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ANSC 375 > midterm 2 > Flashcards

midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of an infectious disease?

A

any disease caused by invasion by a pathogen which subsequently grows and multiplies in the body

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2
Q

What are viruses?

A

replicating microorganisms that are among the smallest life form – can cause the most damage out of all the infectious organisms to livestock systems

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3
Q

What are some characteristics about viruses that make them so deadly?

A
  • spread through a population at high rates
  • live in the environment
  • don’t replicate without a host tissue or cells (need a supply from the host)
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4
Q

What is a complete virus particle known as?

A

a virion

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5
Q

What is the goal for a virus?

A

to transfer nucleic acids (DNA/RNA) from one cell to another – all have their own entry/exit methods (rupture = lyses//bud from the cell)

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6
Q

How do viruses spread?

A

locally (cell to cell contact) and cellular (other cellular), free: hematogenous and lymphatic
- can be: a pathogen, opportunistic or adventitial

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7
Q

What is rinderpest?

A
  • paramyxovirus (morbillivirus) (related to distemper, peste de petits ruminants (affecting sheep/goats) and measles)
  • can cause: depression, discharge from the eyes/nose,, diarrhea with or without hemorrhage, mouth ulcers (takes out the epithelium), intestinal lesions (necrosis, hemorrhage/congestion), extra-alimentary lesions, immune depression and respiratory lesions
  • tend to never recover properly, must take into account economic losses and ethical considerations
  • 100% mortality in naive herds
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8
Q

What are some characteristics about bacteria?

A
  • prokaryote (non membrane bound DNA)
  • doesn’t need the host cells to survive
  • can act as a primary decomposer
  • invades host by cells or intercellular spaces
  • can release exotoxins or endotoxins (causing cell death, organ failure and host death)
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9
Q

What is glanders?

A
  • caused by the bacteria burkholderia mallei (used to be called pseudomonas mallei)
  • primary pathogen (can damage the host without an instigator or other host)
  • zoonotic (through saliva)
  • used as a bioweapon in WW1 and WW2
  • causes discoloration in the lung and necrotic debris (blocks lung tissue and airways with debris)
  • fatal
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10
Q

What is atrophic rhinitis?

A
  • a chronic disease of the nasal mucosa
  • opportunistic pathogen
  • face collapses and bloody discharge seen
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11
Q

What are some characteristics of fungi/mold?

A
  • eukaryotic (advanced organism)
  • uptake nutrients from the environment: primary decomposer of dead material
  • reproduce asexually and sexually (mix genes)
  • hyphae = long tubes
  • mycelium = a mat of hyphae
  • yeasts = budding
  • dimorphic fungi: hyphae in the environment, yeast in the host
  • can cause cell and intestinal damage
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12
Q

What is a dimorphic fungus?

A

can exist as mold and yeast

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13
Q

What is cryptococcus neoformans?

A
  • primary pathogen
  • dimorphic fungi
  • only pathogen to mammals
  • seen on vancouver island
  • affects the lungs, CNS and skin
  • very bad in immune compromised people
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14
Q

What is aspergillus?

A
  • an infection caused by a mold (normally from breathing in mold spores)
  • usually only occurs in compromised animals
  • can cause mortality, similar to dimorphic fungi
  • can cause lesions all over the body
  • opportunistic
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15
Q

What are some characteristics of parasites?

A
  • eukaryotes/multicellular
  • endo, ecto and epi (living off another parasite)
  • life cycle can be complex with many development stages and various intermediate hosts
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16
Q

What is screwworm myasis?

A
  • burrow into wounds and eat live tissue (unlike maggots that eat dead tissue)
  • larvae get deposited into the wound (hard to see)
  • after 3 days, bloody, foul discharge is noted
  • animals are depressed, isolated and off feed – will stand in water to alleviate discomfort
  • can affect people (with same clinical signs)
  • western hemisphere: new screwworm // eastern hemisphere: old screwworm
  • can cause secondary infections cause they bring things from the outside environment as they dig (can cause death) – causing pleuritis, peritonitis or sinusitis
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17
Q

What is cystic hydatid disease?

A
  • echinococcus sp
  • e granulosus (large cysts) // e multilocularis (small cysts) – destroys tissue like neoplasia
  • host are carnivores (canines)
  • transfer is through eggs in the feces or by eating infected prey that has hydatid cysts and protocolices
  • intermediate hosts are herbivores (prey)
  • humans are dead end intermediate hosts
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18
Q

What are some examples of periparturient diseases of dairy cows?

A

metritis, mastitis, laminitis, ketosis, milk fever, fatty liver, retained placenta, ruminal acidosis, displaced abomasum, infertility

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19
Q

What are the diagnosis, treatment and prevention philosophies of the reductionist approach?

A

diagnosis philosophy: one metabolite, one disease

treatment: restoring homeostasis of that one perturbed metabolite
prevention: feeding management to restore homeostasis of that single disturbed metabolite
- divides whole things into pieces and studies the details of details (misses the understanding of the whole)

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20
Q

What did one century focus on regarding milk fever?

A
  • calcium metabolism
  • vitamin D isomers
  • parathyroid hormone
  • calcitonin
  • receptors for hormones
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21
Q

What was a treatment for milk fever according to reductionism?

A

calcium borogluconate since it binds with calcium in the blood and buffers it (lowers)

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22
Q

What is the role of calcium during endotoxemia?

A

regulates many cellular processes of the body that are irregular during endotoxemia (aka sepsis) (ex. protein turnover, hormone secretion, muscle tone, etc.)

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23
Q

What are the downsides to the reductionist approach?

A

ignores component to component interactions and the dynamics resulting from them

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24
Q

What new approach is replacing reductionism?

A

systems veterinary medicine (within the last 2 decades)

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25
Q

What is systems veterinary medicine?

A

the science that studies how physiological functions emerge from the interactions between cells and tissues and how this influences the behaviour of these components in the body

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26
Q

What is systems biology?

A

the systems theory describes a biological organism as a system of complex interactions of different elements that can be described with the help of mathematical models (system = think interactions of the parts)

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27
Q

What is disease according to systems medicine?

A

can be perceived as perturbations of complex, integrated genetic, molecular and cellular networks and such complexity necessitates a new approach

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28
Q

What does systems veterinary approach involve?

A

the utilization of genomics, proteomics, transcriptomics and metabolomics sciences (helps to understand disease and develop treatment or preventive strategies)

  • earlier diagnosis of disease (biomarkers)
  • treatment addresses perturbed networks
  • prevention is key
  • focuses on the individual more than the herd
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29
Q

WHat are the 2 main approaches to understanding disease?

A

top down and bottom up

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30
Q

What is the top down approach?

A
  • identifies clinical signs, systems, organs and tissues affected by disease
  • conducts genomics, transcriptomics, proteomics and metabolomic analyses
  • correlates findings with clinical signs and disease
  • develops diagnostic biomarkers of disease
  • develops preventative interventions and new treatments
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31
Q

What is the bottom up approach?

A
  • starts with analyses in various body fluids and tissues
  • determines what are the relations of disturbed networks with clinical signs
  • identifies potential screening biomarkers of disease
  • develops a preventive strategy
  • develops a treatment to reverse clinical signs earlier
  • develops prognostic biomarkers
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32
Q

What are metabolomics?

A

the quantitative analysis of all metabolites in an organism (still in the process of development)
- expensive

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33
Q

What are some examples of sources of metabolites?

A

grain, silage, mineral supplements, water, microbiota (bacteria in the rumen) or medications

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34
Q

What is a metabolite?

A

any compound smaller than 1 kDa (peptides, oligonucleotides, sugars, nucleosides, organic acids, ketones, aldehydes, amines…. etc.)

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35
Q

What is a metabolome?

A

the sum of all metabolites in an organism

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36
Q

What is a dark metabolome?

A

all the metabolites present in a system that are: either not extracted and/or not seen using standard analytical methods or are lost/transformed during extraction

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37
Q

What are the 2 types of metabolomic approaches?

A

targeted and nontargeted

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38
Q

What are targeted metabolomics?

A
  • quantitative approach
  • consists of quantification of a set of known metabolites
  • quantifies metabolites based on a set of analytical standards
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39
Q

What are nontargeted metabolomics?

A
  • the analysis of all possible metabolites present in a given set of samples
  • identifies unknown metabolites
  • does not quantify metabolites
  • enables new areas of metabolism to be identified
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40
Q

What is one of the most common maladies in production animals?

A

diarrhea in newborn calves

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41
Q

What are some signs of rotavirus?

A

watery brown to light green feces, blood and mucus

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42
Q

What are some signs of K 99 ecoli bacteria

A

effortless passing of yellow to white feces

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43
Q

What are some signs of coronavirus?

A

watery, yellow feces

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44
Q

What are some signs of clostridium perfringens type C?

A

sudden death, blood tinged diarrhea

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45
Q

What are some signs of cryptosporidium?

A

watery brown to light green feces, blood and mucus

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46
Q

What are some signs of coccidia?

A

blood-tinged diarrhea

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47
Q

What are some signs of salmonella?

A

similar to ecoli, yellow to white feces and possible blood

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48
Q

What are some contributing factors to diarrhea?

A
  • cold, wet weather
  • poor sanitation
  • crowded housing
  • poor nutrition
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49
Q

What are some ways to treat and prevent diarrhea?

A
  • stress free environment
  • clean environment
  • treat with antimicrobial (protect against secondary infections)
  • fluid and electrolyte therapy (oral and/or IV)
  • colostrum
  • separate healthy from sick animals
  • healthy cows
  • vaccinating cows prior to calving
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50
Q

What is bovine respiratory disease (aka shipping fever pneumonia)?

A
  • associated with the assembly into feedlots of large groups of calves from diverse geographic, nutritional and genetic backgrounds
  • mortality at 5-10% and morbidity at 35%
  • typically seen in calves 7-10 days after assembly in a feedlot
  • stress makes them susceptible
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51
Q

What is infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)?

A

bovine herpes virus-1

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52
Q

What is togavirus?

A

bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV)

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53
Q

What is paramyxovirus?

A

bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV) OR bovine parainfluenza virus (PI-3)

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54
Q

What is the secondary virus to the primary insult of BRD?

A

mycoplasma sp (mycoplasma bovis)

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55
Q

What are some examples of secondary infection to BRD?

A
  • mannheimia (pasteurella) hemolytica
  • histophilus (hemophilus) somni
  • pasteurella multocida
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56
Q

What are b cells?

A

they produce antibodies – bind to pathogen and signal its destruction, membrane bound

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57
Q

What are t cells?

A

CD4: important for the control of immune adaptive immune response
CD8: important for intracellular pathogens and tumors

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58
Q

What are the 5 strategies of inducing disease (evasion of innate immunity)?

A
  1. interference of the physical barrier
  2. interference with phagocytosis
  3. interference with intracellular killing
  4. interference with INF (interferons)
  5. regulation of apoptosis
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59
Q

What does bovine herpes 1 do?

A

infects the respiratory epithelium and goblet cells (mucous producers) and allows pathogens to invade the nasopharynx
- produces proteins that inhibits cellular processees and down regualtes MHC-2 and antigen presented in MCH-1 molecules and therefore escaptes CTL induced cell death

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60
Q

What is mannheimia (pasteurella) hemolytica?

A

produces an exotoxin (leukotoxin) that binds to b2 integrins and kills macrophages and neutrophils AND binds to CD18 on lymphocytes and inactivates and often destroys lymphocytes

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61
Q

What is histophilus (hemophilus) somni?

A

when engulfed by phagocytic cells, it induces apoptosis and reduces capacity of phagocytosis
- releases an exopolysaccharide that may impair intracellular phagocytic mechanisms

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62
Q

What is bovine parainfluenza 3 (PI-3)?

A

allows pathogenic bacteria to propagate by inhibiting the superoxide anion production in alveolar macrophages

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63
Q

What is histophilus (hemophilus) somni?

A

it evades the superoxide aniona nd nitric-oxide (reduces pathogen and phagocyte cell contact/interaction)
- secretes proteins that bind to IgG2 antibodies in a nonspecific manner

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64
Q

What is mycoplasma bovis?

A

it impairs intracellular signalling to alter a myeloperodixase enzymatic response

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65
Q

What is bovine herpes virus-1 (IBR)?

A

it infects a cell and produces a protein that induces the degradation of INF protein response factor (IRF3) needed for IFN promoter activation (impaired INF production)

  • induces apoptosis in epithelial cells at the end of viral replication
  • CD4 losses and lympholysis
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66
Q

What is bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV)?

A

the amino terminal of BVDV virus inhibits (IRF3) from binding to the IFN promoter

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67
Q

What are the 7 ways to evade adaptive immunity?

A
  1. suppression of lymphocyte proliferation
  2. induction of humoral and cellular immune tolerance
  3. down regulation of MHC-2 molecules
  4. inhibition of antibody production and antibody effectiveness
  5. loss of CD4 t cell function (loss of CD4 molecules will alter immune function)
  6. interference with cytotoxic t cell (CTL) function
  7. shut down protein synthesis
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68
Q

What is the mucosal disease?

A

in calves, bovine viral diarrhea virus in its noncytopathic form infects the fetus and replicates in tissues unrestricted

  • doesn’t amount an immune response
  • induces immunotolerance and tolerized CD4 tcells
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69
Q

What does MHC-2 do?

A

it is needed to activate CD4-tcells and provide help to B cells

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70
Q

What does leukotoxin of mannheimia (pasteurella) hemolytica do?

A

decreasews the expression of MHC-2 molecules on antigen presenting cells, allowing the organism to grow in tissue

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71
Q

What does pasteurella multocida do?

A

secretes proteases that degrade IgG antibodies which may be helpful in tissue colonization

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72
Q

What do MHC-1 molecules do?

A

they are needed for CD8 t cells to eliminate virally infected cells

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73
Q

How does BHV1 affects proteins?

A

it produces a shut off virion host protein that reduces protein synthesis by degrading mRNA of cellular protein

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74
Q

What is one way to change the pathogen (induces disease)?

A
  1. antigenic variation (a shift) – since organisms can change the structure of surface membranes
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75
Q

What is the focal point of an investigation and the critical part of making decisions into animal disease?

A

focal point: making a diagnosis

critical part in making decisions: the clinical examination of the individual animal or group of animals

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76
Q

What are the 3 aspects of the expression clinical examination?

A
  1. the animal
  2. the environment
  3. the history
    - inadequate examination of these leads to error (need to do all 3 properly)
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77
Q

What is the equation for treat vs not to treat (decision tree)?

A

(value as patient aka survival, salvage, emotional attachment) x (% probability of survival with treatment) - (cost of treatment aka care and after care labour) = net present worth aka $$$ in pocket and/or emotional credits

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78
Q

What are the 9 body systems?

A
  1. respiratory
  2. cardiovascular
  3. musculoskeletal
  4. neurological
  5. gastrointestinal
  6. integument (skin)
  7. endocrine/metabolic
  8. urogenital (male/female)
  9. hematology/immunology
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79
Q

What does the acronym VINDICATE stand for?

A 
V: vascular
I: infectious
N: neoplasia
D: degenerate
I: inflammation/idiopathic
C: congenital
A: autoimmune
T: traumatic
E: endocrine/metabolic 
***Missing: toxin
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80
Q

What is edema?

A

when there is not enough protein due to intestinal issues (can’t maintain oncotic pressure)
- swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body’s tissues

81
Q

What is the definition of zoonosis?

A

any infectious disease that may be transmitted from animal to man or man to animals
OR
a disease communicable from animals to human under natural conditions

82
Q

What is the definition of zooanthroponosis?

A

the transmission of disease from man to animal

83
Q

What is the definition of anthropozoonosis?

A

the transmission of disease from animal to man

84
Q

What are emerging infectious diseases?

A

diseases of infectious origin whose incidence in humans has increased in the last 2 decades or threatens to increase in the near future

85
Q

What are the 3 broad groups of emerging disease agent categories?

A
  1. previously known agents in a new geographic location (bad situation)
  2. known agent presenting in a previously unsusceptible species (a naive species)
  3. previously unknown agent detected for the first time (always present, never identified) (bad situation)
86
Q

How many known human pathogens are there?

A

1415

87
Q

How many pathogens have animal origin?

A

61.6% or about 878

88
Q

What are 6 factors that impact emerging diseases?

A
  1. human demographics and behaviour
  2. technology and industry
  3. economic land use and development
  4. international (local) travel and commerce
  5. microbial adaptation and change
  6. disruption (changes) of public health measures
89
Q

What is R0?

A

the reproduction number (equal to or larger than 1)

90
Q

What is the definition of maintenance in disease?

A

each new host has to be a source infection for at least one other host to maintain disease in the population

91
Q

What is the definition of propagation in disease?

A

each new host has to be a source infection for more than one other host to propagate the disease in the population

92
Q

What are 5 way disease propagation and magnitude of disease outbreak can be altered/occur?

A
  1. population density
  2. time point an duration of contact
  3. host susceptibility
  4. transmissibility of the agent/agent virulence
  5. host infectiousness
93
Q

Spatial vs temporal components

A

spatial: distance/geographical
temporal: move across space/time

94
Q

What is another name for influenza?

A

orthomyxovirus

95
Q

What are the 3 main types of orthomyxovirus and what are their characteristics?

A
  1. type A (most virulent): affects multiple species
  2. type b: affects humans
  3. type c: affects humans and swine
96
Q

What is influenza A?

A
  • affects man, pigs, horses, dogs and birds
  • the avian species are the natural host
  • most virulent
  • classified on surgace antigens (16 types of hemagglutinin which bind the virus to the cell and 9 types of neraminidase which cleave neuraminic acid from mucin allowing viral release from the cell)
  • currently only prevalent types are H1N1, H1N2 and H3N2
97
Q

What is the difference between low and high paths for pathogenic viruses?

A

low path: very mild illness in poultry and rarely affects man (most influenza A) ***all have the potential to be converted to a high path
high path: high mortality in ducks and poultry and can be a severe to fatal disease in man

98
Q

What is influenza B?

A
  • mainly affects people

- symptoms tend to be less severe

99
Q

What is the seasonal vaccine usually composed of?

A

2 strains of influenza A and 1 strain of influenza B

100
Q

What is influenza C?

A
  • occurs in humans and swine
  • rare
  • mild symptoms
  • most are seropositive by the age of 15
101
Q

What are some characteristics of fowl plague?

A
  • highly infectious
  • mortality is near 100% (sudden death)
  • death occurs 2-12 days after clinical signs
  • CNS signs
  • drop in egg production
  • symptoms include: swollen feet (congestion/edema), lung congestion/hemorrhage/edema and swollen combs (blue/cyanotic)
102
Q

What is an antigenic shift?

A

the mixing of genes from influenza viruses from different species (pigs/birds/humans)

103
Q

What is an antigenic drift?

A

the accumulation of a series of minor genetic mutations

104
Q

What are some characteristics of swine flu?

A
  • depression
  • anorexia
  • pyrexia (fever)
  • cough
  • muscular weakness
  • mucous discharge from conjunctiva (nose)
105
Q

What are 5 ways of treating disease?

A
  1. supportive
  2. antiviral
  3. vaccinations
  4. quarantine
  5. slaughter hosts
106
Q

What are TSE’s?

A

transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are a family of diseases of humans and animals characterized by spongy degeneration of the brain with severe and fatal neurological signs and symptoms
- cannot be cured

107
Q

What are the 3 theories of TSE?

A
  1. virus: a virus with unusual biochemical and biophysical characteristics
  2. prion: exclusively produce host protein which becomes protease resistant (post translational conformational modification) – the prion can thencatalyze further modifications in the other host protine. there are no non-hosts involved components of the agent
  3. virion: a host derived protein coat and a small non-coding regulatory nucleic acid

***normally, proteins don’t replicate only amino acids do

108
Q

What are prions?

A
  • progressive and fatal
  • miss folding and cyclic amplification of proteins
  • autocatalytic (aggregates, difficult to degrade)
  • resembles alzheimers, parkinsons and huntingtons disease
109
Q

How do prions function in regards to neurons?

A
  • works in adhesion and signaling (intracellular)
  • synapses the growth factor
  • survival through pro and anti apoptosis
  • copper binding in presynaptic membrane and during oxidative stress
110
Q

How do prions function in regards to neural and hematopoietic stem cells?

A
  • increases cell proliferation in neuron rich regions (ex. germ layers in the bone marrow)
  • targets stem cells to appropriate area for differentiation (co-receptor – helps primary functions)
111
Q

How do prions function in regards to t cell activation?

A
  • use copper binding in the thymus
112
Q

How do prions function in regards to other leukocytes

A
  • get expressed on monocyte/lymphocyte lineages
  • enhance leukocyte homing to inflammation (could end up bad)
  • modulates phagocytosis
113
Q

What are the 2 theories of how abnormal prions cause injury to the host?

A
  1. if an abnormal prion is anchored into the cell (neurotoxic)
  2. if a metabolite from the transformation of a normal to an abnormal prion has a negative effect on the neuronal membrane
114
Q

What is tissue tropism of prions? (what tissue it affects)

A
  • nervous tissue (CNS and PNS)

- lymphoid tissue (mainly in the secondary tissue)

115
Q

What are prion diseases categorized as?

A
  • slow and unconventional viruses

- transmissible spongiform encephalopathy

116
Q

What is a normal prion?

A

PrPc

  • cell surface
  • necessary for protein infection
  • alpha helices
117
Q

What is the disease causing form of prions?

A

PrPcwd

  • aggregate of prion proteins in a different structure
  • resistant to protease digestion
  • same amino acid sequence as PrPc
  • enriched in beta sheet
118
Q

What are some examples of prion diseases (x3)?

A

scrapie, BSE, CWD

119
Q

Which prion diseases are zoonotic?

A

not scrapie, YES BSE, no evidence that CWD can transmit to humans (but not too sure if it can or cannot)

120
Q

What is the most contagious prion (brain) disease?

A

CWD (always fatal, no treatment and no cure)

- has multiple strains

121
Q

What is a characteristic of all prion diseases?

A

has a long preclinical (long incubation period) - takes years to go from infected to clinical stages

122
Q

How are prion diseases transferred from animal to animal?

A

in saliva, feces and urine (also in CNS)

123
Q

When is the infectious agent of CWD present in lymph tissue and saliva?

A

strong that its present early on – as early as 3 months post oral infection

124
Q

How does CWD affect mortality rates?

A

4.5x more likely to die than uninfected animals

125
Q

What region of the brain is tested for CWD?

A

Obex region – can have the highest level (not normally much in the brain in the early stages)

126
Q

Where should you test/look at for CWD?

A

retropharyngeal lymph node tissue (by jaw)

127
Q

Where can you biopsy live tissue for CWD?

A

rectal tissue/tonsils

128
Q

What is brain tissue often tested for?

A

BSE and scrapie

129
Q

What is lymph tissue often tested for?

A

CWD

130
Q

How can we use protease K?

A
  • uninfected tissue with it shows theres no prion protein (nothing)
  • infected tissue with it show abnormal form of prion protein
131
Q

How are abnormal protons tested?

A

PMCA, RT QuIC, western blot or ELISA based

132
Q

What helps uptake prions?

A

compliment receptors on dendritic cells

133
Q

What do b and t cells do for prions?

A

uptake help transport to other areas of the body (ex. lymph)

134
Q

What innervates the lymphoid tissue?

A

the ANS (goes to the brain/spinal cord)

135
Q

What kind of injury does TSE cause?

A

CNS spongiform vacuolation and neuronal cell, microglial activation and astrocyte proliferation

136
Q

What is TSE characterized by?

A
  • prolonged incubation for months or even years
  • progressive neurological illness (100% mortality rates)
  • presence of scrapie associated fibrils (neural plaques)
  • vacuolation of neural tissue
  • rare but potential inflammation in the brain
137
Q

What are some human diseases associated with TSE?

A
  • kuru
  • creutzfeldt-jakob disease (CJD) (forms: familial, sporadic or iatrogenic)
  • gerstmann-straussler-scheinker syndrome (GSS)
  • fatal familial insomnia (FFI)
138
Q

What is kuru?

A
  • in new guinnea
  • human cannibalism
  • ritual eating of body parts, particularly the brain
  • mostly in women and children and some elderly
  • long incubation period
139
Q

What is CJD?

A
  • uncommon
  • usually happens to old people (over 65 years old)
  • spontaneous form most common, then genetic then iatrogenic
  • symptoms include dementia and myoclonus (jerky motions)
140
Q

What is new variant CJD?

A
  • contaminated meat products
  • zoonotic
  • vacuolation of neurons and large plaque like aggregates of prion protein
  • affected younger people
  • succumbed after about 13-14 months
  • varied from CJD since it had a new neuropathological EEG and epidemiology (circumstantial and animal model evidence) profile as compared to CJD
141
Q

What is the cow form of TSE?

A

bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease)

142
Q

What is the sheep form of TSE?

A

scrapies

143
Q

What is the wild ruminant form of TSE?

A

elk and deer: chronic wasting disease (CWD)

144
Q

What is the mink form of TSE?

A

mink spongiform encephalopathy

145
Q

What is the cat form of TSE?

A

feline spongiform encephalopathy (same strain as BSE in cattle)

146
Q

What other animals can be infected by TSE? (x4)

A
  • pigs
  • goats
  • mice/marmoset
  • monkeys
147
Q

Why does BSE occur and what is it?

A
  • affected dairy cows initially
  • due to the improper rendering of cattle products (in an attempt to reduce costs) by removal of solvent extraction that included steam heat treatment
148
Q

How is BSE transmitted?

A

(2 possibilities):

  1. cattle fed rendered sheep products
  2. spontaneous mutation developed due to prion and fed back to cattle
    - - can also be transmitted maternally but is uncommon (unsure if true transmission or just genetic)
149
Q

When did the US and Canada ban ruminant products fed back to ruminants?

A

1997

150
Q

How is BSE conclusively determined?

A

by taking tissue from the brain in the obex (necropsy)

151
Q

What is scrapie?

A
  • TSE in sheep and gotas
  • reportable
  • higher in black faced sheep
  • vertical transmission from mother to fetus (through placenta and amniotic fluids)
152
Q

What makes sheep susceptible to scrapie?

A

sheep with glutamine of histidine at codon 171 or valine at codon 136 are susceptible – VRQ/VRQ

153
Q

What makes sheep resistant to scrapie?

A

if arginine is present at codon 171 or alanine at codon 136 (/154) – ARR/ARR

154
Q

What is the most common cause of scrapie?

A

glutamine change

155
Q

What is the cause and symptoms of mink encephalopathy?

A
  • cased by feeding scrapie of BSE infected parts in the diet
  • rapid incubation
  • symptoms include: aggressive behaviour, ataxia, tremors, difficulty eating and rapid circling
156
Q

What is CWD most common in?

A

mule deer (not as much white tailed deer but still present) and more common in bucks than does

157
Q

How is CWD transmitted?

A

directly and indirectly

158
Q

What is the sip allele?

A

the scrapie incubation period gene (aka prp gene) – sinc in mice

159
Q

Which animals are susceptible to CWD?

A

mule deer, white tailed deer, elk, moose, caribou (not seen in NA though)

160
Q

What is the purpose of the stamping out policy?

A

to maintain disease free status

  • no trade embargos
  • prevents pathogen amplification and geological spread of disease by moving animals
161
Q

What does stamping out entail?

A
  • early detection of disease
  • rapid killing of all known animals
  • tracing all known contacts
  • application of herd quarantine
  • testing risk populations
  • application of preemptive slaughter and welfare slaughter
  • possibly vaccination
162
Q

What are 5 public concerns for the stamping out policy?

A
  1. waste of food during global hunger
  2. animal suffering on the farm due to conditions that develop secondary to animal movement restrictions
  3. environmental costs to carcass disposal
  4. challenge associated with humane killing under field conditions
  5. the act itself (we don’t like mass killing animals)
163
Q

What are some direct costs of stamping out?

A
  • personnel
  • compensation for animals destroyed
  • carcass disposal
164
Q

What are some indirect costs of stamping out?

A

losses incurred to individual or industry (farms/export/tourism etc.)

165
Q

What are some reasons of welfare slaughter?

A
  • overcrowding
  • deteriorating conditions on the farm
  • costs
166
Q

What is foot and mouth disease?

A
  • contagious and viral
  • affects cloven hoofed animals
  • caused by a picornavirus
  • causes drooling, ulcerations, tender and sore feet, etc.
167
Q

What is another name for classical swine fever?

A

hog cholera (basically BVD in pigs)

168
Q

What is the definition of biosecurity?

A

the prevention of foreign animal disease, principles extend to managing and preventing everyday disease risks faced in production units and a clinic

169
Q

What is the range of biosecurity?

A

all encompassing, extending from mitigation of international bioterrorism to standards in laboratory operating procedures

170
Q

What 3 things does biosecurity include?

A
  • precautions taken to reduce the risk of exposure to disease
  • preventing introduction of infectious disease
  • minimizing the risk of disease transmission (between: animals, premises, contiguous regions and between species of animals)
171
Q

What are the 3 pillars of biosecurity?

A
  1. access management
  2. animal management
  3. operational management
172
Q

What is animal health management?

A

programs that limit the risk of either introducing a disease or transmission of endemic disease

173
Q

What is operational management?

A

day to day responsibilities (laundry, dress codes, cleanliness, etc.)

174
Q

What is access management?

A

the physical control we have over how disease gains entry onto a premise

175
Q

What is biosecurity all about?

A

controlling microorganisms within facilities/operations

176
Q

What is stasis?

A

inhibits reproduction and growth

177
Q

What is cidal?

A

kills microorganisms

178
Q

What is the definition of hygiene?

A

a science of the establishment and maintenance of health, conditions or practices (as of cleanliness) conducive to health

179
Q

What is the definition of sanitation?

A

the promotion of hygiene and prevention of disease by maintenance of clean conditions, especially via the disposal of waste

180
Q

What are commercial sanitizers?

A

compounds that reduce numbers of microorganisms (usually 99.9% in 30 second contact time)

181
Q

What is a disinfectant?

A

a chemical that destroys vegetative forms of microorganisms especially on inanimate objects (non living tissues) but may be less effective at destroying bacterial spores
- better than sanitizers

182
Q

What is an antiseptic?

A

a chemical germicide formulated for use on skin and tissue (living tissue)

183
Q

What is alcohol good against?

A

bacteria but not against sapores and has short contact time, inactivated in organic material

184
Q

What are aldehydes good at?

A

good microbial, sporicidal and fungicidal, partly inactivated by organic material

185
Q

What are halogens and what are they good for?

A
  • chlorine, iodine, sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
    bleach: good bactericidal, antivirus activity, antiparisitic, modest organic debris penetration
    iodine (betadine): excellent surgical scrub
186
Q

What are oxidizing agents?

A

peracetic acid potassium permanganate, potassium peroxymonosulfate: oxidizes the cell membrane and leads to cell lysis

187
Q

What is virkon?

A

potassium peroxymonosulfate

- excellent antibacterial, viral and fungal and has good organic material penetration

188
Q

What are phenols?

A
  • the oldest disinfectant

- denatures protein, good antibacterial

189
Q

What are quaternary ammonia compounds?

A
  • amphoteric surfactants

- broad spectrum, good against most bacteria (not pseudomonas), fungi and enveloped viruses

190
Q

What are 3 ways to control microorganisms?

A
  • clean
  • disinfect/sanitize
  • sterilize
  • **disinfection and sterilization must have precleaning
191
Q

Cleaning vs sterilization vs disinfection

A

cleaning: removal of debris
sterilization: the killing or removal of all organisms, including spores
disinfection: removes up to 99.9% of organisms present that can cause infection or disease

192
Q

What are some ways to sterilize?

A
  • steam with autoclave
  • dry heat with flaming a loop
  • ethylene oxide gas for surgical instruments
  • peracetic acid for water lines
  • vaporized hydrogen peroxide for electronics
  • glutaraldehyde for a cold sterilization
193
Q

Why wash a pig barn after the animals leave?

A

it removes bacteria, viruses and parasites left behind by the previous batch of pigs

194
Q

What does dose dependent mean?

A

that the more pathogens an animal is exposed to, the sicker they’ll be

195
Q

What are 4 examples of external contamination?

A

rodents, birds, flies and humans

196
Q

What are the principles of quarantine?

A
  • strict biosecurity/containment
  • observation and testing
  • introduction to the herd/flock or release from quarantine when safe (epidemiology modeling for sample size, based on sensitivity/specificity of tests)
197
Q

What 2 things control zoning?

A

geography (mountains/oceans) and politics (trade restrictions)

198
Q

What types of animals will Canada accept from other countries?

A

will not accept vaccinated animals from countries with endemic diseases and will evaluate whether to accept vaccinated animals from a normally disease free country

ANSC 375 (3 decks)

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