Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology Lab > Micro lab-Final study notes > Flashcards

Micro lab-Final study notes Flashcards

1
Q

Phenol red broth help differentiate

A

Enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of media is used in phenol red broth

A

differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the pH indicator in the phenol red broth

A

phenol red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The phenol red broth contains what kind of carbohydrate?

A

single

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What carbohydrates can a phenol red broth contain

A

glucose, lactose, sucrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What kind of tube is in the phenol red broth and why

A

durham tube; traps gas byproducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Phenol red broth characterizes bacteria based on

A

carbohydrate fermentation and gas production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If gas is in the durham tube, what does that mean

A

positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If the fermentation is yellow in the phenol red broth, what does that mean

A

it is positive for carbohydrate fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What color is a negative response in the phenol red broth?

A

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Triple sugar iron (TSI) agar helps differentiate what

A

Enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of media is used in phenol red broth

A

differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TSI has how many sugars and what are they?

A

3; glucose, lactose, sucrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the pH indicator for TSI

A

phenol red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is evaluated in the TSI agar?

A

butt and slant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the h2s indicator in the TSI agar

A

ferrous sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If the TSI agar is positive, what shows

A

black precipitate in the butt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If gas is produced in the TSI agar, what could you possibly see?

A

agar will lift off the bottom of the tube
a fissure or crack will be visible
a bubble will be visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is needed to inoculate a TSI agar

A

a needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

H2S is produced if one of the following occurs

A

cysteine contained in the media is broken down

reduction of thiosulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does h2s react with in the media to form a black precipitate in the butt of the tube

A

ferrous sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Black precipitate only forms under what conditions

A

acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the selective agent in the bile esculin agar

A

bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does bile select/inhibit for in the bile esculin agar

A

inhibits gram positives, except for group D streptococcus, including enterococcus species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the differential agent in the bile esculin agar

A

esculin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the differential agent indicator in the bile esculin agar

A

ferric citrate (black precipitate forms if esculin is hydrolyzed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what kind of media is used for oxidation fermentation medium

A

differential media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does the oxidation fermentation medium differentiate

A

differentiate based on organisms on ability to oxidize or ferment a specific carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Oxidation fermentation medium help differentiate what

A

enterobacteriaceae from pseudomonadaeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the pH indicator in the oxidation fermentation medium

A

bromthymol blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how many tubes are inoculated in the oxidation fermentation medium to run a test properly

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the name of the two tubes in the oxidation fermentation medium and what is added to seal it, if anything

A

oxidative tube-no mineral oil added

fermentative tube-sealed with mineral oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

SIM includes how many tests

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SIM help differentiate what

A

enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is reduced in SIM

A

sulfur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

H2S is produced if one of the following occurs

A

cysteine contained in media is broken down

reduction of thiosulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is produced in the SIM test

A

indole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the reagent in the indole test

A

Kovac’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what does SIM stand for

A

Sulfur Indole Motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are 2 things to remember regarding motility in SIM

A

semi-solid to allow determination of motility

growth will radiate away from the stab line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In the kirby bauer assay, what kind of method is used to measure the effectiveness of antiobiotics and other chemotherapeutic agents on pathogenic organisms

A

standardized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are antibiotics

A

natural antimicrobial agents produced by microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

synthetic agents used to treat bacterial infections

A

antimicrobials or antimicrobics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

area devoid of growth around a disc

A

zone of inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

in methods of standardization, what kind of media is used

A

muellar-hinton agar, 4mm thick, pH 7.2-7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

in methods of standardization, what is the standard inoculum

A

0.5 mcfarland turbidity standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

in methods of standardization, what is the incubation and the length of time it has to be incubated

A

37

16-18hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the procedure for the Kirby Bauer Assay?

A
  1. Add loop full of culture to saline until tube matches turbidity
    * McFarland turbidity standard is NEVER opened; used as visual aid
  2. apply diluted culture from saline tube to Mueller-Hinton agar using swab to create lawn of growth
  3. Use forceps and aseptic technique (flame forceps, alcohol) to add 5 antibiotic discs to MH agar; gently press disc to make sure they stick
  4. Invert and incubate at 37 degrees
  5. After incubation, measure diameter of zone of inhibition in millimeters
  6. Compare to reference chart to see if bacteria is susceptible, intermediate, or resistant to antibiotic used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In the disc diffusion assay, why aren’t there any commercial standard available for disinfectants

A

they are less stable and more volatile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

An agent that destroys or inhibits the activity of microorganisms that cause disease especially on inanimate objects

A

disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

An agent that destroys or inhibits the activity of microorganisms that cause disease and can be applied to living tissues

A

antiseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does MIC stand for?

