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Midterm > miderm > Flashcards

miderm Flashcards

1
Q

Axial and lateral resolutions are artifactual because:

a. Echoes originate only from the center of the beam.
b. Ultrasound pulse has a definite length and width in the scan plane.
c. Failure to resolve means a loss of detail.
d. Beam width is parallel to the scan plane.

A

Failure to resolve mean a loss of detail and two adjacent structures may be visualized as one

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2
Q

Multiple reflection can occur between the transducer and a strong reflector. This is an example of:

a. Reverberation
b. Mirror image
c. Speckle tracking

A

Reverberation

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3
Q

The artifact that shows structures that exist on one side of a strong reflector as being present on the other side as well is known as:

a. Range ambiguity
b. Mirror image
c. Refraction
d. Speed error

A

Mirror image

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4
Q

The reduction in echo amplitude from reflectors that lie behind a strongly reflecting or attenuating structure is:

a. Enhancement
b. Resonance
c. Comet tail
d. Shadowing

A

Shadowing

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5
Q

The strengthening of echoes from reflectors that lie behind a weak attenuating structure is:

a. Aliasing
b. Multiple reflection
c. Resonance
d. Enhancement

A

Enhancement

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6
Q

The improper representation of information that has been insufficiently sampled is known as:

a. Multiple reflection
b. Resonance
c. Aliasing
d. Enhancement

A

Aliasing

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7
Q

The upper limit to the Doppler shift that can be properly detected by pulsed instruments is called:

a. Aliasing
b. Nyquist limit
c. Shadowing
d. Speed error

A

Nyquist limit

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8
Q

Artifacts caused by sonographic technique include all of the following except:

a. Noise
b. Banding
c. Side lobes
d. Breathing

A

Side lobes

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9
Q

The best example of a mirror image artifact is seen with the:

a. Gallbladder and cystic duct
b. Pancreas and duodenum
c. Uterus and fallopian tube
d. Diaphragm and liver

A

Diphgram and liver

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10
Q

Which one of the following will reduce or eliminate aliasing?

a. Decreasing the Doppler angle
b. Decreasing the transducer frequency
c. Increasing the depth of the sample volume
d. Decreasing the pulse repetition frequency.

A

-decreasing transducer frequency or all above

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11
Q

Refraction can cause a reflector that is:

a. Missing
b. Not real
c. Misplaced
d. Of improper brightness

A

Misplaced/ improperly/ laterally

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12
Q

Which one of the following artifacts results from constructive and destructive interference of the returning echoes?

a. Noise
b. Speckle
c. Speed error
d. Range ambiguity

A

Speckle

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13
Q

Echoes resulting from grating lobes may be imaged if they fall within a(n) _________ region.

a. Complex
b. Anechoic
c. Echogenic
d. Hypoechoic

A

Anechoic

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14
Q

Which one of the following structures is most likely to demonstrate strong posterior shadowing?

a. Cyst
b. Air
c. Bone
d. Blood vessel

A

Bone

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15
Q

Increased intensity in the focal region of the sound beam is called focal ___________________.

a. Zones
b. Intensity
c. Banding
d. Intensity

A

Focal banding or focal enhancement

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16
Q

. Shadowing is reduced with using:

a. Harmonics imaging
b. Pixel interpolation
c. Three-dimensional imaging
d. Spatial compounding

A

Spatial compounding

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17
Q

Which artifact is most commonly encountered in Doppler ultrasound?

a. Noise
b. Aliasing
c. Mirror image
d. Range ambiguity

A

Aliasing

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18
Q

Which one of the following eliminates aliasing using the “cut and paste” technique?

a. Shifting the baseline
b. Decreasing the Doppler angle
c. Increasing the transducer frequency
d. Increasing the pulse repetition frequency

A

Shifting the baseline

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19
Q

. Which of the following solutions are common and convenient to aliasing?

a. Shifting the baseline and decreasing the pulse repetition frequency
b. Decreasing the pulse repetition frequency and increasing the depth of the sample gate
c. Shifting the baseline and increasing the pulse repetition frequency
d. Increasing the pulse repetition frequency and decreasing the depth of the sample gate

