury)
66
Q

What are compulsions?

A

actions/repetitive behaviours that are performed in a stereotyped fashion to neutralise or prevent some dreaded thing happening or to avoid the danger.

67
Q

What are obsessions?

A

Thoughts or images that intrude into a person’s mind despite efforts to exclude them.

68
Q

What drugs are used to treat anxiety disorders?

A

Benzodiazepines - high risk if stopped abruptly - addictive, so short term in nature.
Other anxiolytic agents - buspirone, hydroxine, glycerol derivatives, meprobamate - blocks the serotonoin.

Barbiturate compunds - phenobarbitol.
Non-barbiturate sedative hypnotics - chloral hydrate
Antidepressants - OCD SSRI’s - clomipramine, fluoexetine
Antipsychotic drugs
Beta blockers - propranolol - blocks the physical symptoms of anxiety
Antihistamines - sometimes used for sedation and relief of anxiety - diphenhydramine.

69
Q

Males are more likely to have a substance use disorder. T/F?

A

True.

70
Q

What is the effect of a depressant on the body?

A

Slows activity of the brain, small dose may result in euphoria, relaxation and drowsiness. Large dose - deep sleep, coma, loss of coordination, death by respiratory depression.

71
Q

What is the effect of stimulants on the body?

A

Increases CNS activity - increased awareness, concentration, and reduced fatigue. Increased irritability, nervousness and insomnia.

72
Q

What is the effect of hallucinogens on the body?

A

Shares properties of both depressants and stimulants; distorts perceptions and induces hallucinations.

73
Q

What information do you need to assess substance use?

A

Hx of use - type of substances, how much, how often, route of administration, possibility of withdrawal - time and amount of last dose, risk of infection, triggers for use.

74
Q

What are the stages of change in the Transtheoretical Model of Change?

A
  1. Precontemplation
  2. Contemplation
  3. Preparation
  4. Action
  5. Maintenance

Relapse can occur!!

75
Q

What are harm reduction strategies?

A 
Needle exchange;
Suggesting alternate routes of administration
Educate on where NOT to inject
Naloxone to treat overdose
Safe injecting rooms
Opioid substitution therapy (ie methadone).
Random breath testing
No smoking laws.
76
Q

What is the central theme to the National Drug Strategy, and what are the three ways to achieve this?

A

Harm minimisation - supply reduction, demand reduction and harm reduction.

77
Q

What are supply reduction strategies?

A

Legislation against drugs, fines/penalties; Police force, border control, lock out laws.

78
Q

What are demand reduction strategies?

A

Education, rehabilitation services, addressing SDoH, increased pricing, health promotion campaigns, anti-smoking ads on TV etc.

79
Q

When do withdrawals symptoms usually occur for Alcohol use?

A

Mild withdrawal - usually within 24 hrs of the last drink. They usually resolve withing 2 - 3 days.

Symptoms can occur with hours of the last drink, and can last 3 - 7 days.

Officially - within 6 - 24 hours (Clinical guidelines).

80
Q

What are the main elements of care for withdrawal?

A

Supportive care, monitoring vital signs, and management of agitation with benzodiazepines (particularly if risk of seizures).

Prevent dehydration and Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

Reevaluate any other medical issues and treat - liver disease, sepsis.

81
Q

What are the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Autonomic overactivity - Sweating; tachycardia; hypertension; insomnia; termor; fever.

GIT - Anorexia; nausea; vomiting; dyspepsia.

Cognitive and perceptual changes - Anxiety; vivid dreams; illusions; hallucinations; delirium.

Chronic alcohol users - up to 15% may experience seizures.

82
Q

What is dependance?

A

a preoccupation with obtaining and using a drug for its psychic effects; the need to keep taking a drug to feel okay.

83
Q

What is tolerance?

A

a decrease in response to a drug does that occurs with continued use. Increased doses required to achieve the same effect.

84
Q

What is the reward pathway?

A

The response from the brain when experiencing pleasure. It reinforces the desire to repeat the experience.

The pathway is the mesolimbic pathway and the neurotransmitter is Dopamine.

85
Q

What is intoxication?

A

A change in behavioural and or physical condition as a result of substance use.

86
Q

What is overdose?

A

Use of any drug in high amounts which cause acute adverse physical or mental effects. A dose higher than an individuals tolerance .

87
Q

What are the required elements of alcohol intoxication under the DSM5?

A

A. Recently ingested alcohol
B. Clinically significant problematic behaviour or psychological change during or shortly after alcohol ingestion
C. On or more of: slurred speech; incoordination, unsteady gait, nystagmus, impairment in attention or memory; stupor or coma.
D. S/S not attributable to another medical condition, and are not better explained by another mental disorder or another substance.

88
Q

When are opportunistic interventions most applicable?

A

For a person using at hazardous levels (not harmful or dependant, or low risk levels).

89
Q

What is Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

A complication of alcohol abuse or withdrawal - acute neurological syndrome due to thiamine deficiency.

All those treated for alcohol withdrawal should receive prophylactic IV/IM Thiamine, then orally.

90
Q

What medications may be considered for alcohol withdrawal?

A

Benzodiazepines - especially to prevent more sever withdrawal progression.

Paracetemol - for headaches

Metoclopramide - Nausea and vomiting.

Loperamide or Kaomagma - for diarrhea.

Thiamine - prophylactic.

91
Q

What is nystagmus?