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Minimum amount of antibiotic/disinfectant needed to inhibit bacterial growth

A

MIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what does MBC stand for?

A

minimum bactericidal concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Minimum amount of antibiotic/disinfectant needed to kill or eliminate all bacteria

A

MBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

MIC and MBC general rules?

A
  1. Antibiotic/disinfectant is serially diluted
  2. A standard amount of bacteria is added to each tube
  3. Tubes incubated overnight and then examined for lack of growth (no turbidity)
  4. To find MIC, look for greatest dilution w/ no turbidity
  5. To find MBC, subculture non-turbid tubes to find greatest dilution with no growth on plate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In the standard inoculum procedure, 100ul of diluted culture was pipetted from

A

saline tube to each 1ml tube of TSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In the standard inoculum procedure, how are the tubes incubated?

A

overnight at 37 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In the standard inoculum procedure, after incubation, the culture tubes are reviewed. What are you looking for?

A

the tube with the greatest dilution without turbidity=MIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In the standard inoculum procedure, after the tubes has been identified, what do you do

A

on TSA plate, subculture non-turbid tube and incubate at 37 degrees overnight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In the standard inoculum procedure, after the TSA plates have been incubated, what do you have to identify

A

the greatest dilution where no growth is seen on the plate (MBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

a virus that infects bacteria

A

bacteriaphage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Clear area on a bacterial lawn produced when phage infect and lyse bacterial cells

A

plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In the phage specificity assay, we are testing specificity of 4 coliphages to what 2 bacteria strains?

A

E. coli B

E. coli C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

In the phage specificity assay, the TSA plates were labeled into quadrants. What are the 4 phages the quadrants were labeled as?

A

T2
T4r
T7
phi x174

66
Q

Which phage infects E. coli

A

Coliphages

67
Q

Results in cell lysis

A

lytic

68
Q

rarely results in cell lysis

A

lysogenic

69
Q

Organisms picked up in our daily activities

A

transient microbes

70
Q

What is the gram stain procedure

A
  1. flood slide w/ crystal violet for 30sec, rinse w/ H20
  2. flood slide w/ gram’s iodine for 30 sec, rinse H20
  3. decolorize w/ acetone alcohol for few sec, rinse H20
  4. flood slide w/ safranin for 30sec, rinse w/ H20
71
Q

Primary stain in gram stain

A

crystal violet

72
Q

Mordant in the gram stain

A

grams iodine

73
Q

Decolorizer in gram stain

A

acetone alcohol

74
Q

Secondary stain in gram stain

A

safranin

75
Q

What are the basic elements of most extraction procedures

A
  1. Lysing the cell
  2. removing protein contamination
  3. precipitating DNA
  4. pelleting DNA for collection
76
Q

In the DNA extraction experiment, strawberries were used. Why was detergent added and squished with the strawberries?

A

to lyse the cells

77
Q

In the DNA extraction experiment, strawberries were used. Why was salt (sodium chloride) added?

A

to dissolve the proteins

78
Q

In the DNA extraction experiment, strawberries were used. Why was ice cold ethanol added?

A

to precipitate DNA

79
Q

In the DNA extraction experiment, strawberries were used. Was there centrifugation?

A

no

80
Q

What does PCR stand for?

A

polymerase chain reaction

81
Q

Series of enxymatic reactions used to amplify (copy) small pieces of DNA

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

82
Q

In a PCR, what is the reaction components also called

A

master mix

83
Q

What are the reaction components in a PCR

A 
sterile water
appropriate buffer
salts (MgCl2)
nucleotides (dNTPs)
primers (designed for target region)
*polymerase (Taq)
*template DNA
84
Q

What is a thermocycler

A

PCR machine or DNA amplifier; is a laboratory apparatus most commonly used to amplify segments of DNA via the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

