Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Why is the body of the microscope never lowered while looking through the ocular lens?

A

This is to ensure that the objective lens and slide are not damaged by the forceful contact between the two \

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2
Q

What does the iris diaphragm do?

A

It adjusts the amount of light coming through the specimen

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3
Q

What does the coarse adjustment do?

A

It is used to bring the specimen into view

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4
Q

What does the fine adjustment do?

A

It is used to bring the specimen into sharp focus

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5
Q

What does the condenser do?

A

It directs the light from the light source into the lens system

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6
Q

What does the mechanical stage do?

A

It controls the position of the specimen over the central opening in the stage

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7
Q

What is the reason for the inability to bring the specimen into sharp focus?

A
  • insufficient or an excess amount of oil on the slide

- failure to position the fine adjustment at the midpoint of its range prior to focusing with coarse adjustment

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8
Q

What is the fix for insufficient light going into the lens system?

A

Raising the Abbe condenser completely and adjusting the iris diaphragm

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9
Q

Why are thick and dense smears bad in staining?

A
  • thick smears do not allow for sufficient light to pass through the preparation for good visualization of the organisms
  • dense smears contain tightly packed and superimposed cells that do not lend themselves to accurate determination of cell shape and arrangement
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10
Q

Why do we let bacterial smears air dry?

A

Air drying prevents the cells from shrinkage and distortion and allows for the visualization of the natural cellular morphology

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11
Q

What does excessive heat do to bacterial smears?

A

It can distort the morphology, causing plasmolysis of the cell wall
If done improperly the smear can wash off of the slide

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12
Q

Why is basic dye preferred when staining?

A

Because the chromogen in the dye is cationic and has an affinity to negatively charged DNA. Most bacteria has a negatively charged cell surface

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13
Q

Why can Methylene blue not be used in negative staining?

A

Because it is a basic cationic dye. Only an acidic stain can be used

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14
Q

What is the point of negative staining?

A

It allows the visualization of living microbial cells that have not undergone distortion by heat fixation

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15
Q

How does differential staining work?

A

It utilizes two stains of contrasting colors that allow for the separation of bacteria into groups or for the visualization of cellular structures

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the primary stain?

A

To impart color to all cells

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17
Q

What is the mordant used for?

A

It is a chemical that acts as an intensifier in the Gram staining procedure
it forms a complex with the crystal violet which cannot easily be removed from gram positive cells

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18
Q

What is the counterstain used for?

A

It is the second stain applied at is absorbed by decolorized cells

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19
Q

Why is heat used in acid-fast staining?

A

to soften the waxy cell wall components to facilitate the penetration of the primary stain into the cells

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20
Q

Why is acid alcohol used in acid-fast staining vs. 95% ethyl alcohol?

A

Acid-alcohol is used preferentially over 95%
ethyl alcohol to ensure that the primary stain is
removed from the non–acid-fast organisms.

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21
Q

What is acid-fast staining used to diagnose?

A

The acid-fast staining procedure is used for the
diagnosis of leprosy and tuberculosis, both of
which are caused by members of the genus
Mycobacterium.

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22
Q

Why is heat not needed after counterstaining acid-fast stains?

A

Application of heat or a surface-active agent is
not required during the application of the counterstain.
The acid-fast organisms, because of the
waxy nature of their cell walls, are not decolorized,
and the red stain remains trapped inside
the cells. The non–acid-fast organisms lack the
lipoidal cell wall components. Therefore, the
primary stain is easily removed during decolorization,
and the colorless cells are readily stained
by the counterstain.

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23
Q

Why is the stain heated when dealing with spores?

A

to ensure penetration of the stain into the spore.

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24
Q

Why is water used to rinse in spore staining?

A

The function of water is to remove excess primary
stain from the spore. The vegetative cells
lack an affinity for this stain; thus it is removed
by water, rendering the vegetative cells colorless.

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25
Q

What color are gram positive bacteria?

A

blue

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26
Q

What color are gram negative bacteria?

A

red

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27
Q

Why do we not use acid-alcohol for staining in spores?

A

Because it has the same effect that water would have

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28
Q

What happens when you fail to apply heat with the primary stain?

A

The stain is unable to penetrate into the endospore

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29
Q

You used safranin as the primary stain and malachite green as the counterstain

A

If safranin is applied with heat, both the
endospore and the vegetative cell will accept
the stain and appear red in color. Tap water will
not remove the stain, and, therefore, malachite
green would not be accepted. Both the endospore
and the vegetative cell will be red.

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30
Q

Explain the medical significance of a capsule

A

presence
renders the cell resistant to the phagocytic
activities of WBCs, thereby increasing the virulence
of the organism.

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31
Q

Explain the function of copper sulfate in this procedure

A

The capsule is nonionic and as such will not bind
with the cationic primary stain, crystal violet. In
this method, copper sulfate is used rather than
water to wash out excess stain from the cell. During
this process, the copper sulfate is absorbed
into the capsule, giving it a light blue color in
contrast to the deep purple color of the cell.

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32
Q

What happens when enzymes are not present?

A

Without the action
of enzymes many of these reactions would
not take place at perceptible rates. All aspects of
cellular metabolism are catalyzed by enzymes.
This includes the digestion of large nutrient
molecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, and
lipids that are broken down into smaller molecules;
the production and transformation of energy;
and the synthesis of larger macromolecules
essential for the viability of the cell.

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33
Q

Why is milk agar a good growth environment?

A

Although milk is a sterile body fluid, microorganisms
gain entry during the milking process.
Many of these microorganisms contain enzymes
that degrade milk carbohydrates, proteins, and
lipids with the production of acid end products.
Organisms such as Lactobacillus and Streptococcus
spp. ferment lactose to lactic acid and
acetic acid, turning milk sour. They may produce
enough acid to curdle the milk protein,
forming a curd.

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34
Q

What is cellular respiration?

A

Cellular respiration is a biooxidative process
that occurs aerobically, with molecular oxygen
serving as the final electron acceptor, or anaerobically,
with an inorganic ion acting as a final
electron acceptor.

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35
Q

What is fermentation?

A

Fermentation is a biooxidation
that utilizes an organic compound as the
final electron acceptor.

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36
Q

How do organisms use pyruvic acid?

A

Microorganisms differ in their use of pyruvic
acid. Some organisms use the pyruvic acid as a
final electron acceptor, resulting in the formation
of acids, alcohols, and solvents. Other organisms
use this compound as a stepping stone
into the Krebs cycle for further ATP production.

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37
Q

How do strict anaerobes get energy?

A

The strict anaerobes utilize the Embden-
Meyerhof glycolytic pathway to pyruvic acid
with limited ATP production. The pyruvic acid
is then further metabolized through fermentative
pathways.

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38
Q

What cycle to Pseudomonas use for energy?

A

Pseudomonas species hydrolyze proteins to
amino acids that then enter the Krebs cycle for
generation of ATP.

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39
Q

What is the purpose of the TSI test?

A

The TSI test is designed for the rapid separation

and presumptive identification of enteric organisms.

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40
Q

What does the low concentration in TSI agar allow?

A

The lower concentration of glucose in the medium
allows for detection of the utilization of
this substrate only

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41
Q

What does TSI stand for?

A

Triple Sugar-Iron Agar

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42
Q

What is the purpose of phenol red PH indicator in TSI agar?

A

The purpose of the phenol red pH indicator is to
detect carbohydrate fermentation that is indicated
by a color change in the medium from orange-
red to yellow, which is caused by the
presence of acidic end products.

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43
Q

What is the purpose of thiosulfate?

A

substrate for hydrogen sulfide production

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44
Q

Why is the media incubated for a specific amount of time?

A

The limited length of the incubation period is
important to prevent the breakdown of proteins
in the medium, which would result in the formation
of end products that would obscure the
observation of the results.

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45
Q

What is the IMViC test used for?

A

The IMViC test is used for the identification of
enteric organisms, which include both pathogens
and nonpathogens.

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46
Q

What is the purpose of Kovac’s reagent?

A

Kovac’s reagent acts to extract indole from the
medium into the reagent layer. The indole then
forms a cherry-red complex with pdimethylaminobenzaldehyde.

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47
Q

Why does the media become alkaline when citrate utilized?

A

Citrate utilization produces oxaloacetic acid and
acetate, which are enzymatically converted to
CO2 and pyruvic acid. The CO2 combines with
sodium and water to form Na2CO3, an alkaline
product.

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48
Q

Why is E.coli positive for the methyl red test and E aerogenes negative?

A

Both E. coli and E. aerogenes produce acidic
end products during early incubation. The low
pH is maintained by E. coli, thereby producing
a positive methyl red test. On the other hand, E.
aerogenes converts the acids to acetylmethylcarbinol,
a nonacidic end product that elevates
the pH of the culture later in the incubation period.

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49
Q

Why is pyruvate not detected in the medium but indole is?

A

Pyruvic acid is a utilizable intracellular metabolite
and therefore is not excreted into the medium.
Indole is a waste product and can be detected
in the medium.

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50
Q

Why is Simmons citrate used to identify organisms?

A

The rationale for the use of Simmons citrate is
to identify organisms that are enzymatically capable
of metabolizing citrate as the sole carbon
source for energy production.

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51
Q

What are the substrates for hydrogen sulfide production?

A

The substrates for hydrogen sulfide production
include the amino acid cysteine and inorganic
sulfur-containing compounds such as thiosulfates,
sulfates, and sulfites.

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52
Q

Why is the ferrous ammonium sulfate important in the hydrogen sulfide test?

A

The ferrous ammonium sulfate serves as an
indicator by combining with the hydrogen sulfide
gas to form a detectable, insoluble, black
ferrous sulfide precipitate within the medium.

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53
Q

What is urease?

A

Urease is a hydrolytic enzyme that degrades
amide compounds such as urea with the formation
of ammonia, which is alkaline.

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54
Q

Why is phenol red incorporated in urea broth?

A

Phenol red is incorporated into the urea broth
for the detection of the alkaline end products
with the resultant development of a deep pink
color.

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55
Q

What is the difference between an acid curd and a rennet curd?

A

An acid curd is a nonretractable, hard clot,
whereas the rennet curd is a soft clot that retracts
from the walls of the tube

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56
Q

What happens during proteolysis?

A

In proteolysis, the proteins are degraded
to amino acids with the production of
ammonia, an alkaline end product. This is evidenced
by the appearance of a deep-purple band
at the surface of the culture. The medium below
shows a translucent brown color.

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57
Q

What happens in an alkaline reaction in litmus milk?

A

In an alkaline
reaction, the casein is partially degraded to
shorter polypeptides with the release of some
alkaline end products. As a result, the medium
assumes a deeper blue color.

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58
Q

What happens to litmus when it is reduced?

A

It becomes
reduced when it gains hydrogen ions and the
medium turns white starting at the bottom of the
test tube.

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59
Q

What is the purpose of the agar in nitrate reactions?

A

The agar in the nitrate medium serves to lower
the redox potential to favor the anaerobic requirement
for nitrate reduction.

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60
Q

What is the purpose for solutions A and B in the nitrate test?

A

Solutions A and B are used to detect the presence
of nitrite in the culture, which is evidenced
by the immediate appearance of a red color in
the medium.

61
Q

What does it mean when there is no color change after solutions A and B have been addeD?

A

If no color change occurs in the medium upon
the addition of solutions A and B, either nitrate
reduction has not occurred or it was reduced
past the nitrite stage.

62
Q

What does it mean when the broth turns red after zinc is added?

A

The development of a red color upon the addition
of zinc indicates that nitrate is still present
in the culture; the zinc, rather than the microorganisms,
reduced it to nitrite.

63
Q

Why do strict anaerobes not break down hydrogen peroxide?

A

This is a cytotoxic compound
that requires the presence of specific enzymes
for its degradation. Strict anaerobes lack these
essential enzymes.

64
Q

What does catalase do to hydrogen peroxide?

A

Catalase catabolizes hydrogen peroxide to water

and molecular oxygen.

65
Q

Bacterial populations can sometimes form large colonies that are implicated in two thirds of infections in humans. Antibiotics are sometimes ineffective at treating these, as they only kill surface populations and not cells farther in. What are these populations called?

A

biofilms

66
Q

Wire inoculation tools are sterilized by exposure to the hottest part of the Bunsen

burner flame. What is the color of this part of the flame?

A

blue

67
Q

Which of the following is the reason agar is added to culturing media?

A

Solidification

68
Q

What is one way of sterilizing media and or plasticware/glassware?

A

Heat, filtration, chemicals, radiation

69
Q

In experiment 3 we will be inoculating nutrient gelatin with bacteria to assess whether bacteria can liquify this solid medium. What is the enzyme responsible for this action?

A

gelatinase

70
Q

A wire inoculating loop is used for the streak plate method.

A

True

71
Q

What is the purpose of the streak plate technique in experiment 2?

A

To separate mixed populations of bacteria into pure cultures - it is a dilution technique

72
Q

A wire inoculating loop is used for the spread plate technique.

A

False

73
Q

Metal inoculation tools should be flame sterilized before and after transferring culture.

A

True

74
Q

A bacterial stain is made up of three components. Two of the components, a benzene ring (a colorless solvent) and a chromophore (imparts color to benzene ring), go together to form the chromogen. However, most bacterial stains also need a third component to convey ionization to the chromogen, which allows it to form a salt and bind to fibers or tissues. What is the name of this third chemical group that imparts the property of ionization to the chromogen?

A

auxochrome

75
Q

Negative staining uses a basic stain (positively charged) to stain the background of a slide and not the bacteria, which usually have a positive charge on their cell surface and therefore repel the stain.

A

False

76
Q

It is necessary to heat fix bacteria in preparation for negative staining, otherwise they will be washed off during the wash step.

A

False

77
Q

The Gram Stain is an example of differential staining (staining that divides bacteria into two or more groups based on how they react to the staining procedure). It is able to differentiate bacteria based on the composition of their cell wall, due to a particular polysaccharide that is thicker in the walls of Gram positive bacteria and thinner in Gram negative. What is the name of this polysaccharide?

A

peptidoglycan

78
Q

Gram’s Iodine is a mordant. What is the function of a mordant?

A

It increases a cell’s affinity for the primary stain.

79
Q

Why should care be exercised not to overheat a bacterial smear when heat fixing to a slide?

A

it will damage the cell wall and could lead to inconclusive results due to poor stain retention

80
Q

The age of a bacterial culture can interfere with the Gram stain results, producing variable results for a pure culture. For Gram staining the culture should ideally not be older than:

A

24 hours

81
Q

The cells appeared spherical in shape and were arranged in a long chain.

A

Streptococcus

82
Q

The cells appeared rod-shaped and were in long chains.

A

Streptobacillus

83
Q

The cells appeared spherical in shape and were arranged in a cluster.

A

Staphylococcus

84
Q

The cells appeared rod-shaped and were always arranged as a pair.

A

.

Diplobacillus

85
Q

Order of Gram Stain

A

Apply crystal violet to the bacterial smear for 1 minute. Wash with tap water.
Apply Gram’s iodine to the bacterial smear for 1 minute. Wash with tap water.
Apply 95% alcohol drop by drop to the bacterial smear until it runs almost clear. Wash with tap water.Apply safranin to the bacterial smear for 45 seconds. Wash with tap water.

86
Q

What is the purpose of bibulous paper in some staining procedures?

A

You use it to blot dry the stained sample after washing.

87
Q

Spore staining differentiates spores (metabolically inactive) cell forms from their counterpart, which is metabolically active. What is the term given to cells that are still metabolically active?

A

vegetative

88
Q

Cells that have a heavy capsule are generally:

A

Virulent (capable of producing disease)

89
Q

Why is the continued application of heat necessary when staining spores with the primary stain?

A

The spore coat will not readily accept the stain. Heat is needed for penetration of the stain into the spore coatThe spore coat will not readily accept the stain. Heat is needed for penetration of the stain into the spore coat

90
Q

Acid-fast cells are able to resist vigorous decolorizing of the primary stain due to what component of their cell wall?

A

Thick, waxy (lipoidal) layer

91
Q

Safranin

A

Counterstain in spore staining

92
Q

1% crystal violet

A

Primary stain in capsule staining

93
Q

Carbol Fuchsin

A

Primary stain in acid-fast staining

94
Q

Water

A

Destaining reagent for spore staining

95
Q

What is the decolorizing agent in capsule staining?

A

20% copper sulfate

96
Q

Bacteria form spores when environmental conditions become unfavorable, metabolically speaking. They can revert to a metabolically active cell again when conditions become favorable through a process called what?

A

germination

97
Q

Acid-Fast staining is of medical diagnostic interest, especially as organisms that can cause tuberculosis and leprosy are included in a particular genus that is acid-fast. What is this genus of bacteria?

A

mycobacterium

98
Q

The decolorizing step in acid-fast staining uses 95% ethyl alcohol, just like in the Gram stain

A

False

99
Q

Which of the following TSI results indicates lactose and/or sucrose fermentation has occurred?

A

Yellow slant and yellow butt

100
Q

What color will the butt of the TSI slant be if hydrogen sulfide was produced?

A

black

101
Q

In the carbohydrate fermentation test, some tubes will not be yellow or red, but a deep red, representing a basic medium. What have the bacteria done to produce this result?

A

The bacteria have broken down peptones to liberate ammonia, which then forms ammonium hydroxide, an alkaline byproduct.

102
Q

It is important to check on your results from the TSI slant inoculations in 48-72 hours to allow the bacteria enough time to complete fermentation of their preferred carbon source.

A

False

103
Q

What is the purpose of the Durham tube in the carbohydrate fermentation test?

A

It captures gases produced from fermentation to detect if gas production occurred.

104
Q

How many net ATP molecules can be gained from fermentation?

A

+2ATP

105
Q

The triple sugar iron test differentiates between different groups or genera of what?

A

Enterobacteriaceae (which are all gram-negative

106
Q

Why is the concentration of glucose ten fold less than that of either lactose or sucrose in the TSI agar test?

A

The lower concentration permits detection of utilization of only this substrate.

107
Q

The TSI agar slant contains a substrate for hydrogen sulfide production, which if broken down will produce a color other than red or yellow. What is the name of this substrate?

A

sodium thiosulfate

108
Q

Organisms that undergo strictly anaerobic cellular respiration use which of the following as a terminal electron acceptor when they perform the respiration?

A

Inorganic ions such as NO3- or SO42-

109
Q

Large molecules must be broken down into smaller molecules by endoenzymes before they can be utilized for energy because they are too big to pass through cell membranes.

A

False

110
Q

Lipase

A

Fats (such as triglycerides)

111
Q

Amylase

A

D.

Starch

112
Q

Protease

A

Casein and other peptone

113
Q

Gelatin

A

Gelatinase

114
Q

Kovac’s Reagent

A

Indole

115
Q

Methyl Red

A

Acid (Lactic, Acetic, Formic)

116
Q

Barritt’s A and B

A

Nonacidic end products (2,3-butanediol, acetylmethylcarbinol)

117
Q

Bromophenol blue

A

Sodium carbonate (made from carbon dioxide when precursors are broken down into CO2 and pyruvate)

118
Q

Indole is produced from metabolism of what amino acid?

A

Tryptophan

119
Q

The presence of a clear zone on a starch plate after incubation with Gram’s Iodine indicates a negative result. The bacteria do not contain starch splitting enzymes.

A

False

120
Q

A blue color on the Simmon’s citrate slant indicates citrate was used as a carbon source

A

True

121
Q

What color will the reagent layer be on an indole production test if it was positive?

A

Cherry red

122
Q

Methyl red, like phenol red, is a pH indicator that will turn yellow in the presence of an acidic environment

A

False

123
Q

Which of the following amino acids may be reduced to produce hydrogen sulfide?

A

Cysteine

124
Q

Only a few bacteria, like Proteus vulgaris, can degrade urea rapidly. These bacteria are part of the normal gut flora, but they can be opportunistically pathogenic if given the chance.

A

True

125
Q

The urease test includes phenol red as a pH indicator. As seen before in other tests, a positive reaction for the presence of urease will turn it yellow.

A

False

126
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reaction that can be seen on the litmus milk test?

A

Purple band at the top with a solid precipitate and fissures in the curd

127
Q

Which of the following is NOT a breakdown product seen in the nitrate reduction test?

A

Nitrous Oxide (N2O)

128
Q

Hydrogen peroxide and superoxides are toxic products of fermentation (where an organic substrate is the final electron acceptor) and must be broken down.

A

False

129
Q

A positive reaction for the catalase test is seen as bubbles evolving after application of hydrogen peroxide. These bubbles are free oxygen.

A

True

130
Q

Which of the following is the enzyme the oxidase test looks for (able to oxidize the p-aminodimethylaniline oxalate test reagent)?

A

Cytochrome oxidase

131
Q

The oxidase test is important in distinguishing enterobacteriaceae from potentially pathogenic non-enterobacteriaceae/fungi. Which of these bacteria or fungi has oxidase activity and produces a positive result?

A

Neisseria meningitis

132
Q

Solutions A and B for the nitrate test are different than Solutions A and B for the Vogues-Proskauer test performed last week

A

True

133
Q

Which of these indicates an incomplete lysis of red blood cells (where hemoglobin is reduced to methemoglobin, creating a green halo around bacteria)?

A

Alpha hemolysis

134
Q

Mannitol salt agar has a pH indicator in the medium which allows for the detection of acid production resulting from mannitol fermentation. We have used this pH indicator in previous experiments. What is it?

A

Phenol Red

135
Q

Inorganic Synthetic Broth

A

Chemically defined media which has no organic carbon source (carbon must be derived from atmospheric carbon dioxide).

136
Q

Glucose Salts Broth

A

Chemically defined media where carbon is supplied in an organic form.

137
Q

Nutrient Broth

A

Complex medium composed solely of peptone and beef extract

138
Q

Yeast extract broth

A

Complex medium which is enriched and used for the cultivation of fastidious organisms

139
Q

Blood agar medium is an example of enriched medium; these media are used to cultivate fastidious organisms. What does it mean to be a fastidious organism?

A

An organism that has highly elaborate and specific nutritional needs.

140
Q

Phenylethylalcohol agar

A

Isolates gram positive bacteria (partially inhibitory to gram negative bacteria)

141
Q

Crystal violet agar

A

Isolates gram negative bacteria (inhibits gram positive bacteria)

142
Q

7.5% sodium chloride agar

A

Inhibitory to most organisms other than the genus Staphylococcus (and other halophiles)

143
Q

Blood agar

A

Enriched media used to determine hemolytic activities of bacteria

144
Q

When measuring the turbidity of a culture, we always take a reading of percent light transmitted; this reading is directly proportional to the concentration of suspended cells.

A

False

145
Q

Which of the following physical factors influence the growth and survival of all microorganisms?

A

The first two (temp. and pH)

146
Q

What term defines organisms which cannot grow in medium without organic nutrients?

A

heterotrophs

147
Q

Which of these bacteria will exhibit a green sheen on Eosin-methylene blue agar?

A

Escherichia coli

148
Q

Which of the following is required specifically for the formation of DNA, and not for proteins?

A

Phosphorus