A

Shifting the baseline and increasing the PRF

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20
Q

To decrease internally generated electronic noise in the Doppler signal, the sonographer should decrease the:

a. Doppler gain
b. Overall gain
c. Imaging depth
d. Transducer frequency

A

Doppler gain

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21
Q

Reverberation artifact displays structures that are:

a. Not real
b. Misplaced
c. Improper in shape
d. Improper in brightness

A

Not real

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22
Q

Increasing the pulse repetition frequency increases the chances of displaying which one of the following artifacts?

a. Speckle
b. Aliasing
c. Mirror image
d. Range ambiguity

A

Range ambiguity

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23
Q

Cross-talk can produce which one of the following artifacts?

a. Noise
b. Aliasing
c. Mirror image

A

Mirror image

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24
Q

Refraction of the sound beam at a boundary may result in false sonographic ________________.

a. Brightness
b. Duplication
c. Shadowing
d. Enhancement

A

-shadowing

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25
Q

The width of the pulse determines ______________ resolution.

a. Temporal
b. Lateral
c. Axial
d. Contrast

A

Lateral

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26
Q

The portal veins carry blood from the ______________ to the liver.

a. Hepatic artery
b. Intestinal tract
c. Splenic artery
d. Peripheral venous system

A

Intestinal

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27
Q

The arterial supply to the gallbladder is via the:

a. Hepatic artery
b. Superior mesenteric artery
c. Cystic artery
d. Gastroduodenal artery

A

Cystic artery

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28
Q

The portal venous system receives blood from all of the following except the:

a. Gallbladder
b. Pancreas
c. Spleen
d. Kidneys

A

Kidneys

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29
Q

What vessel passes anterior to the third part of the duodenum and posterior to the neck of the pancreas?

a. Superior mesenteric artery
b. Superior mesenteric vein
c. Inferior mesenteric vein
d. Splenic vein

A

Superior mesenteric vein

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30
Q

The duodenum and parts of the stomach are supplied by the:

a. Hepatic artery
b. Gastroduodenal artery
c. Splenic artery
d. Superior mesenteric arter

A

Gastroduodenal artery

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31
Q

Which one of the following vessels passes anterior to the uncinate process of the pancreas?

a. Hepatic artery
b. Portal vein
c. Left renal vein
d. Superior mesenteric artery

A

Superior mesenteric artery

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32
Q

The distribution of the superior mesenteric artery is to the:

a. Distal half of colon and the liver
b. Proximal half of colon and the small intestines
c. Small intestine and the proximal half of colon
d. Large intestine and the distal half of colon

A

Proximal half of colon & small intestines

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33
Q

Which one of the following veins begins at the hilum of the spleen and is joined by the short gastric and left gastroepiploic vein?

a. Pancreatic
b. Portal
c. Superior mesenteric
d. Splenic

A

Splenic

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34
Q

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

a. The portal vein enters the lesser omentum.
b. The portal vein is formed anterior to the pancreas.
c. The portal vein drains blood out of the gastrointestinal tract.
d. The portal vein has an anastomosis with the esophageal veins, rectal venous plexus, and superficial abdominal veins.

A

The portal vein is formed anterior to the pancreas

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35
Q

The normal diameter of the aorta is less than ____millimeters (mm).

a. 2
b. 4
c. 10
d. 23

A

23 mm

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36
Q

The inferior mesenteric artery distributes blood to the:

a. Left transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid, and rectum
b. Ascending colon, sigmoid, and rectum
c. Descending colon
d. Ascending colon and rectum

A

Left transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid and rectum

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37
Q

The right renal artery passes_____ to the inferior vena cava (IVC).

a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Lateral
d. Medial

A

Posterior

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38
Q

The vessel that arises from the anterior aortic wall and takes a parallel course to the aorta is the:

a. Hepatic artery
b. Renal artery
c. Superior mesenteric artery
d. Inferior mesenteric artery

A

Superior mesenteric artery & celiac axis

39
Q

Which one of the following vascular structures courses between the aorta and SMA?