85
Q

Thermal aquaticus produces what

A

Taq polymerase

86
Q

In PCR, at what temp does DNA denature

A

94 degrees

87
Q

what does denature mean

A

separate template DNA

88
Q

In PCR, at what temp does DNA anneal

A

54 degrees

89
Q

What does annealing mean

A

primers bind to target sequences

90
Q

In PCR, at what temp does it have to be for extension

A

72 degrees

91
Q

In PCR, what happens at the extension stage

A

complimentary DNA strand is synthesized using DNA polymerase and free dNTPs

92
Q

In DNA gel electrophoresis, what kind of charge does DNA have and why

A

negative net charge; phosphate backbone

93
Q

An ____ ___ can be applied to a mixture of DNA in order to separate them in DNA gel electrophoresis

A

electric current

94
Q

In DNA gel electrophoresis, what is added to separate the mixture of DNA

A

agarose (or polyacrylamide) gel

95
Q

DNA in a gel is visualized using stains such as

A

ethidium bromide or SyBr Gold

96
Q

In DNA gel electrophoresis, DNA pieces will separate according to what in an agarose gel

A

size

97
Q

In DNA gel electrophoresis, how do big pieces move and where

A

will move slower and will be at the top of the gel

98
Q

In DNA gel electrophoresis, how do smaller pieces move and where

A

will move faster and will be at the bottom of the gel

99
Q

In DNA gel electrophoresis, how do you compare and identify correctly sized fragments

A

base pair ladder (size ladder)

100
Q

Intercalates between the double stands of DNA and is reactive with ultraviolet light

A

ethidium bromide

101
Q

What will DNA do in an agarose gel in a DNA gel electrophoresis

A

glow as bands

102
Q

Rapid antigen detection assays are also called

A

lateral flow assay

103
Q

Patient sample ____ across absorbent paper that contains reactive antigen or anibody

A

flows

104
Q

In the rapid antigen detection assays, what is the popular choice for color indicator

A

colloidal gold

105
Q

What is the EnteroPluri test

A

18-24hr identification of Enterobacteriacae and other gram negative, oxidase negative bacteria from non-clinical specimens that requires pure culture

106
Q

How is the EnteroPluri test performed?

A

test contains a needle that is used to pick up a colony, then pulled through to inoculate all tests; incubated at 37 degrees; after, results recorded and a numeric code is assigned based on score sheet; code entered identifies unknown org

107
Q

What kind of life cycle do protozoans have

A

trophozoite and/or cyst stages along with other forms

108
Q

dormant, survival stage; may be infective form and/or helpful in diagnosis

A

cyst

109
Q

vegetative or actively growing form

A

trophozoite

110
Q

organisms that carries and transmits pathogen

A

vector

111
Q

organism that harbors pathogen

A

host

112
Q 
A ciliate
contracted via fecal-oral route
Animal reservoir: pig
Disease: Balantidiasis
Exhibits trophozoite and cyst forms
A

Balantidium coli

113
Q

Where is Balantidium coli located?

A

worldwide; prevalent in tropical and subtropical regions

114
Q

What is the infective form of Balantidium coli

A

cysts

115
Q

What bacterias are protozoa

A

Balantiduum coli, Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia, Trichomonas vaginalis, Trypanosoma spp (Trypanosoma brucei), Trypanosoma cruzi, Plasmodium spp., Toxoplasma gondii,

116
Q

Contracted by fecal-oral route
Causes Ameobic dysentry
Exhibits both trophozoite and cyst forms

A

Entamoeba histolytica

117
Q

What is the infective form of Entamoeba histolytica

A

Mature cysts

118
Q

Where is Entamoeba histolytica located

A

worldwide; prevalent in tropical regions w/ poor sanitary conditions

119
Q

Flagellate
Contracted by fecal-oral route
Causes Giardiasis
Exhibits both trophozoite and cyst stages

A

Giardia lamblia

120
Q

Where is Giardia lamblia located

A

worldwide

121
Q

What is the infective form of Giardia lamblia

A

cysts

122
Q

What is the most frequently diagnosed intestinal parasitic disease in US

A

Giardia lamblia

123
Q 
Flagellate
Contracted by sexual contact
most common curable STD
Causes trichomoniasis
exhibits only trophozoite state
A

Trichomonas vaginalis

124
Q

Where is Trichomonas vaginalis located

A

worldwide

125
Q

what is the infective form of Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Trophozoite

126
Q

Causes African sleeping sickness (african trypanosomiasis)