A

a vision condition in which the eyes make repetitive, uncontrolled movements. These movements often result in reduced vision and depth perception and can affect balance and coordination. These involuntary eye movements can occur from side to side, up and down, or in a circular pattern.

92
Q

What is opportunistic intervention?

A

Can be as little as a few minutes, and include written information provided, and self-help strategies.

93
Q

What are brief interventions?

A

Generally 5 - 30 minutes - a range of health settings; an effective first level of intervention.

Motivational interviewing and solution-focused brief therapy.

94
Q

What are the most common diagnoses in aged-care factilities?

A

Schizophrenia - 37.3%
Depression - 12.1%
Schizoaffective disorder - 10.8%

95
Q

What are some risk factors in the older age group for depression?

A

Bereavement, medications, reduction in activity, losses related to physical illness, financial security, accommodation and independence.

96
Q

What is the most common substance used in the older age group?

A

Alcohol and benzodiasepines.

97
Q

What is delirium?

A

Acute confusion - Transient, usually reversible. It is NOT a mental illness. Usually results from severe untreated infections, or withdrawal from substances.

98
Q

What are risk factors for delirium?

A 
Being older
Preexisting brain damage
sensory impairment
infections (UTI or chest)
Cardiac failure
Respiratory failure
Kidney failure
Constipation
Medications
Drug withdrawal
99
Q

What is sundowning?

A

Increase in behavioural problems in late afternoon or night. Disorientation, restlessness, agitation and anxiety.

100
Q

What is dementia, and is it a mental illness?

A

It is an organic brain disorder, not a mental illness. It occurs due to actual observable physical changes in brain structure.

101
Q

What is the cycle of care for those with symptoms of dementia?

A
  1. Accept - your role, the role and experience of others in providing care
  2. Assess - needs, and environment, develop communication skills
  3. Act
  4. Reassess needs.
102
Q

What age group shows the highest prevalence of all disorders?

A

16 - 24

103
Q

What is Gillick Competence?

A

The test applied to determine if the young person is cognitively capable of consenting to treatment.

104
Q

What is the circle of security?

A

A model that states that a child has three basic needs from the parent that create a circle of security. They need to have a safe base to go out from and explore the world, then be able to come back into safety when necessary.

105
Q

What is attachment theory?

A

A theory originally made by Bowlby that the attachment formed to the primary carer in early childhood is fundamental to cognitive, emotional and social development.

106
Q

What are the four defense mechanisms (Freud)?

A
  1. Denial - unable to accept the truth or reality for daily behaviours or events.
  2. Repression - ‘forgetting’ something bad ie passt unpleasant situations.
  3. Regression - revert back to childhood state when you had some nature of unconcious fear.
  4. Rationalisation - explain behaviours or painful emotions - try to rationalise the situation to help you make sense or concepturalise it.
107
Q

What is perinatal health?

A

work with pregnant women and mothers of children up to 4 years of age

108
Q

What is an infant?

A

A child in the first year of life.

109
Q

What is a toddler or pre-schooler?

A

A child aged between 2 and 4 years of age.

110
Q

What is a child?

A

Aged between 5 and 11 years old.

111
Q

What is an adolescent?

A

A young person between 12 and 17.

112
Q

What is a Youth?

A

Young person between 14 and 25.

113
Q

What are three side effects of ECT?

A

Headache, memory and cognitive impairment

114
Q

What are the five principles of recovery based language in mental health?

A

Respectful
Non-judgemental
Clear and understandable
Free of jargon, confusing data and speculation
Carrying a sense of commitment, hope and presenting the potential for opportunity.

115
Q

What are s/s of depression?

A

Cognitive: reduced concentration/memory, ruminating thoughts, difficulties making decisions, suicidal ideation

Emotional: low mood, reduced self-esteem, reduced interest, hoplessness/helplessness

Physical: reduced energy, sleep changes, weight loss/gain

Behavioural: psychomotor retardation, self-harm, suicidal behaviour, restlessness/agitation

116
Q

What five questions can you ask to identify suicide risk?

A
  1. Have you thought of harming yourself?
  2. Do you want to die?
  3. Do you have a plan?
  4. Have you told anyone that you want to die?
  5. Do you have access to means (pills, gun etc)
117
Q

What are s/s of anxiety?

A

Cognitive: racing mind, ruminating thoughts

Emotional:

Physical: Nausea / lack of appetite; breathlessness, shallow breathing, dizzy/light headed, difficulty swallowing, trembling, sleep disturbance, visual disturbance

Behavioural: impulsive behaviour

118
Q

What is melancholia?

A

a severe feeling of depression, limited interest in usual activities

119
Q

What is “mood”?

A

The state of mind and the feelings associated with it.

120
Q

What are some of the explanations/causes for depression?

A
  1. Neurobiology: neurotransmitter disturbances in the levels of serotonin, norepinephrine and dopamine.
  2. Genetics: neurological cognitive or social vulnerability
  3. Learning theory: repeated sense of failure and an external locus of control can contribute to depression and low mood
  4. Cognitive theory: negative schemes / core beliefs can contribute to a view of self as unworthy
  5. sociocultural/gender factors: discrimination of minority groups can contribute to depression or increase vulnerability to it.
121
Q

Name some interventions for depression.

A 
Therapeutic relationship
Psychoeducation
Recovery language
Mental health and risk assessment
Low grade, frequent exercise
Sleep hygiene / routines
Reduction in caffeine / alcohol
Good nutrition
Support from family
Goal setting
Planning daily activities

Mental Health 1 (1 decks)

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