a. Left renal vein
b. Celiac trunk
c. Gastroduodenal artery
d. Left renal artery

A

left renal vein

40
Q

Renal arteries branch from the lateral wall of the aorta:

a. At the level of L4
b. Superior to the SMA
c. Superior to the hepatic arteries
d. Inferior to the SMA

A

Inferior to the SMA

41
Q

The IVC courses anteriorly to enter the:

a. Right ventricle
b. Left atrium
c. Right coronary sinus
d. Right atrium

A

right atrium

42
Q

Which vascular structure is used as a landmark in locating the celiac trunk?

a. Common bile duct
b. Common hepatic artery
c. Superior mesenteric artery
d. Gastroduodenal artery

A

Superior mesenteric artery

43
Q

Which one of the following vascular structures relates to the medial and posterior borders or to the pancreatic body and tail?

a. Splenic artery
b. Hepatic artery

c. Superior mesenteric
artery

d. Splenic vein

A

Splenic vein

44
Q

The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the:

a. Common hepatic artery
b. Left gastric artery
c. Splenic artery
d. Superior mesenteric arter

A

Common hepatic artery

45
Q

The most common cause of abdominal aneurysms is:

a. Cystic medial necrosis
b. Syphilis
c. Atheroma
d. Arteriosclerosis

A

Arteriosclerosis

46
Q

In patients with lower trunk and leg edema and a dilated IVC, a(n) _______________ should be suspected.

a. Rupture
b. Atrioventricular fistula
c. Retroperitoneal tumor
d. Infection

A

Arteriovenous fistula

47
Q

The most common tumor to fill the IVC is:

a. Islet cell carcinoma
b. Renal cell carcinoma
c. Venous angioma
d. Nephroma

A

renal cell carcinoma

48
Q

The clinical signs of leg edema, low back pain, pelvic pain, gastrointestinal complaints, and renal and liver problems may represent:

a. Abdominal rupture
b. Superior mesenteric thrombus
c. Retroperitoneal tumor
d. IVC thrombosis

A

IVC thrombosis

49
Q

Which one of the following statements is false for a patient with renal vein thrombosis?

a. Direct visualization of thrombi in the renal vein and IVC is possible.
b. Loss of normal renal structure occurs.
c. Renal size increases in the acute phase.
d. Doppler flow increases.

A

Doppler flow increase

50
Q

Which one of the following is most likely to produce a palpable thrill?

a. pseudoaneurysm
b. common femoral occlusion
c. in situ bypass graft
d. dialysis access graft

A

Dialysis access graft

51
Q

A difference in pressures greater than 20 mmHg between arms usually indicates disease of which one of the following arteries?

a. subclavian
b. radial
c. common carotid
d. iliac

A

Subclavian

52
Q

Patients complaining of intermittent claudication will have an ankle-brachial index (ABI) of:

a. 1
b. 0.45
c. 0.59
d. 0.35

A

0.59

53
Q

Which one of the following imaging characteristics indicates a significant (greaer than 50% diameter reduction) arterial narrowing during lower-extremity arterial imaging?

a. Spectral broadening.
b. Increase of peak systolic velocity greater than 20% when compared with the proximal adjacent area.
c. Increase of peak-systolic velocity of greater than 100% when compared with the proximal adjacent area.
d. Loss of blood flow reversal in early diastole

A

increase of peak systolic velocity of greater than 100% when compared with the
proximal adjacent area

54
Q 
The ABI on the left side is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ mm Hg.
The following resting segmental pressure measurements (mm Hg) are taken: 
Right/ Left
Upper arm 152/ 110 
Upper thigh 180 /180
Lower thigh 100 /170 
Calf 100/ 158 
Ankle 100 /148
a. 0.50 
b. 0.66 
c. 1.35 
d. 0.97
A
  • 0.97
55
Q 
The ABI on the right side is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ mm Hg.
The following resting segmental pressure measurements (mm Hg) are taken: 
Right /Left
Upper arm 152 /110 
Upper thigh 180 /180
Lower thigh 100 /170 
Calf 100 /158 
Ankle 100/ 148
a. 0.50 
b. 0.66 
c. 0.91 
d. 0.97
A