A

Trypanosoma brucei

127
Q

vector: tsetse fly
infective trypomastigote introduced by tsetse fly bite
located in Africa

A

Trypanosoma brucei

128
Q

Causes Chagas Disease (Am. trypanosomiasis)
Vector: cone-nosed kissing bug
location: central and S. America
Infective trypomastigote transmitted during cone nosed bugs blood meal through feces

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

129
Q

Has several species (malariae, falciparum, vivax)
Causes malaria
Vector: Anopheles mosquito
Infective sporozoite introduced by female Anopheles mosquito bite
Located in Africa, Asia, S. Americ

A

Plasmodium spp

130
Q

Causes toxoplasmosis
Cat vector (required to complete sexual phase of life cycle)
Oocysts transmitted by cat feces
Tissue cysts consumed in undercooked meat
Located worldwide
Infective form: cysts and oocysts

A

Toxoplasma gondii

131
Q

Cell wall composed of chitin
most fungal infections opportunistic
complex life cycle with sexual and asexual phases
divided into unicellular yeasts and filamentous molds

A

Fungi

132
Q

What kind of general purpose media is used for fungi

A

high percentage of sugar and low pH (pH 5.6) such as sabouraud dextrose agar & potato dextrose agar

133
Q

2 examples of yeast

A

Candida albicans, Pneumocystis jirovecii

134
Q

Part of normal respiratory, gastrointestinal, & female urogenital tracts

A

Candida albicans

135
Q

What opportunistic infections are caused by Candida albicans,

A

thrush, vulvovaginitis

136
Q 
Previously classified as a protozoan
pneumocystic pneumonia (pc in aids & immunosuppresed indivuals)
A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

137
Q

3 examples of molds

A

Rhizopus spp, penicillium spp, aspergillus spp

138
Q

Common bread mold
Disease: zygomycosis
umbrella-like shape of columella w/ sporagiophores

A

Rhizopus spp

139
Q

Produces antibiotic penicillin
used in commercial production for fermentations used in cheese production
skeleton hand shape of conidiophore w/ conidia

A

penicillium spp

140
Q

Causes Aspergillosis
used in commercial production of soy sauce & citric acid
fan-like shape of conidiophore w/ conidia

A

aspergillus spp

141
Q

3 primary structures of helminths

A

nematodes, trematodes, cestodes

142
Q

Round worms

A

nematodes

143
Q

Trematodes

A

flukes

144
Q

Tape worms

A

cestodes

145
Q

What are nematodes

A

roundworms with tapered ends

146
Q

What are trematodes

A

flat, leaf-like bodies

147
Q

What are cestodes

A

flatworms made of sections called proglottids with a scolex head

148
Q

Nematode
human pinworm
fecal oral transmission or inhalation of eggs
located worldwide

A

Enterobius vermicularis

149
Q

Nematode
Disease: trichinosis
Infectious larvae in undercooked meat are ingested

A

Trichinella spiralis

150
Q

Nematode
most common helminth infection
female adult worms can reach a length of 49cm
Disease: Ascariasis

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

151
Q

What happens in disease Ascariasis

A

infection occurs when eggs are ingested, juveniles move toward respiratory system, adults reside in small intestine

152
Q

Nematodes

  • hookworms
  • soil transmitted helminths
  • 2nd most comom heminth infection
A

Necator/Ancylostoma

153
Q

Trematode (liver fluke)
Located worldwide
Causes disease Fascioliasis
host: herbivores,

A

Fascioll hepatica

154
Q

Trematode

chinese liver fluke or oriental liver fluke

A

Clonorchis sinensis

155
Q

Trematode
Disease: Schistosomiasis
Intermediate host: snail

A

Schistosoma spp

156
Q

3 types of Schistosomas

A

S. mansoni, S. haematobium, S. japonicum

157
Q

Located in Brazil, Caribbean, Africa, part of middle east

Adults reside in veins of hepatic portal system

A

S. mansoni

158
Q

Located in Africa and Middle East

Adults reside in veins of associated w/ urinary bladder

A

S. haematobium

159
Q

Located in Southeast Asia

Adults reside in veins of small intestines

A

S. japonicum

160
Q

Cestode (pork tapeworm)
Disease: Taeniasis
Host: Pork

A

Taenia soliun

Microbiology Lab (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions