Midterm in Obstetrics and Reproduction I

Question 1

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) The GnRH producing nuclei are located in the anterior pituitary.
B) The oxytocin producing nuclei are located in the hypothalamus.
C) Both the surge center and pulse center producing GnRH are located in the hypothalamus.
D) GnRH is transported to the hypophyseal stalk on a perineural way.
E) Oxytocin is transported to the posterior pituitary gland on a perineural way.

Answer 1

A) The GnRH producing nuclei are located in the anterior pituitary.

Question 2

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) Melatonin is produced by the corpus pineale.
B) The daily melatonin pattern has an obvious circadian rhythm.
C) The plasma level of melatonin decreases in daylight and increases in the dark period.
D) Cyclic ovarian function can be induced with melatonin administration in ewes out of the breeding season.
E) In mares the long periods of daily melatonin increase increases the cyclic ovarian activity.

Answer 2

E (decrease of melatonin induces cyclic ovarian activity)

Question 3

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) The GnRH-producing surge center of the hypothalamus must have an estradiol signal for GnRH release.
B) The GnRH-producing surge center of the hypothalamus may be active in males of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season.
C) The GnRH-producing surge center of the hypothalamus is active in females of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season.
D) The GnRH-producing surge center of the hypothalamus is estradiol-sensitive in females of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season.
E) At the time of puberty the GnRH-producing surge center of the hypothalamus becomes estradiol-sensitive in females of seasonal breeder species.

Answer 3

B) The GnRH-producing surge center of the hypothalamus may be active in males of seasonal breeder species during the breeding season.

Question 4

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) GnRH is produced in the anterior pituitary
B) The hypophyseal vessels transporting the GnRH form a portal system.
C) In the hypothalamus separated nuclei are responsible for the tonic and preovulatory-like GnRH release.
D) The pulse frequency of the tonic GnRH release is suppressed by progesterone.
E) The preovulatory-like GnRH release is triggered by 17beta-estradiol.

Answer 4

A (hypothalamus)

Question 5

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) The protein chains of gonadotrop hormones consist of two separate (alpha & beta) subunits.
B) eCG is the recent synonym of pregnant mare serum gonadotropin (PMSG).
C) All gonadotrop hormones contain also significant quantity of carbohydrates (e.g. sialic acid)
D) The correct order of gonadotrops in increasing molecular weight: LH/hCG/FSH/eCG
E) The molecular weight of LH smaller than that of the FSH.

Answer 5

D) The correct order of gonadotrops in increasing molecular weight: LH/hCG/FSH/eCG

Question 6

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) The molecular weight of FSH smaller than that of the hCG.
B) The LH may be filtrated via the urine.
C) The FSH may be filtrated via the urine.
D) The hCG may be filtrated via the urine.
E) The eCG may be filtrated via the urine.

Answer 6

E) The eCG may be filtrated via the urine.

Question 7

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) The biological half-life of FSH is approx. 120 min.
B) The biological half-life of LH is <20-30 min.
C) The biological half-life of hCG is approx. 120 min.
D) The biological half-life of LH is shorter than that of FSH
E) The biological half-life of eCG is approx. 26 hours.

Answer 7

C) The biological half-life of hCG is approx. 120 min.

Question 8

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) In mare the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 3-5 hours.
B) In rabbit the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours.
C) In ruminants the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours.
D) In dog the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 24 hours.
E) In pig the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 24 hours.

Answer 8

A) In mare the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 3-5 hours.

Question 9

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) The dog ovulates about 24-48 (<72) hours after the preovulatory LH peak.
B) The mare ovulates in the latest hours of the preovulatory LH peak (although the duration of the preovulatory LH elevation is unusually long)
C) The ewe and goat ovulates in the latest hours of the preovulatory LH peak.
D) The pig ovulates about 40 hours after the onset of the preovulatory LH peak.
E) The cow ovulates about 24-48 hours after the preovulatory LH peak.

Answer 9

B) The mare ovulates in the latest hours of the preovulatory LH peak (although the duration of the preovulatory LH elevation is unusually long)

Question 10

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) In rabbit and ruminants the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration may be suitable to mimic/induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak.
B) The hCG administration can mimic/induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak in most of the species.
C) In dog and pig the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration, as a single method, is usually not reliable enough to mimic/induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak.
D) In horse the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration, as a single method, is usually reliable enough to mimic/induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak.
E) If we need FSH-like effect, eCG containing preparations should be administered.

Answer 10

D) In horse the LH release challenged by a GnRH administration, as a single method, is usually reliable enough to mimic/induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak.

Question 11

Please indicate the incorrect statement.
A) Primordial follicles consist of about 30 flat granulosa cells the oocyte and surrounded by basal membrane.
B) The size of primordial follicles is about 30-50 um in diameter.
C) Primary follicles consist of about 30-60 cuboidal granulose cells plus the oocyte.
D) Primary follicles need some local growth factors for their further differentiation.
E) Primary follicles can produce 17beta-estradiol and inhibin.