-0.66

56
Q 
The lower limb pressures suggest disease of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ artery.
The following resting segmental pressure measurements (mm Hg) are taken: 
Right /Left
Upper arm 152/ 110
Upper thigh 180 /180 
Lower thigh 100 /170 
Calf 100 /158 
Ankle 100 /148
a. right common femoral
b. right superficial femoral
c. right popliteal
d. left popliteal
A

Right superficial femoral artery

57
Q 
The brachial pressure suggests disease of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ artery.
The following resting segmental pressure measurements (mm Hg) are taken:
Right /Left
Upper arm 152 /110 
Upper thigh 180/ 180
Lower thigh 100 /170
Calf 100 /158 
Ankle 100 /148
a. innominate
b. right subclavian
c. left subclavian
d. right brachial
A

Left subclavian

58
Q

Most patients describe claudication as which one of the following?

a. Pain in the toes
b. Pain at rest
c. Cramping of the leg muscles
d. Extreme leg pain when walking

A

Cramping or aching of the leg muscles while walking

59
Q

The profunda femoris artery lies __________ and __________ to the superficial femoral artery (SFA).

a. posterior; medial
b. posterior; lateral
c. anterior; medial
d. anterior; lateral

A

Posterior ; lateral

60
Q

The major branches of the popliteal artery are the _________ and _________ arteries.

a. anterior tibial; peroneal
b. sural; anterior tibial
c. genicular; anterior tibial
d. sural; genicular

A

Sural and genicula

61
Q

The second main branch of the aortic arch is which one of the following arteries?

a. Innominate
b. Right common carotid
c. Left common carotid
d. Left subclavian

A

Left common carotid

62
Q

Segmental pressures of the lower extremity tend to ____________ the extent of the disease.

a. overestimate
b. underestimate
c. equal
d. underestimate or equal

A

Underestimate

63
Q

A toe pressure is considered normal if it is:

a. 50 mm Hg.
b. 45 mm Hg.
c. less than 64% of brachial pressure.
d. 50 mm Hg and less than 64% of brachial pressure.

A

-50 mmHg

64
Q

The calf pulse volume waveform normally has greater amplitude than the thigh waveform because of which one of the following?

a. Sequential changes
b. Superficial femoral disease
c. Cuff artifact
d. Intermittent ischemia

A

cuff aritifact

65
Q

Exercise testing of the lower-extremity arterial system is performed on a treadmill on a __________ grade.

a. 5% to 10%
b. 10% to 12%
c. 12% to 15%
d. 15% to 20%

A

10 to 12%

66
Q

Exercise testing of the lower-extremity arterial system is performed on a treadmill at a speed of ___________ mph.

a. 1 to 2
b. 1.5 to 2
c. 2 to 2.5
d. 2.5 to 3

A

1.5 to 2

67
Q

Ankle pressures that fall after exercise and return to baseline in 5 minutes suggest which one of the following?

a. Normal arterial system
b. Multisegment arterial disease
c. Single-segment occlusive disease
d. Lower-extremity amputation

A

single segment occlusive disease

68
Q

In nondiabetic patients, ischemic skin lesions are not likely to heal if ankle systolic pressure is below __________ mm Hg.

a. 55
b. 45
c. 80
d. 30

A
  • 55mmHg
69
Q

Which ONE of the following veins is difficult to compress during duplex imaging?

a. subclavian
b. brachial
c. popliteal
d. posterior wall

A

Subclavian

70
Q

The left iliac vein is usually mildly compresssed by which ONE of the following anatomic vessels?

a. aorta
b. right iliac artery
c. left iliac artery
d. right renal artery

A

right iliac artery

71
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT one of the three factors of the Virchow triad?

a. hypercoagulability
b. stasis
c. lysis
d. vein injury

A

Lysis

72
Q

The longest vein in the body is which ONE of the following?

a. external iliac
b. superficial femoral
c. popliteal
d. great saphenous

A

Great saphenous

73
Q

Perforating veins connect the superficial and deep venous systems. Blood flow in the perforating veins is normally from the __________ to the __________.

a. superficial system; deep system
b. deep system; superficial system
c. distal veins; central veins
d. central veins; distal veins

A

-superficial system; deep system

74
Q

The characteristics of a normal venous Doppler signal from the lower extremity include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. phasicity
b. spontaneity
c. pulsatility
d. augmentation with distal limb compression

A

Pulsatality

75
Q

The most important diagnostic criterion during venous duplex imaging is which ONE of the following?

a. echo-free lumen
b. lumen filled with echogenic material
c. decreased color filling
d. vein response to transducer compression on the skin

A

vein réponse to transducer compression on the skin

76
Q

The presence of an incompetent venous segment is determined by which ONE of the following?

a. venous reflux less than 1 second
b. venous reflux on augmentation
c. color Doppler filling of the lumen
d. gray-scale image of valve motion

A

Venous reflux on augmentation

77
Q

The superficial femoral vein is a _________ vein.

a. perforating
b. superficial
c. deep
d. complex

A

Deep

78
Q

To obtain venous Doppler signals during venous duplex imaging, using a(n)__________ imaging plane is best.

a. transverse
b. longitudinal
c. oblique
d. inverted

A

-longitudinal

79
Q

Risk factors for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. pregnancy
b. orthopedic surgery
c. baker’s cyst
d. oral contraceptive use

A

Bakers cyst

80
Q

Venous valves are observed in all of the following anatomic structures EXCEPT:

a. greater saphenous vein
b. lesser saphenous vein
c. soleal sinuses
d. gastrocnemius vein

A

Soleal sinuses

81
Q

The common femoral vein lies:

a. in the Hunter’s canal
b. in the Scarpa triangle
c. in the superficial fascia
d. lateral to the common femoral artery

A

In the scarpa triangle

82
Q

Which ONE of the following veins is shorter on the right side, oriented vertically, and ascends posteriorly and then laterally to its companion artery?

a. right superficial femoral
b. right profunda femoris
c. right popliteal
d. right common iliac vein

A

Right common iliac vein

83
Q

The basilica vein is a __________ vein of the __________ extremity.

a. superficial; lower
b. superficial ; upper
c. deep; lower
d. deep; upper

A

Superficial upper

84
Q

Angle correction of the Doppler signal is not necessary during a lower-extremity venous duplex examination because of which ONE of the following reasons?

a. venous velocity is not angle dependent
b. the transverse plane is used in lower-extremity duplex imaging
c. Peak venous velocity does not provide any clinical information in lower-extremity duplex imaging
d. spectral waveform is not required in a lower-extremity venous duplex examination.

A

-Peak venous velocity does not provide an clinical information in lower extremity
duplex imagining

85
Q

Which ONE of the following perforator veins is from the greater saphenous vein in the distal thigh?

a. hunterian
b. boyd
c. dodd
d cockette III

A
  • Dodd
86
Q

Which ONE of the following is the PRIMARY route of venous drainage in the upper extremity?

a. deep venous system
b. axillary vein
c. superficial venous system
d. mammary vein

A

superficial venous system

87
Q

The femoral vein ascends in which of the following locations?

a. lateral thigh
b. lateral calf
c. medial thigh
d. medial calf

A

medial thigh

88
Q

Adequate pressure has been applied to compress a vein when:

a. the patient can no longer tolerate the pressure.
b. the companion artery is deformed.
c. fifty pounds of pressure is applied
d. the companion artery is enlarged

A

the companion artery is deformed

89
Q

A pulsatile venous signal is normal in all of the following veins EXCEPT:

a. subclavian
b. axillary
c. superior vena cava
d. jugular

A

Axillary

90
Q

The compression technique is NOT used for __________ thrombus.

a. partial
b. complete
c. chronic
d. free-floating

A

Free-floating

91
Q

A potentially lethal complication of acute DVT is which ONE of the following?

a. postphlebetic syndrome
b. pulmonary embolism
c. cellulitis
d. venous ulcers

A

Pulmonary embolism

92
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute DVT include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. leg swelling
b. superficial venous dilation
c. palpable subcutaneous cord
d. positive Homan’s sign

A

Palpable subcutaneous cord

93
Q

In the presence of incompetent valves, the sudden release of distal augmentation produces which ONE of the following?

a. no blood flow
b. dynamic antegrade blood flow
c. retrograde blood flow
d. minimal antegrade blood flow

A

retrograde blood flow

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