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Pharma > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action?

A

Droperidol

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2
Q

It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats, and horses

A

Acepromazine

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3
Q

In the absence of special label instructions, the multi-dose injections can be used … days after being opened for the first time

A

28

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4
Q

What if “GMP”?

A

Good Manufacturing Practice

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5
Q

Sedative drug with no analgesic properties, but it potentiate the effect of analgesics

A

Acepromazine

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6
Q

Which animal species is the most sensitive to Xylazine?

A

Cattle

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7
Q

Which type of alterations can be caused by mutagens on the chromosomes?

A

(BOTH)

Numerical abnormalities
Structural abnormalities

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8
Q

Which examinations are carried out according to GCP rules?

A

Human and veterinary clinical drug examination

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9
Q

Pre- and post narcotic excitation is the least frequently seen when using this inhalational drug

A

Sevoflurane

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10
Q

Is can cause penile prolapse in male swine

A

Azeperone

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11
Q

When applying this anaesthetic, the animal shows signs of catalepsy; it’s muscles are usually rigid, hypertonic

A

Ketamine

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12
Q

What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension?

A

Solid

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13
Q

What kind of examinations has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP?

A

Preclinical examinations: toxicology (?), kinetics, and residual drug examination

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14
Q

The injections have to be always

A

Sterile

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15
Q

What is the extracting agent to prepare extract?

A

Watery/ alcoholic / both

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16
Q

Which ointment is not washable with water?

A

Paraffin ointment

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17
Q

Alpha-2 agonist; which is not used in horses?

A

Medetomidine

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18
Q

Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to dehydrated animals:

A

Acepromazine

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19
Q

Which drug causes cardiovascular depression?

A

Propofol

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20
Q

Which matrices are investigated in a pharmacokinetic examination?

A

Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs

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21
Q

Their sedative effect is less related to the applied dose

A

Tranquilizers

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22
Q

This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for administration to patient with epilepsy

A

Acepromazine

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23
Q

Which group has analgesic effect?

A

Alpha-2 agonists

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24
Q

This ultra-short acting barbiturate can be re-administered within one day

A

Methohexital

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25
Q

What is the formulation type of Cremor aqueous?

A

Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream

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26
Q

Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies?

A

Following of the unwanted side effect after authorisation

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27
Q

Thiopental can be administered

A

IV

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28
Q

The solid matter content of liquid extraction is

A

50%

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29
Q

Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents?

A

Fluanisone

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30
Q

Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test?

A

Mutagenicity

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31
Q

The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation

A

Thiamilal

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32
Q

The micro nucleus test:

A

Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity

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33
Q

Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons?

A

Hard paraffin

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34
Q

Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base?

A

Cocoa butter

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35
Q

Sedative drug with no analgesic properties

A

Chloropromazine

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36
Q

Alpha-1 agonist NOT used in horses

A

Medetomidine

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37
Q

Serious tissue irritation is not a characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM

A

Ketamine

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38
Q

Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment?

A

White Vaseline

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39
Q

Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administered in lactating cows?

A

Every 8-12 hours

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40
Q

Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?

A

Dissolves at BT

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41
Q

It increases the release of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animals

A

Chloropromazine

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42
Q

Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase?

A

Field trial

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43
Q

Which statement is not true?

A

The sterility and pyrogen free are not special requirement for injections

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44
Q

The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on

A

2 animal species

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45
Q

Sedative that decreases BP, hence cannot be administered on dehydrated animals

A

Acepromazine

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46
Q

What is the goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research?

A

Determination of mechanism…

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47
Q

In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can act as an antidote?

A

Naloxone

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48
Q

Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action

A

Acepromazine

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49
Q

What is the formulation type suspension terpini?

A

Aqueous suspension

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50
Q

This base ointment is applicable of O / W type of ointments

A

Hydrophilic ointment

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51
Q

Butyrphenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction

A

Azeperone

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52
Q

Which effect is characteristic for Medetomidine?

A

Muscle relaxant activity

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53
Q

In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation (?) the data of clinical trials according to EUDRALEX requirements?

A

Part 4

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54
Q

Their sedative effect is well related to to the applied dose

A

Alpha-2-RC-agonists

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55
Q

Their dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medicinal plants

A

Tincture

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56
Q

Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?

A

Edible tissues, milk, egg, honey

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57
Q

The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation

A

Metomidate

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58
Q

Which ointment is washable with water?

A

Hydrophilic ointment

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59
Q

What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion?

A

Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration

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60
Q

Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine

A

Butorphenol

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61
Q

Which statement is not true?

A

Butyophenones cause hypnosis in high doses

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62
Q

What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion?

A

Hydrophilic / lipophilic / both

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63
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect

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64
Q

Its important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression, and hypotension

A

Fentanyl

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65
Q

Injectable anaesthetic, it’s re-administration is prohibited

A

Thiopental

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66
Q

Whe sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which of the following

A

Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system

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67
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibres release _____, postganglionic parasympathetic fibres release _____ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibres release ____ (for adrenergic receptors)

A

ACh, ACh, NE

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68
Q

Which of the following Adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic?

A

Alpha-2

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69
Q

Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulator?

A

Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:noepi

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70
Q

What amino acids are converted into catecholamines (NE, epi, dopamine)?

A

Tyrosine

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71
Q

Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a protein antiporter?

A

Dopamine

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72
Q

Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?

A

Norepinephrine

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73
Q

Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potential leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis?

A

Postsynaptic sympathetic

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74
Q

Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for drug action?

A

NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft

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75
Q

NET is a symporter of what ion?

A

Na+

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76
Q

Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination?

A

NE

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77
Q

Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than the others?

A

Dopamine (DA)

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78
Q

Where is the cytosol IC catecholamine metabolising enzyme catechol-O-methy transferase (COMT) primarily found?

A

Liver

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79
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?

A

Beta-1 (Gs)

80
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes causes smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?

A

Alpha-1 (Gq/ Gi/ Go)

81
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronograph (rate) and inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases renin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?

A

Beta-1 (Gs)

82
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic b-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle?

A

Alpha-2 (Gi / Go)

83
Q

What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with ardenylyl cyclase?

A

Beta and alpha 2

84
Q

What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC)?

A

Alpha-1

85
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanism is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine?

A

Promoting release of norepinephrine

86
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors?

A

Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

87
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclics antidepressants and cocaine?

A

Inhibiting reputable of norepinephrine

88
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of catecholamines?

A

Non-polar

89
Q

The basic caricature of a catecholamine involves a catecholamine ring and which of the following types of amines?

A

Ethyl amine

90
Q

Which of the following are long-acting (oral) a1-agonist and not a short-acting (nasal spray, ophthalmic drops) a1-agonist?

A

Pseudoephedrine

91
Q

Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for patients with epistaxis (pascal pack soaked in drug)?

A

Isoproterenol

92
Q

Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anaesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood flow to the site of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the web space?

A

Epinephrine

93
Q

Which of the following is the a1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and surgery, giving my Dias is (dilation of the iris)?

A

Phenylephrine

94
Q

Alpha-2 agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing sympathetic tone and increasing vagaries tone. Which of the following is NOT an a2 agonist?

A

Epinephrine

95
Q

At the adrenergic synapse, what does alpha-2 do?

A

Inhibits NE release

96
Q

Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay premature labour?

A

Beta-2 agonist

97
Q

Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure?

A

Beta-1 agonist

98
Q

Which of the following is NOT a Beta-2 agonist?

A

Phenylephedrine

99
Q

Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion?

A

K+

100
Q

Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at a low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activated?

A

Alpha 1

101
Q

Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receptors from being coupled with G-protein?

A

Phosphorylation

102
Q

Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine?

A

Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

103
Q

Tricyclics antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the following is the action of TCAs?

A

Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

104
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic?

A

Phenylepherine

105
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromatoma (neuroendocrine tumour of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?

A

Alpha-blocker

106
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication for b-blocker therapy?

A

Hypotension

107
Q

Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humour secretions from the ciliary body?

A

Metoprolol

108
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered cardio selective?

A

Carvedilol

109
Q

Blocking a2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?

A

Stimulate NE release

110
Q

Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT?

A

Propranolol

111
Q

Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of an a1 agonist drug?

A

Hypertension

112
Q

Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn or quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?

A

A2-agonist

113
Q

Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth( in 50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nausea, dizziness, and sleep disturbances?

A

A2-agonist

114
Q

Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycaemia in diabetics?

A

B2 agonist

115
Q

Angina pectorals, tachycardia, and arrhythmia are possible adverse effects of which of the following agonists?

A

B1 agonists

116
Q

If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the following acute responses is most likely?

A

Stimulation os NE release

117
Q

Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with increased guanethidine (Sympathomimetic)?

A

Stimulation of NE release

118
Q

Major adverse effects of the a1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following?

A

Orthostatic hypotension

119
Q

Which of the following effects would be intensified with the a2 blockade?

A

Reflex tachycardia

120
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the b1 blockade?

A

Increased arrhythmia

121
Q

Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that had been associated with sudden termination of b1 blockers?

A

Sudden death

122
Q

Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse side effect seen in b2 blockers?

A

Asthmatics

123
Q

Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycaemia?

A

B2 blocker

124
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Innervation os vascular smooth muscle

125
Q

Where is acetyl CoA synthesised (pre-synthesis for ACh)?

A

Mitochondria

126
Q

Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?

A

Blood plasma

127
Q

What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?

A

ACh decrease

128
Q

ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiporter?

A

H+

129
Q

Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?

A

Ca2+

130
Q

Nicotine N2 receptors are the ______ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ______ subtype.

A

Neuronal; muscular

131
Q

Which of the following best describe the drug nicotine?

A

Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist

132
Q

Amanita muscaria (fly amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonistic, which is most often associated with which side effect?

A

Hallucinations

133
Q

Which of the following G-proteins is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilising internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade?

A

Gq

134
Q

Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity

A

Gi

135
Q

The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are:

A

Muscarinic agonists

136
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?

A

Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions

137
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?

A

Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity

138
Q

What is betanechol most commonly used for?

A

For urinary retention

139
Q

What is pilocarpine most commonly used for?

A

Decreasing intraocular pressure

140
Q

Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?

A

Mydriasis

141
Q

What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

142
Q

What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly nightshade)

A

Atropine

143
Q

What two clinical results of atropine facilitate ophthalmoscopes examination?

A

Mydriasis and cycloplegia

144
Q

Which of the following is an adverse effect of atropine?

A

Blurred vision

145
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine toxicity?

A

Wet as a towel

146
Q

Which of the following topical opthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness (injection, oral, or transdermal patch)

A

Scopolamine

147
Q

Of the following mydriasis / cycloplegics ____ lasts 7-10 days (longest) and _____ last 6 hours (shortest)

A

Atropine; Tropicamide

148
Q

Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anaesthetic are metabolised by BuChE (e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)?

A

Ester

149
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication?

A

Physostigmine

150
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anaesthesia?

A

Neostigmine

151
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Donepezil

152
Q

Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for myasthenia gravis?

A

Physostigmine

153
Q

Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AChE inhibitors)

A

Tacrine

154
Q

By what mechanism do irreversible AChE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme?

A

Phosphorylation

155
Q

A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs, and acetylcholine esterase inhibitor, and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote). What two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?

A

Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)

156
Q

Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40 hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of Soman?

A

6 minutes

157
Q

What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down the entire ANS) still available in the United States?

A

Mecamylamine

158
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?

A

Hypertension

159
Q

Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine

A

Succinylcholine

160
Q

How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?

A

Stimulate opening and closing of nicotinic ACh receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarisation of the cell membrane

161
Q

What are the adverse effects of anticholinesterases?

A

Bradycardia

162
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumour of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?

A

Alpha-blocker

163
Q

Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?

A

Stimulate NE release

164
Q

In cats is it a useful emetic drug

A

Xylazine

165
Q

Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females

A

Acepromazine

166
Q

Only effective according to IV application

A

Propofol

167
Q

Of these four injectable anaesthetics, which one is effective after I’m administration

A

Ketamine

168
Q

In dogs, the primarily chosen drug in status epileptics

A

Diazepam

169
Q

Contraindicated in epileptic patients

A

Acepromazine

170
Q

In medicine, they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well

A

Butorphanol

171
Q

Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs?

A

Flumazenil

172
Q

“Slower to act” transmitters in the CNS

A

Enkephalins

173
Q

Ultra short acting barbiturate

A

Thiopental

174
Q

Apply the letter code of the drug preparation type to the drug products below

A

???

175
Q

Which one cannot attribute of ointments?

A

Does dissolve on body temperature

176
Q

How frequent should the intra-mammary infusions be re-applied in the case of lactating cows?

A

Every 8-12 hours

177
Q

What does “hypnotic” effect of a substance mean?

A

Causes sleeping

178
Q

Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle

A

Emulsion

179
Q

Sedative drug with no analgesic properties

A

Chloropromazine

180
Q

Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies

A

Repeated-dose toxicity studies

181
Q

Inhalation anaesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic, and immunologic effect, lead to it’s being banned in EU

A

Halothane

182
Q

Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses

A

Acepromazine

183
Q

This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy

A

Acepromazine

184
Q

Gels are dosage forms with the following attribute

A

It’s vehicle is gel of other origins

185
Q

Duration of action of thiopental

A

5-10 minutes

186
Q

Because of it’s anxiolytics effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g. stress-related colitis)

A

Diazepam

187
Q

Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to seriously dehydrated animals

A

Azepromazine

188
Q

Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine?

A

Flumazenil

189
Q

Duration of action of propofol

A

5-8 minutes

190
Q

How long is the tested substance applied to the expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies?

A

2 years

191
Q

A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties

A

Butorphanol

192
Q

In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently?

A

Rabbit

193
Q

Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates

A

Respiratory depression

194
Q

Which of the following administrations of diazepam would you recommend in a case of status epilepticus?

A

Rectal

195
Q

Effect characteristics for medetomidine

A

Muscle relaxant activity

196
Q

It is a GSH-category?

A

Highly toxic

Pharma (3 decks)

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