Midterm Book Vocab Flashcards

1
Q

stare decisis

A

(pronounced ster-ay dih-si-ses) A common law doctrine under which judges are obligated to follow the precedents established in prior decisions.

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2
Q

administrative agency

A

A federal, state, or local government agency established to perform a specific function. Administrative agencies are authorized by legislative acts to make and enforce rules to administer and enforce the acts.

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3
Q

administrative law

A

The body of law created by administrative agencies (in the form of rules, regulations, orders, and decisions) in order to carry out their duties and responsibilities.

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4
Q

allege

A

To state, recite, assert, or charge.

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5
Q

analogy

A

In logical reasoning, an assumption that if two things are similar in some respects, they will be similar in other respects also. Often used in legal reasoning to infer the appropriate application of legal principles in a case being decided by referring to previous cases involving different facts but considered to come within the policy underlying the rule.

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6
Q

appellant

A

The party who takes an appeal from one court to another.

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7
Q

appellee

A

The party against whom an appeal is taken-that is, the party who opposes setting aside or reversing the judgment.

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8
Q

binding authority

A

Any source of law that a court must follow when deciding a case. Binding authorities include constitutions, statutes, and regulations that govern the issue being decided, as well as court decisions that are controlling precedents within the jurisdiction.

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9
Q

breach

A

To violate a law, by an act or an omission, or to break a legal obligation that one owes to another person or to society.

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10
Q

case law

A

The rules of law announced in court decisions. Case law includes the aggregate of reported cases that interpret judicial precedents, statutes, regulations, and constitutional provisions.

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11
Q

case on point

A

A previous case involving factual circumstances and issues that are similar to the case before the court.

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12
Q

chancellor

A

An adviser to the king at the time of the early king’s courts of England. Individuals petitioned the king for relief when they could not obtain an adequate remedy in a court of law, and these petitions were decided by the chancellor.

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13
Q

citation

A

A reference to a publication in which a legal authority-such as a statute or a court decision-or other source can be found.

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14
Q

civil law

A

The branch of law dealing with the definition and enforcement of all private or public rights, as opposed to criminal matters.

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15
Q

common law

A

That body of law developed from custom or judicial decisions in English and U.S. courts, not attributable to a legislature.

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16
Q

constitutional law

A

Law that is based on the U.S. Constitution and the constitutions of the various states.

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17
Q

court of equity

A

A court that decides controversies and administers justice according to the rules, principles, and precedents of equity.

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18
Q

court of law

A

A court in which the only remedies that could be granted were things of value, such as money damages. In the early English king’s courts, courts of law were distinct from courts of equity.

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19
Q

criminal law

A

Law that defines and governs actions that constitute crimes. Generally, criminal law has to do with wrongful actions committed against society for which society demands redress.

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20
Q

cyberlaw

A

An informal term used to refer to all laws governing electronic communications and transactions, particularly those conducted via the Internet.

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21
Q

cybernotary

A

A legally recognized authority that can certify the validity of digital signatures.

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22
Q

damages

A

Money sought as a remedy for a breach of contract or for a tortious act.

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23
Q

defendant

A

One against whom a lawsuit is brought; the accused person in a criminal proceeding.

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24
Q

defense

A

Reasons that a defendant offers in an action or suit as to why the plaintiff should not obtain what he or she is seeking.

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25
Q

equitable maxims

A

General propositions or principles of law that have to do with fairness (equity).

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26
Q

executive agency

A

An administrative agency within the executive branch of government. At the federal level, executive agencies are those within the cabinet departments.

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27
Q

historical school

A

A school of legal thought that emphasizes the evolutionary process of law and that looks to the past to discover what the principles of contemporary law should be.

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28
Q

independent regulatory agency

A

An administrative agency that is not considered part of the government’s executive branch and is not subject to the authority of the president. Independent agency officials cannot be removed without cause.

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29
Q

jurisprudence

A

The science or philosophy of law.

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30
Q

laches

A

The equitable doctrine that bars a party’s right to legal action if the party has neglected for an unreasonable length of time to act on his or her rights.

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31
Q

law

A

A body of enforceable rules governing relationships among individuals and between individuals and their society.

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32
Q

legal realism

A

A school of legal thought that was popular in the 1920s and 1930s and that challenged many existing jurisprudential assumptions, particularly the assumption that subjective elements play no part in judicial reasoning. Legal realists generally advocated a less abstract and more pragmatic approach to the law, an approach that would take into account customary practices and the circumstances in which transactions take place. The school left a lasting imprint on American jurisprudence.

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33
Q

legal reasoning

A

The process of reasoning by which a judge harmonizes his or her decision with the judicial decisions of previous cases.

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34
Q

natural law

A

The belief that government and the legal system should reflect universal moral and ethical principles that are inherent in human nature. The natural law school is the oldest and one of the most significant schools of legal thought.

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35
Q

opinion

A

A statement by the court expressing the reasons for its decision in a case.

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36
Q

ordinance

A

A law passed by a local governing unit, such as a municipality or a county.

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37
Q

petitioner

A

In equity practice, a party that initiates a lawsuit.

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38
Q

plaintiff

A

One who initiates a lawsuit.

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39
Q

positive law

A

The body of conventional, or written, law of a particular society at a particular point in time.

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40
Q

positivist school

A

A school of legal thought whose adherents believe that there can be no higher law than a nation’s positive law the body of conventional, or written, law of a particular society at a particular time.

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41
Q

precedent

A

A court decision that furnishes an example or authority for deciding subsequent cases involving identical or similar facts.

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42
Q

procedural law

A

Rules that define the manner in which the rights and duties of individuals may be enforced.

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43
Q

public policy

A

A government policy based on widely held societal values and (usually) expressed or implied in laws or regulations.

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44
Q

remedy

A

The relief given to an innocent party to enforce a right or compensate for the violation of a right.

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45
Q

remedy at law

A

A remedy available in a court of law. Money damages are awarded as a remedy at law

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46
Q

remedy in equity

A

A remedy allowed by courts in situations where remedies at law are not appropriate. Remedies in equity are based on settled rules of fairness, justice, and honesty, and include injunction, specific performance, rescission and restitution, and reformation.

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47
Q

reporter

A

A publication in which court cases are published, or reported.

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48
Q

respondent

A

In equity practice, the party who answers a bill or other proceeding.

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49
Q

sociological school

A

A school of legal thought that views the law as a tool for promoting justice in society.

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50
Q

statute of limitations

A

A federal or state statute setting the maximum time period during which a certain action can be brought or certain rights enforced.

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51
Q

statutory law

A

The body of law enacted by legislative bodies (as opposed to constitutional law, administrative law, or case law).

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52
Q

substantive law

A

Law that defines the rights and duties of individuals with respect to each other, as opposed to procedural law, which defines the manner in which these rights and duties may be enforced.

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53
Q

syllogism

A

A form of deductive reasoning consisting of a major premise, a minor premise, and a conclusion.

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54
Q

uniform law

A

A model law created by the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws and/or the American Law Institute for the states to consider adopting. If the state adopts the law, it becomes statutory law in that state. Each state has the option of adopting or rejecting all or part of a uniform law.

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55
Q

voir dire

A

(pronounced vwahr deehr) A French phrase meaning, literally, “to see, to speak.” In jury trials, the phrase refers to the process in which the attorneys question prospective jurors to determine whether they are biased or have any connection with a party to the action or with a prospective witness.

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56
Q

affidavit

A

A written or printed voluntary statement of facts, confirmed by the oath or affirmation of the party making it and made before a person having the authority to administer the oath or affirmation.

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57
Q

affirmative defense

A

A response to a plaintiff’s claim that does not deny the plaintiff’s facts but attacks the plaintiff’s legal right to bring an action. An example is the running of the statute of limitations.

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58
Q

answer

A

Procedurally, a defendant’s response to the plaintiff’s complaint.

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59
Q

brief

A

A formal legal document submitted by the attorney for the appellant—or the appellee (in answer to the appellant’s brief)—to an appellate court when a case is appealed. The appellant’s brief outlines the facts and issues of the case, the judge’s rulings or jury’s findings that should be reversed or modified, the applicable law, and the arguments on the client’s behalf.

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60
Q

closing argument

A

An argument made after the plaintiff and defendant have rested their cases. Closing arguments are made prior to the jury charges.

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61
Q

complaint

A

The pleading made by a plaintiff alleging wrongdoing on the part of the defendant; the document that, when filed with a court, initiates a lawsuit.

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62
Q

counterclaim

A

A claim made by a defendant in a civil lawsuit that in effect sues the plaintiff.

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63
Q

cross–examination

A

The questioning of an opposing witness during a trial.

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64
Q

default judgment

A

A judgment entered by a court against a defendant who has failed to appear in court to answer or defend against the plaintiff’s claim.

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65
Q

deposition

A

The testimony of a party to a lawsuit or a witness taken under oath before a trial.

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66
Q

direct examination

A

The examination of a witness by the attorney who calls the witness to the stand to testify on behalf of the attorney’s client.

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67
Q

discovery

A

A phase in the litigation process during which the opposing parties may obtain information from each other and from third parties prior to trial.

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68
Q

e–evidence

A

A type of evidence that consists of computer–generated or electronically recorded information, including e–mail, voice mail, spreadsheets, word–processing documents, and other data.

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69
Q

Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP)

A

The rules controlling procedural matters in civil trials brought before the federal district courts.

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70
Q

hearsay

A

An oral or written statement made out of court that is later offered in court by a witness (not the person who made the statement) to prove the truth of the matter asserted in the statement. Hearsay is generally inadmissible as evidence.

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71
Q

interrogatories

A

A series of written questions for which written answers are prepared and then signed under oath by a party to a lawsuit, usually with the assistance of the party’s attorney.

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72
Q

motion

A

A procedural request or application presented by an attorney to the court on behalf of a client.

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73
Q

motion for a directed verdict

A

In a state court, a party’s request that the judge enter a judgment in her or his favor before the case is submitted to a jury because the other party has not presented sufficient evidence to support the claim. The federal courts refer to this request as a motion for judgment as a matter of law.

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74
Q

motion for a judgment as a matter of law

A

In a federal court, a party’s request that the judge enter a judgment in her or his favor before the case is submitted to a jury because the other party has not presented sufficient evidence to support the claim. The state courts refer to this request as a motion for a directed verdict.

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75
Q

motion for a new trial

A

A motion asserting that the trial was so fundamentally flawed (because of error, newly discovered evidence, prejudice, or other reason) that a new trial is necessary to prevent a miscarriage of justice.

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76
Q

motion for judgment n.o.v.

A

A motion requesting the court to grant judgment in favor of the party making the motion on the ground that the jury verdict against him or her was unreasonable and erroneous.

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77
Q

motion for judgment on the pleadings

A

A motion by either party to a lawsuit at the close of the pleadings requesting the court to decide the issue solely on the pleadings without proceeding to trial. The motion will be granted only if no facts are in dispute.

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78
Q

motion for summary judgment

A

A motion requesting the court to enter a judgment without proceeding to trial. The motion can be based on evidence outside the pleadings and will be granted only if no facts are in dispute.

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79
Q

motion to dismiss

A

A pleading in which a defendant asserts that the plaintiff’s claim fails to state a cause of action (that is, has no basis in law) or that there are other grounds on which a suit should be dismissed.

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80
Q

opening statement

A

A statement made to the jury at the beginning of a trial by a party’s attorney, prior to the presentation of evidence. The attorney briefly outlines the evidence that will be offered and the legal theory that will be pursued.

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81
Q

pleadings

A

Statements made by the plaintiff and the defendant in a lawsuit that detail the facts, charges, and defenses involved in the litigation; the complaint and answer are part of the pleadings.

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82
Q

pretrial conference

A

A conference, scheduled before the trial begins, between the judge and the attorneys litigating the suit. The parties may settle the dispute, clarify the issues, schedule discovery, and so on during the conference.

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83
Q

pretrial motion

A

A written or oral application to a court for a ruling or order, made before trial.

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84
Q

rebuttal

A

The refutation of evidence introduced by an adverse party’s attorney.

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85
Q

rejoinder

A

The defendant’s answer to the plaintiff’s rebuttal.

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86
Q

relevant evidence

A

Evidence tending to make a fact at issue in the case more or less probable than it would be without the evidence. Only relevant evidence is admissible in court.

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87
Q

rules of evidence

A

Rules governing the admissibility of evidence in trial courts.

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88
Q

service of process

A

The delivery of the complaint and summons to a defendant.

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89
Q

summons

A

A document informing a defendant that a legal action has been commenced against him or her and that the defendant must appear in court on a certain date to answer the plaintiff’s complaint. The document is delivered by a sheriff or any other person so authorized.

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90
Q

verdict

A

A formal decision made by a jury.

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91
Q

writ of execution

A

A court’s order, after a judgment has been entered against the debtor, directing the sheriff to seize (levy) and sell any of the debtor’s nonexempt real or personal property. The proceeds of the sale are used to pay off the judgment, accrued interest, and costs of the sale; any surplus is paid to the debtor.

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92
Q

Bill of Rights

A

The first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution.

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93
Q

checks and balances

A

The national government is composed of three separate branches: the executive, the legislative, and the judicial branches. Each branch of the government exercises a check on the actions of the others.

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94
Q

commerce clause

A

The provision in Article I, Section 8, of the U.S. Constitution that gives Congress the power to regulate interstate commerce.

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95
Q

due process clause

A

The provisions of the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the Constitution that guarantee that no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law. Similar clauses are found in most state constitutions.

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96
Q

equal protection clause

A

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97
Q

establishment clause

A

The provision in the First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution that prohibits Congress from creating any law “respecting an establishment of religion.”

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98
Q

federal form of government

A

A system of government in which the states form a union and the sovereign power is divided between a central government and the member states.

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99
Q

filtering software

A

A computer program that includes a pattern through which data are passed. When designed to block access to certain Web sites, the pattern blocks the retrieval of a site whose URL or key words are on a list within the program.

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100
Q

free exercise clause

A

The provision in the First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution that prohibits Congress from making any law “prohibiting the free exercise” of religion.

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101
Q

full faith and credit clause

A

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102
Q

meta tags

A

Words inserted into a Web site’s key-words field to increase the site’s appearance in search engine results.

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103
Q

police powers

A

Powers possessed by states as part of their inherent sovereignty. These powers may be exercised to protect or promote the public order, health, safety, morals, and general welfare.

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104
Q

preemption

A

A doctrine under which certain federal laws preempt, or take precedence over, conflicting state or local laws.

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105
Q

privileges and immunities clause

A

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106
Q

probable cause

A

Reasonable grounds to believe the existence of facts warranting certain actions, such as the search or arrest of a person.

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107
Q

search warrant

A

An order granted by a public authority, such as a judge, that authorizes law enforcement personnel to search particular premises or property.

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108
Q

supremacy clause

A

###############################################################################################################################################################################################################################################################

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109
Q

symbolic speech

A

Nonverbal conduct that expresses opinions or thoughts about a subject. Symbolic speech is protected under the First Amendment’s guarantee of freedom of speech.

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110
Q

business ethics

A

Ethics in a business context; a consensus of what constitutes right or wrong behavior in the world of business and the application of moral principles to situations that arise in a business setting.

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111
Q

categorical imperative

A

A concept developed by the philosopher Immanuel Kant as an ethical guideline for behavior. In deciding whether an action is right or wrong, or desirable or undesirable, a person should evaluate the action in terms of what would happen if everybody else in the same situation, or category, acted the same way.

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112
Q

corporate social responsibility

A

The concept that corporations can and should act ethically and be accountable to society for their actions.

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113
Q

cost–benefit analysis

A

A decision–making technique that involves weighing the costs of a given action against the benefits of the action.

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114
Q

ethical reasoning

A

A reasoning process in which an individual links his or her moral convictions or ethical standards to the particular situation at hand.

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115
Q

ethics

A

Moral principles and values applied to social behavior.

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116
Q

moral minimum

A

The minimum degree of ethical behavior expected of a business firm, which is usually defined as compliance with the law.

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117
Q

principle of rights

A

The principle that human beings have certain fundamental rights (to life, freedom, and the pursuit of happiness, for example). Those who adhere to this “rights theory” believe that a key factor in determining whether a business decision is ethical is how that decision affects the rights of others. These others include the firm’s owners, its employees, the consumers of its products or services, its suppliers, the community in which it does business, and society as a whole.

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118
Q

stock buyback

A

Sometimes, publicly held companies use funds from their own treasuries to repurchase their own stock, with the result being that the price of the stock usually goes up.

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119
Q

stock options

A

A certificate that grants the owner the option to buy a given number of shares of stock, usually within a set time period.

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120
Q

utilitarianism

A

An approach to ethical reasoning in which ethically correct behavior is not related to any absolute ethical or moral values but to an evaluation of the consequences of a given action on those who will be affected by it. In utilitarian reasoning, a “good” decision is one that results in the greatest good for the greatest number of people affected by the decision.

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121
Q

actionable

A

Capable of serving as the basis of a lawsuit.

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122
Q

actual malice

A

A condition that exists when a person makes a statement with either knowledge of its falsity or a reckless disregard for the truth. In a defamation suit, a statement made about a public figure normally must be made with actual malice for liability to be incurred.

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123
Q

appropriation

A

In tort law, the use by one person of another person’s name, likeness, or other identifying characteristic without permission and for the benefit of the user.

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124
Q

assault

A

Any word or action intended to make another person fearful of immediate physical harm; a reasonably believable threat.

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125
Q

battery

A

The unprivileged, intentional touching of another.

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126
Q

business tort

A

Wrongful interference with the business rights of another.

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127
Q

compensatory damages

A

A money award equivalent to the actual value of injuries or damages sustained by the aggrieved party.

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128
Q

conversion

A

The wrongful taking, using, or retaining possession of personal property that belongs to another.

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129
Q

cyber tort

A

A tort committed via the Internet.

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130
Q

defamation

A

Any published or publicly spoken false statement that causes injury to another’s good name, reputation, or character.

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131
Q

disparagement of property

A

An economically injurious false statement made about another’s product or property. A general term for torts that are more specifically referred to as slander of quality or slander of title.

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132
Q

fraudulent misrepresentation

A

Any misrepresentation, either by misstatement or omission of a material fact, knowingly made with the intention of deceiving another and on which a reasonable person would and does rely to his or her detriment.

133
Q

intentional tort

A

A wrongful act knowingly committed.

134
Q

libel

A

Defamation in writing or other form (such as in a videotape) having the quality of permanence.

135
Q

privilege

A

In tort law, the ability to act contrary to another person’s right without that person’s having legal redress for such acts. Privilege may be raised as a defense to defamation.

136
Q

public figure

A

Individuals who are thrust into the public limelight. Public figures include government officials and politicians, movie stars, well–known businesspersons, and generally anybody who becomes known to the public because of his or her position or activities.

137
Q

puffery

A

A salesperson’s exaggerated claims concerning the quality of goods offered for sale. Such claims involve opinions rather than facts and are not considered to be legally binding promises or warranties.

138
Q

punitive damages

A

Money damages that may be awarded to a plaintiff to punish the defendant and deter future similar conduct.

139
Q

slander

A

Defamation in oral form.

140
Q

slander of quality

A

The publication of false information about another’s product, alleging that it is not what its seller claims.

141
Q

slander of title

A

The publication of a statement that denies or casts doubt on another’s legal ownership of any property, causing financial loss to that property’s owner. Also called trade libel.

142
Q

spam

A

Bulk, unsolicited (junk) e–mail.

143
Q

tort

A

A civil wrong not arising from a breach of contract. A breach of a legal duty that proximately causes harm or injury to another.

144
Q

tortfeasor

A

One who commits a tort.

145
Q

trade libel

A

The publication of false information about another’s product, alleging it is not what its seller claims; also referred to as slander of quality.

146
Q

trespass to land

A

The entry onto, above, or below the surface of land owned by another without the owner’s permission or legal authorization.

147
Q

trespass to personal property

A

The unlawful taking or harming of another’s personal property; interference with another’s right to the exclusive possession of his or her personal property.

148
Q

res ipsa loquitur

A

(pronounced rehs ehp–suh low–quuh–tuhr) A doctrine under which negligence may be inferred simply because an event occurred, if it is the type of event that would not occur in the absence of negligence. Literally, the term means “the facts speak for themselves.”

149
Q

assumption of risk

A

A defense against negligence that can be used when the plaintiff was aware of a danger and voluntarily assumed the risk of injury from that danger.

150
Q

business invitee

A

Those people, such as customers or clients, who are invited onto business premises by the owner of those premises for business purposes.

151
Q

causation in fact

A

An act or omission without (“but for”) which an event would not have occurred.

152
Q

comparative negligence

A

A theory in tort law under which the liability for injuries resulting from negligent acts is shared by all parties who were negligent (including the injured party), on the basis of each person’s proportionate negligence.

153
Q

contributory negligence

A

A theory in tort law under which a complaining party’s own negligence contributed to or caused his or her injuries. Contributory negligence is an absolute bar to recovery in a minority of jurisdictions.

154
Q

dram shop act

A

A state statute that imposes liability on the owners of bars and taverns, as well as those who serve alcoholic drinks to the public, for injuries resulting from accidents caused by intoxicated persons when the sellers or servers of alcoholic drinks contributed to the intoxication.

155
Q

duty of care

A

The duty of all persons, as established by tort law, to exercise a reasonable amount of care in their dealings with others. Failure to exercise due care, which is normally determined by the “reasonable person standard,” constitutes the tort of negligence.

156
Q

Good Samaritan statute

A

A state statute that provides that persons who rescue or provide emergency services to others in peril—unless they do so recklessly, thus causing further harm—cannot be sued for negligence.

157
Q

malpractice

A

Professional misconduct or the failure to exercise the requisite degree of skill as a professional. Negligence—the failure to exercise due care—on the part of a professional, such as a physician or an attorney, is commonly referred to as malpractice.

158
Q

negligence

A

The failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonable person would exercise in similar circumstances.

159
Q

negligence per se

A

An act (or failure to act) in violation of a statutory requirement.

160
Q

proximate cause

A

Legal cause; exists when the connection between an act and an injury is strong enough to justify imposing liability.

161
Q

reasonable person standard

A

The standard of behavior expected of a hypothetical “reasonable person.” The standard against which negligence is measured and that must be observed to avoid liability for negligence.

162
Q

strict liability

A

Liability regardless of fault. In tort law, strict liability may be imposed on defendants in cases involving abnormally dangerous activities, dangerous animals, or defective products.

163
Q

superseding cause

A

An intervening force or event that breaks the connection between a wrongful act and an injury to another; in negligence law, a defense to liability.

164
Q

certification mark

A

A mark used by one or more persons, other than the owner, to certify the region, materials, mode of manufacture, quality, or accuracy of the owner’s goods or services. When used by members of a cooperative, association, or other organization, such a mark is referred to as a collective mark. Examples of certification marks include the “Good Housekeeping Seal of Approval” and “UL Tested.”

165
Q

cloud computing

A

The delivery to users of on–demand services from third–party servers over a network. Cloud computing is a delivery model. The most widely used cloud computing services are Software as a Service (SaaS), which offers companies a cheaper way to buy and use packaged applications that are no longer run on servers in house.

166
Q

collective mark

A

A mark used by members of a cooperative, association, or other organization to certify the region, materials, mode of manufacture, quality, or accuracy of the specific goods or services. Examples of collective marks include the labor union marks found on tags of certain products and the credits of movies, which indicate the various associations and organizations that participated in the making of the movies.

167
Q

copyright

A

The exclusive right of authors to publish, print, or sell an intellectual production for a statutory period of time. A copyright has the same monopolistic nature as a patent or trademark, but it differs in that it applies exclusively to works of art, literature, and other works of authorship, including computer programs.

168
Q

cyber mark

A

A trademark in cyberspace.

169
Q

cybersquatting

A

The act of registering a domain name that is the same as, or confusingly similar to, the trademark of another and then offering to sell that domain name back to the trademark owner.

170
Q

dilution

A

With respect to trademarks, a doctrine under which distinctive or famous trademarks are protected from certain unauthorized uses of the marks regardless of a showing of competition or a likelihood of confusion. Congress created a federal cause of action for dilution in 1995 with the passage of the Federal Trademark Dilution Act.

171
Q

distributed network

A

A network that can be used by persons located (distributed) around the country or the globe to share computer files.

172
Q

domain name

A

The series of letters and symbols used to identify site operators on the Internet; Internet “addresses.”

173
Q

intellectual property

A

Property resulting from intellectual, creative processes. Patents, trademarks, and copyrights are examples of intellectual property.

174
Q

license

A

A revocable right or privilege of a person to come on another person’s land.

175
Q

meta tags

A

Words inserted into a Web site’s key–words field to increase the site’s

176
Q

patent

A

A government grant that gives an inventor the exclusive right or privilege to make, use, or sell his or her invention for a limited time period. The word patent usually refers to some invention and designates either the instrument by which patent rights are evidenced or the patent itself.

177
Q

peer–to–peer (P2P) networking

A

The sharing of resources (such as files, hard drives, and processing styles) among multiple computers without necessarily requiring a central network server.

178
Q

service mark

A

A mark used in the sale or the advertising of services, such as to distinguish the services of one person from the services of others. Titles, character names, and other distinctive features of radio and television programs may be registered as service marks.

179
Q

trade dress

A

The image and overall appearance of a product—for example, the distinctive decor, menu, layout, and style of service of a particular restaurant. Basically, trade dress is subject to the same protection as trademarks.

180
Q

trade name

A

A term that is used to indicate part or all of a business’s name and that is directly related to the business’s reputation and goodwill. Trade names are protected under the common law (and under trademark law, if the name is the same as the firm’s trademark).

181
Q

trade secret

A

Information or a process that gives a business an advantage over competitors who do not know the information or process.

182
Q

trademark

A

A distinctive mark, motto, device, or implement that a manufacturer stamps, prints, or otherwise affixes to the goods it produces so that they may be identified on the market and their origins made known. Once a trademark is established (under the common law or through registration), the owner is entitled to its exclusive use.

183
Q

typosquatting

A

Registering a name that is a misspelling of a popular brand, such as hotmai.com or myspac.com.

184
Q

actus reus

A

(pronounced ak–tus ray–uhs) A guilty (prohibited) act. The commission of a prohibited act is one of the two essential elements required for criminal liability, the other element being the intent to commit a crime.

185
Q

mens rea

A

(pronounced mehns ray–uh) Mental state, or intent. A wrongful mental state is as necessary as a wrongful act to establish criminal liability. What constitutes a mental state varies according to the wrongful action. Thus, for murder, the mens rea is the intent to take a life. For theft, the mens rea must involve both the knowledge that the property belongs to another and the intent to deprive the owner of it.

186
Q

arson

A

The malicious burning of another’s dwelling. Some statutes have expanded this to include any real property regardless of ownership and the destruction of property by other means—for example, by explosion.

187
Q

beyond a reasonable doubt

A

The standard used to determine the guilt or innocence of a person criminally charged. To be guilty of a crime, one must be proved guilty “beyond and to the exclusion of every reasonable doubt.” A reasonable doubt is one that would cause a prudent person to hesitate before acting in matters important to him or her.

188
Q

botnet

A

Short for robot network—a group of computers that run an application that is controlled and manipulated only by the software source. Although sometimes a legitimate network, usually this term is reserved for a group of computers that have been infected by malicious robot software. In a botnet, each connected computer becomes a zombie, or drone.

189
Q

burglary

A

The unlawful entry into a building with the intent to commit a felony. (Some state statutes expand this to include the intent to commit any crime.)

190
Q

computer crime

A

Any wrongful act that is directed against computers and computer parties, or wrongful use or abuse of computers or software.

191
Q

crime

A

A wrong against society proclaimed in a statute and punishable by society through fines and/or imprisonment—or, in some cases, death.

192
Q

cyber crime

A

A crime that occurs online, in the virtual community of the Internet, as opposed to the physical world.

193
Q

cyber fraud

A

Fraud that involves the online theft of credit card information, banking details, and other information for criminal use.

194
Q

cyberterrorist

A

A hacker whose purpose is to exploit a target computer for a serious impact, such as the corruption of a program to sabotage a business.

195
Q

double jeopardy

A

A situation occurring when a person is tried twice for the same criminal offense; prohibited by the Fifth Amendment to the Constitution.

196
Q

duress

A

Unlawful pressure brought to bear on a person, causing the person to perform an act that he or she would not otherwise perform.

197
Q

embezzlement

A

The fraudulent appropriation of money or other property by a person to whom the money or property has been entrusted.

198
Q

entrapment

A

In criminal law, a defense in which the defendant claims that he or she was induced by a public official—usually an undercover agent or police officer—to commit a crime that he or she would otherwise not have committed.

199
Q

exclusionary rule

A

In criminal procedure, a rule under which any evidence that is obtained in violation of the accused’s constitutional rights guaranteed by the Fourth, Fifth, and Sixth Amendments, as well as any evidence derived from illegally obtained evidence, will not be admissible in court.

200
Q

felony

A

A crime—such as arson, murder, rape, or robbery—that carries the most severe sanctions, usually ranging from one year in a state or federal prison to the forfeiture of one’s life.

201
Q

forgery

A

The fraudulent making or altering of any writing in a way that changes the legal rights and liabilities of another.

202
Q

grand jury

A

A group of citizens called to decide, after hearing the state’s evidence, whether a reasonable basis (probable cause) exists for believing that a crime has been committed and whether a trial ought to be held.

203
Q

hacker

A

A person who uses one computer to break into another. Professional computer programmers refer to such persons as “crackers.”

204
Q

identity theft

A

The act of stealing another’s identifying information—such as a name, date of birth, or Social Security number—and using that information to access the victim’s financial resources.

205
Q

indictment

A

(pronounced in–dyte–ment) A charge by a grand jury that a reasonable basis (probable cause) exists for believing that a crime has been committed and that a trial should be held.

206
Q

information

A

A formal accusation or complaint (without an indictment) issued in certain types of actions (usually criminal actions involving lesser crimes) by a law officer, such as a magistrate.

207
Q

larceny

A

The wrongful taking and carrying away of another person’s personal property with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property. Some states classify larceny as either grand or petit, depending on the property’s value.

208
Q

malware

A

Any program that is harmful to a computer or, by extension, a computer user.

209
Q

misdemeanor

A

A lesser crime than a felony, punishable by a fine or imprisonment for up to one year in other than a state or federal penitentiary.

210
Q

money laundering

A

Falsely reporting income that has been obtained through criminal activity as income obtained through a legitimate business enterprise—in effect, “laundering” the “dirty money.”

211
Q

necessity

A

In criminal law, a defense against liability; under Section 3.02 of the Model Penal Code, this defense is justifiable if “the harm or evil sought to be avoided” by a given action “is greater than that sought to be prevented by the law defining the offense charged.”

212
Q

petty offense

A

In criminal law, the least serious kind of criminal offense, such as a traffic or building–code violation.

213
Q

phishing

A

An online fraud action that allows criminals to pretend to be legitimate companies either by using e–mails or malicious Web sites that trick individuals and companies into providing useful information, such as bank account numbers, Social Security numbers, or credit card numbers.

214
Q

plea bargaining

A

The process by which a criminal defendant and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case, subject to court approval; usually involves the defendant’s pleading guilty to a lesser offense in return for a lighter sentence.

215
Q

robbery

A

The act of forcefully and unlawfully taking personal property of any value from another; force or intimidation is usually necessary for an act of theft to be considered a robbery.

216
Q

self–defense

A

The legally recognized privilege to protect one’s self or property against injury by another. The privilege of self–defense protects only acts that are reasonably necessary to protect one’s self or property.

217
Q

self–incrimination

A

The act of accusing oneself of a crime for which a person can then be prosecuted. The Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution guarantees individuals may not “be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself.”

218
Q

virus

A

Any program transmitted between computers via the Internet generally without the knowledge or consent of the recipient. Viruses attempt to do deliberate damage to systems and data.

219
Q

vishing

A

The voice counterpart of phishing; vishers use an e–mail or a notice on a Web site that encourage persons to make a phone call which then triggers a voice response system that asks for valuable personal information such as credit card numbers.

220
Q

white–collar crime

A

Nonviolent crime committed by individuals or corporations to obtain a personal or business advantage.

221
Q

worm

A

A type of virus that is designed to copy itself from one computer to another without human interaction. Unlike the typical virus, a computer worm can copy itself automatically and can replicate in great volume and with great speed. Worms, for example, can send out copies of themselves to every contact in your e–mail address book.

222
Q

quantum meruit

A

(pronounced kwahn–tuhm mehr–oo–wuht) Literally, “as much as he deserves”—an expression describing the extent of liability on a contract implied in law (quasi contract). An equitable doctrine based on the concept that one who benefits from another’s labor and materials should not be unjustly enriched thereby but should be required to pay a reasonable amount for the benefits received, even absent a contract.

223
Q

bilateral contract

A

A type of contract that arises when a promise is given in exchange for a return promise.

224
Q

contract

A

An agreement that can be enforced in court; formed by two or more parties, each of whom agrees to perform or to refrain from performing some act now or in the future.

225
Q

executed contract

A

A contract that has been completely performed by both parties.

226
Q

executory contract

A

A contract that has not as yet been fully performed.

227
Q

express contract

A

A contract in which the terms of the agreement are fully and explicitly stated in words, oral or written.

228
Q

formal contract

A

A contract that by law requires a specific form, such as being executed under seal, to be valid.

229
Q

implied contract

A

A contract formed in whole or in part from the conduct of the parties (as opposed to an express contract). Also known as implied contract.

230
Q

informal contract

A

A contract that does not require a specified form or formality in order to be valid.

231
Q

objective theory of contracts

A

A theory under which the intent to form a contract will be judged by outward, objective facts (what the party said when entering into the contract, how the party acted or appeared, and the circumstances surrounding the transaction) as interpreted by a reasonable person, rather than by the party’s own secret, subjective intentions.

232
Q

offeree

A

A person to whom an offer is made.

233
Q

offeror

A

A person who makes an offer.

234
Q

promise

A

A person’s assurance that he or she will or will not do something.

235
Q

promisee

A

A person to whom a promise is made.

236
Q

promisor

A

A person who makes a promise.

237
Q

quasi contract

A

A fictional contract imposed on parties by a court in the interests of fairness and justice; usually, quasi contracts are imposed to avoid the unjust enrichment of one party at the expense of another.

238
Q

unenforceable contract

A

A valid contract rendered unenforceable by some statute or law.

239
Q

unilateral contract

A

A contract that results when an offer can only be accepted by the offeree’s performance.

240
Q

valid contract

A

A contract that results when elements necessary for contract formation (agreement, consideration, legal purpose, and contractual capacity) are present.

241
Q

void contract

A

A contract having no legal force or binding effect.

242
Q

voidable contract

A

A contract that may be legally avoided (canceled, or annulled) at the option of one of the parties

243
Q

acceptance

A

(1) In contract law, the offeree’s notification to the offeror that the offeree agrees to be bound by the terms of the offeror’s proposal. Although historically the terms of acceptance had to be the mirror image of the terms of the offer, the Uniform Commercial Code provides that even modified terms of the offer in a definite expression of acceptance constitute a contract. (2) In negotiable instruments law, the drawee’s signed agreement to pay a draft when presented.

244
Q

agreement

A

A meeting of two or more minds in regard to the terms of a contract; usually broken down into two events—an offer by one party to form a contract, and an acceptance of the offer by the person to whom the offer is made.

245
Q

browse–wrap terms

A

Terms and conditions of use that are presented to an Internet user at the time certain products, such as software, are being downloaded but that need not be agreed to (by clicking “I agree,” for example) before being able to install or use the product.

246
Q

click–on agreement

A

An agreement that arises when a buyer, engaging in a transaction on a computer, indicates his or her assent to be bound by the terms of an offer by clicking on a button that says, for example, “I agree”; sometimes referred to as a click–on license or a click–wrap agreement.

247
Q

counteroffer

A

An offeree’s response to an offer in which the offeree rejects the original offer and at the same time makes a new offer.

248
Q

cybernotary

A

A legally recognized authority that can certify the validity of digital signatures.

249
Q

e–contract

A

A contract that is entered into in cyberspace and is evidenced only by electronic impulses (such as those that make up a computer’s memory), rather than, for example, a typewritten form.

250
Q

e–signature

A

As defined by the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act, “an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to or logically associated with a record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record.”

251
Q

forum–selection clause

A

A provision in a contract designating the court, jurisdiction, or tribunal that will decide any disputes arising under the contract.

252
Q

mailbox rule

A

A rule providing that an acceptance of an offer becomes effective on dispatch (on being placed in a mailbox), if mail is, expressly or impliedly, an authorized means of communication of acceptance to the offeror.

253
Q

mirror image rule

A

A common law rule that requires, for a valid contractual agreement, that the terms of the offeree’s acceptance adhere exactly to the terms of the offeror’s offer.

254
Q

offer

A

A promise or commitment to perform or refrain from performing some specified act in the future.

255
Q

option contract

A

A contract under which the offeror cannot revoke his or her offer for a stipulated time period and the offeree can accept or reject the offer during this period without fear that the offer will be made to another person. The offeree must give consideration for the option (the irrevocable offer) to be enforceable.

256
Q

partnering agreement

A

An agreement between a seller and a buyer who frequently do business with each other on the terms and conditions that will apply to all subsequently formed electronic contracts.

257
Q

record

A

According to the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act, information that is either inscribed on a tangible medium or stored in an electronic or other medium and that is retrievable. The Uniform Computer Information Transactions Act uses the term record instead of writing.

258
Q

revocation

A

In contract law, the withdrawal of an offer by an offeror. Unless an offer is irrevocable, it can be revoked at any time prior to acceptance without liability.

259
Q

shrink–wrap agreement

A

An agreement whose terms are expressed in a document located inside a box in which goods (usually software) are packaged; sometimes called a shrink–wrap license.

260
Q

Judicial Review

A

the judiciary can decide among other things if the laws or actions of the other two branches are constitutional.

261
Q

Jurisdiction

A

“the power to speak the law”, a court must have jurisdiction over the person against who the suit is brought against, or the property

262
Q

in personam jurisdiction (personal jurisdiction)

A

particular courts can exercise this over any person or business that resides in a certain geographical area

263
Q

in rem jurisdiction

A

Courts can exercise jurisdiction over a “thing” or property

264
Q

long arm statute

A

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265
Q

Probate Courts

A

state courts that can only handle matters relating to the transfer of a person’s assets and obligations after that person’s death, including issues relating to the custody and guardianship of children.

266
Q

Bankruptcy courts

A

handle only bankruptcy proceedings, which are governed by federal bankruptcy courts

267
Q

Federal Question

A

a question that pertains to the U.S. Constitution, acts of congress, or treaties. A federal question provides a basis for federal jurisdiction

268
Q

Diversity of citizenship

A

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269
Q

concurrent Jurisdiction

A

Jurisdiction that exists when two different courts have the power to hear a case. Ex. Some cases can be heard in a federal or a state court

270
Q

exclusive jurisdiction

A

Jurisdiction that exists when a case can be heard only in a particular court or type of court

271
Q

Venue

A

the most appropriate location for the trial

272
Q

Standing to Sue

A

or a sufficient stake in a matter to justify relief through the court system

273
Q

justifiable controversy

A

a controversy that is real and substantial, as opposed to hypothetical or academic

274
Q

The State Court System

A

May include (1) local trial courts of limited jurisdiction (2) state trial courts of general jurisdiction (3) state courts of appeals (Intermediate appellate courts) (4) the states highest court

275
Q

Small claims courts

A

inferior trial courts that hear only civil cases involving claims of less than a certain amount of money, such as $5,000 (varies from state to state)

276
Q

Question of Fact

A

deals with what really happened in regard to the dispute of being tried–such as whether a party actually burned a flag.

277
Q

Question of Law

A

concerns the application or interpretation of the law–such as whether flag burning is a form of speech protected by the first amendment

278
Q

The Federal Court System

A

Three tiered model (1) U.S. District Courts (trial courts of general jurisdiction) and various courts of limited jurisdiction (2) U.S. courts of appeals (intermediate courts of appeals) (3) the United States Supreme Court

279
Q

Writ of Certiorari

A

an order issued by the Supreme Court to a lower court requiring the latter to send it the record of the case for review

280
Q

Rule of four

A

four out of nine justices must approve of a request for a writ of Certiorari

281
Q

Litigation

A

the process of resolving a dispute through the court system (expensive and time consuming)

282
Q

Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)

A

alternative to litigation due to its flexibility

283
Q

Negotiation

A

a process in which the parties attempt to settle their dispute informally, with or without attorneys to represent them.

284
Q

Mediation

A

a neutral third party acts as a mediator and works with both sides in the dispute to facilitate a solution.

285
Q

Arbitration

A

a more formal method of ADR, where an arbitrator ( neutral 3r d party or panel of experts) hears a dispute and imposes a resolution on the parties.

286
Q

award

A

the decision which the arbitrator renders

287
Q

arbitration clause

A

within contracts specifying any dispute arising under the contract will be resolved through arbitration rather than through the court system.

288
Q

Early Neutral Case Evaluation

A

type of ADR, parties select a neutral third party to evaluate their respective decisions

289
Q

Mini-trial

A

type of ADR, each party’s attorney briefly argues the parties case before the other and a panel of representatives from each side who have the authority to settle the dispute

290
Q

Summary jury trials

A

type of ADR, where the parties present their arguments and evidence and the jury render a verdict

291
Q

Online Dispute Resolution (ODR)

A

settlement of disputes in online forums

292
Q

American Arbitration Association (AAA)

A

major provider of ADR services, founded in 1926 and now handles more than 200,000 cases per year

293
Q

federal rules of civil procedure (FRCP)

A

the rules controlling procedural matter in civil trials brought before the federal district courts

294
Q

affidavit

A

a written or printed voluntary statement of facts, confirmed by the oath or affirmation of the party making it and made before a person having the authority to administer the oath or affirmation.

295
Q

affirmative defense

A

a response to a plaintiff’s claim that does not deny the plaintiff’s facts buy attacks the plaintiff’s legal right to bring an action.

296
Q

answer

A

Procedurally, a defendant’s response to the plaintiff’s complaint

297
Q

brief

A

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298
Q

closing argument

A

an argument made after the plaintiff and defendant have rested their cases. Closing arguments are made prior to the jury charges.

299
Q

complaint

A

the pleading made by a plaintiff alleging wrongdoing on the part of the defendant; the document that, when filed with a court initiates a law suit.

300
Q

counterclaim

A

a claim made by a defendant in a civil lawsuit that in effect sues the plaintiff.

301
Q

cross-examination

A

the questioning of an opposing witness during a trial.

302
Q

default judgment

A

a judgment entered by a court against a defendant who has failed to appear in court to answer or defend against the plaintiff’s claim.

303
Q

deposition

A

the testimony of a party to a lawsuit or a witness taken under oath before a trial.

304
Q

direct examination

A

the examination of a witness by the attorney who calls the witness to the stand to testify on behalf of the attorney’s client.

305
Q

discovery

A

a phase in the litigation process during which the opposing parties may obtain information from each other and from third parties prior trial.

306
Q

e-evidence

A

a type of evidence that consists of computer generated or electronically recorded information, including email, voice mail, spreadsheets, word processing documents and other data.

307
Q

hearsay

A

an oral or written statement made out of court that is later offered in court by a witness ( not the person who made the statement) to prove the truth of the matter asserted in the statement. Hearsay is generally inadmissible as evidence.

308
Q

interrogatories

A

a series of written questions for which written answers are prepared and then signed under oath by a party to a lawsuit, usually with the assistance of the party’s attorney.

309
Q

motion

A

a procedural request or application presented by an attorney to the court on behalf of a client.

310
Q

motion for a directed verdict

A

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311
Q

motion for a judgment as a matter of law

A

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312
Q

motion for a new trial

A

A motion asserting that the trial was so fundamentally flawed (because of error, newly discovered evidence, prejudice, or other reason) that a new trial is necessary to prevent a miscarriage of justice

313
Q

motion for judgment n.o.v.

A

a motion requesting the court to grant judgment in favor of the party making the motion on the ground that the jury verdict again him/her was unreasonable and erroneous.

314
Q

motion for judgment on the pleadings

A

a motion by either party to a lawsuit at the close of the pleading requesting the court to decide the issue solely on the pleading without proceeding to trial. The motion will be granted only if no facts are in dispute.

315
Q

motion for summary judgment

A

a motion requesting the court enter judgment without proceeding to trial. The motion can be based on evidence outside the pleadings and will be granted only if no facts are in dispute.

316
Q

motion to dismiss

A

a pleading in which a defendant asserts tat the plaintiff’s claim fails to state a cause of action (that is, has no basis for law) or that there are other grounds on which a suit should be dismissed.

317
Q

opening statement

A

a statement made to the jury at the beginning of a trial by a party’s attorney, prior to the presentation of evidence. The attorney briefly outlines the evidence that ill be offered and the legal theory that will be pursed.

318
Q

pleadings

A

statements made by the plaintiff and the defendant in a lawsuit that detail the facts, charges, and defenses involved in the litigation; the complaint and answer are part of the pleadings.

319
Q

pretrial conference

A

a conference, scheduled before the trial begins, between the judge and the attorneys litigating suit. The parties may settle the dispute, clarify the issues, schedule discovery and so on during the conference.

320
Q

pretrial motion

A

a written or oral application to court fro a ruling or order, made before trial.

321
Q

rebuttal

A

the refutation of evidence introduced by an adverse party’s attorney.

322
Q

rejoinder

A

the defendant’s answer to the plaintiff’s rebuttal.

323
Q

relevant evidence

A

evidence tending to make a fact at issue in the case more or less probable than it would be without the evidence. Only relevant evidence is admissible in court.

324
Q

rules of evidence

A

rules governing the admissibility of evidence in trial courts.

325
Q

service of process

A

the delivery of the complain and summons to a defendant.

326
Q

summons

A

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327
Q

verdict

A

a formal decision made by a jury

328
Q

voir dire

A

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