Answer 11

E

Question 12

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the antral (tertiary/Graafian) follicles, is incorrect.
A) The wall of antral follicles consists of multiple layer of granulose cells, basement membrane, furthermore theca interna and externa cells.
B) The cells of theca interna have, but the granulosa cells do not have direct connection with the capillary network.
C) The cells of the theca interna are capable of cholesterol intake directly from the capillary network.
D) The granulosa cells are capable of cholesterol intake directly from the follicular fluid.
E) Also the granulosa cells produce steroid hormones.

Answer 12

D) The granulosa cells are capable of cholesterol intake directly from the follicular fluid.

Question 13

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the antral (tertiary/Graafian) follicles, is correct.
A) The granulosa cells can produce 17beta-estradiol and inhibin.
B) The granulosa cells need inhibin for 17beta-estradiol production.
C) The IGF-1 (and insulin) content of the follicular fluid decreases the 17beta-estradiol producing aromatase activity of granulose cells.
D) The granulosa cells need progesterone for the 17beta-estradiol production.
E) The theca interna cells need cortisol for 17beta-estradiol production.

Answer 13

A) The granulosa cells can produce 17beta-estradiol and inhibin.

Question 14

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the antral (tertiary/Graafian) follicles, is correct.
A) The theca interna cells can produce 17beta-estradiol and inhibin.
B)The granulosa cells need inhibin for 17beta-estradiol production.
C) The IGF-1 (and insulin) content of the follicular fluid increases the 17beta-estradiol producing aromatase activity of granulose cells.
D) The granulose cells need progesterone for the 17beta-estradiol production.
E) The theca interna cells need cortisol for 17beta-estradiol production.

Answer 14

C) The IGF-1 (and insulin) content of the follicular fluid increases the 17beta-estradiol producing aromatase activity of granulose cells. ?

Question 15

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the estrus in cow is correct.
A) During the estrus the quality of cervical discharge is grayish and sticky.
B) At the beginning of the estrus cows tease the others, but at that time they are not really sexually receptive.
C) During the estrus the tonicity of the myometrium is decreased.
D) In cows the preovulatory follicle can be palpated rectally, as a smooth-surfaced, spherical, thightly -> softly fluctuating structure, <10 mm in diameter.
E) During the estrus the ion (Na+ and Cl-) content of the vaginal discharge decreases.

Answer 15

B) At the beginning of the estrus cows tease the others, but at that time they are not really sexually receptive.

Question 16

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the uterus is incorrect.
A) Oxytocin and 17beta-estradiol increase the tonicity of myometrium.
B) Inhibin decreases the tonicity of myometrium.
C) The luteolytic PGF2alpha is synthesized in the endometrium.
D) The type of the bovine uterus is “Uterus bicornis subseptus”.
E) The type of equine uterus is “Uterus bicornis non-subseptus”.

Answer 16

B) Inhibin decreases the tonicity of myometrium.

Question 17

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the ovulation is incorrect.
A) The spontaneously ovulating domestic mammals: ruminants, horse, pig, dog
B) Domestic mammals with induced ovulation: Cat, ferret, camel
C) In spontaneous ovulators the preovulatory LH peak is triggered by the 17beta-estradiol production of the dominant follicle.
D) In spontaneous ovulators the 17beta-estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only prerequisite of the formation of preovulatory LH peak.
E) In induced ovulators the 17beta-estradiol induces estrous signs and predispose for ovulation, but the preovulatory LH peak is triggered by the vaginal insult of mating/intromission plus the mating behavior.

Answer 17

D) In spontaneous ovulators the 17beta-estradiol production of the dominant follicle is the only prerequisite of the formation of preovulatory LH peak.

Question 18

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the development and function of corpus luteum, is incorrect.
A) During the formation of luteal tissue the theca interna cells develop to small luteal cells, whereas the granulosa cells differentiate directly to large luteal cells.
B) The small luteal cells may have a further differentiation to large luteal cells.
C) In a cow or mare about 8-10 days after the ovulation about 80% of the total quantity of progesterone is produced by the large luteal cells.
D) The corpus luteum can never been palpated rectally in cattle.
E) In a cow about 8-10 days after the ovulation the corpus luteum is about 15-20 mm in diameter, and in most of the cases it is well-recognized by rectal palpation.

Answer 18

D) The corpus luteum can never been palpated rectally in cattle.

Question 19

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the luteolytic process of corpus luteum, is incorrect.
A) The PGF2alpha produced by the endometrium is the known main luteolytic agent in most of the domestic mammals.
B) Oxytocin is involved in the regulation of endometrial PGF2alpha release.
C) In ruminants there is a local utero-ovarian vascular coutercurrent diffusion system transporting the endometrial PGF2alpha into the corpus luteum. According to this mechanism the incidence of corpus luteum persistency is relatively seldom malfunction.
D) Certain quantity of PGF2alpha is produced also in the inflammatory processes.
E) Administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase the endometrial and inflammatory production of PGF2alpha.

Answer 19

E) Administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs increase the endometrial and inflammatory production of PGF2alpha.

Question 20

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the luteolytic process of corpus luteum, is incorrect.
A) In ruminants the corpus luteum becomes PGF2alpha-sensitive 4 days after the ovulation.
B) In mares the corpus luteum becomes PGF2alpha-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation.
C) In pig the corpus luteum becomes PGF2alpha-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation.
D) Luteolysis is the apoptotic degeneration of luteal cells.
E) Most of the luteolytic effects of PGF2alpha are directed to the large luteal cells.

Answer 20

C) In pig the corpus luteum becomes PGF2alpha-sensitive 5 days after the ovulation.

Question 21

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the wave like development of gonadotrop sensitive follicles is incorrect.
A) In cattel there are usually 2-3 waves in growth of follicles per cycle.
B) In sheep there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles in most of the cycles, however, the individual variability is important.
C) In pig there are usually 3-4 waves in growth of follicles per cycles.
D) In mares there is only 1 (or perhaps 2) wave(s) in growth of follicles per cycle.
E) In goat there are usually 3-5 waves in growth of follicles per cycle.

Answer 21

C - only one wave

Question 22

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the fertilization and early embryonic development is incorrect.
A) At ovulation the oocyte is in the metaphase of the 2nd meiotic cell division.
B) After fertilization the main function of the zona reaction is to prevent the penetration of further spermatozoa.
C) The bovine embryo enters from the ovicuct to the uterine horn as an early blastocyst 7 days after the conception.
D) The pre-conceptional aging of oocyte predisposes for polyspermia.
E) The bovine embryo hatches from the zona pellucida on day 8-9 after conception.

Answer 22

D) The pre-conceptional aging of oocyte predisposes for polyspermia.

Question 23

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the maternal recognition of pregnancy is incorrect.
A) Some hours after hatching from the zone pellucida the equine embryo starts an intensive longitudinal growth. (elongation)
B) Some hours after hatching from the zona pellucida the ruminant and porcine embryos start an internsive longitudinal growth (elongation)
C) In ruminatns the embryonic signal of maternal recognition of pregnancy is a protein belonging to the interferon family (interferon-1)
D) In pig the embryonic signal in maternal recognition of pregnancy is estrogen-based.
E) In mares the embryonic signal of maternal recognition of pregnancy is a protein, however its effect is combined/completed also with some estrogesn of embryonic origin.

Answer 23

A) Some hours after hatching from the zone pellucida the equine embryo starts an intensive longitudinal growth. (elongation)

Question 24

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the varois pathogens of bovine mastitis, is incorrect.
A) Str. uberis is one of the environmental mastitis pathogens.
B) Str. dysgalactiae is one of the envirnonmental mastits pathogens, although occasionally it can also be transferred from cow to cow.
C) Corynebacterium bovis is one of the contagious mastitis pathogens.
D) E.coli is one of the contagious mastitis pathogens.
E) The capsule-producing ability is an important characteristic of mastitis-pathogen S.ausreus strains.

Answer 24

B) Str. dysgalactiae is one of the envirnonmental mastits pathogens, although occasionally it can also be transferred from cow to cow.

Question 25

Please indicate, what of the below statements related to the somatic cell count of the milk, is incorrect.
A) The SCC of the milk can be estimated also with California Mastitis Test.
B) The SCC of the milk can increase if samples are stored above +4 °C
C) The SCC of the milk is usually slightly higher at the end than at the beginning of the milking procedure.
D) The SCC of the milk is more elevated at the end than during the peak lactation.
E) In Corynebacterium bovis infected quarters the SCC may be normal.

Answer 25

B) The SCC of the milk can increase if samples are stored above +4 °C

Question 26

Which sign is not characteristic for starting a delivery?
A) vulva-oedema
B) foul-smelling discharge from the vagina
C) udder oedema and colostrum secretion
D) labour pains.

Answer 26

B) foul-smelling discharge from the vagina

Question 27

Which species has a refracted broken final part of the soft birth canal? 
A) Dog 
B) Horse
C) Cattle 
D) Cat

Answer 27

A) Dog

Question 28

Which of these pain types is responsible for the expulsion of the placenta? 
A) opening pains
B)expulsive pains 
C) violent pains 
D) after pains

Answer 28

D) after pains

Question 29

How can you diagnose an internal uterine torsion in a cow?
A) by vaginal palpation
B) by vaginoscopy
C) by the appearance of violent labor pains
D) by rectal palpation

Answer 29

D) by rectal palpation

Question 30

What is the rectal palpation finding of a bovine corpus luteum? 
A) liver-like 
B) elastic 
C) flaccid 
D) densed elastic

Answer 30

A) liver-like

Question 31

Please indicate the incorrect statement, the case history in a parturient animal is not suitable for:
A) Giving a correct diagnosis (as a single method), which has been set up by the owner/farmer
B) Helping the veterinarian to set up a correct diagnosis
C) Proving, whether anybody else a previous examination been performed
D) To get information about the length of the recent pregnancy

Answer 31

A) Giving a correct diagnosis (as a single method), which has been set up by the owner/farmer

Question 32

Which two diameters are important to determine the type of the pelvis?
A) Diameter obliqua maxima & Diameter transversa media
B) Diameter obliqua maxima & Diameter transversa aperturae pelvis cranialis intermedia
C) Conjugata vera & Diameter transversa aperturae pelvis caudalis
D) Conjugata vera & Diameter transvers aperturae pelvis cranialis intermedia

Answer 32

D) Conjugata vera & Diameter transvers aperturae pelvis cranialis intermedia

Question 33

Please, indicate the incorrect statement for the possibilities of solving the uterine torsion in cows.
A) manual reposition through the vagina
B) rotation of the cow’s body (the wooden plank method)
C) laparoscopy
D) caesarean section

Answer 33

C) laparoscopy

Question 34

Which term is incorrect? 
A) dorsal (upright) position 
B) foot-nape posture 
C) dorsal transverse position 
D) vertical presentation

Answer 34

C) Presentation

Question 35

Which statement is true?
A) absolute large fetuses do not survive
B) extraction can only be applied in a relatively large foal with a double sided hip flexion
C) the lack of eye and suckling reflexes do not obviously mean that the fetus has died
D) it is not necessary to continue the test extraction immediately with the allowed forced extraction in a longitudinal anterior presentation

Answer 35

C) the lack of eye and suckling reflexes do not obviously mean that the fetus has died

Question 36

Which is not an abnormal presentation?
A) Ventral position of a foal foetus during the second trimester of pregnancy
B) Double sided hip flexion of a small calf fetus
C) Harms dog sitting position
D) Shoulder flexion of a piglet

Answer 36

A) Ventral position of a foal foetus during the second trimester of pregnancy

Question 37

Please mark the inappropriate statement.
A) The ventral surfaces of the hoofs are looking laterally.
B) (Oblique) ventro vertical presentation is also called as two horn pregnancy.
C) The most frequently occurring abnormal posture of the head is its lateral deviation:
D) The back of the fetus might be palpated in the birth canal during dorso transverse presentation

Answer 37

B) (Oblique) ventro vertical presentation is also called as two horn pregnancy.

Question 38

Please mark the synonym for Harm’s dog sitting position. 
A) a vetro-vertical presentation
B) an oblique dorsal position
C) a dorso-transverse presenation
D) a ventral position

Answer 38

A) a vetro-vertical presentation

Question 39

Which statement is not correct?
A) The posterior presentation is abnormal
B) Ventral position of a fetus during the expulsive stage is abnormal
C) Anterior presentation is normal
D) Foot-nape posture is the milder (less severe) form of the downward displacement of the head, during this, the two frontlegs are in the pelvic cavity, and the scull is pushed to the pecten.

Answer 39

A) The posterior presentation is abnormal

Question 40

Which statement is not correct?
A) During a longitudinal posterior presentation, the flexion direction of the fetlock is opposite to that of the first joint proximal to it.
B) The plantar surfaces of the hoofs/claws are facing upwards if the position is dorsal
C) There is a bony knob on the second joint proximal to the fetlock on the hind legs
D) In posterior presentation, the flexion direction of the metatarsophalangeal joint is the same as that of the second joint proximal to it.

Answer 40

C (first joint proximal to fetlock)

Question 41

Which of these is a double monster? 
A) Schistosoma reflexum
B) Perosomus elumbis 
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Diprosopus

Answer 41

D) Diprosopus

Question 42

Which moster type does not have an enlarged diameter of the head? 
A) Amorphus globosus
B) Hydrocephalus internus
C) Hydrocephalokele
D) Hydrocephalus externus

Answer 42

A) Amorphus globosus

Question 43

Which statement characterizes the amnitotic fluid? 
A) Straw yellow 
B) Water-like consistency 
C) Egg-yolk-like consistency 
D) in cat it can get dark green

Answer 43

C) Egg-yolk-like consistency

Question 44

What is methylcellulose?
A) a preparation often used to administer during paravertebral anaesthesia
B) a main component of the allantioc fluid
C) the main component of modern lubricants
D) a sedative

Answer 44

C) the main component of modern lubricants

Question 45

In which case do we have to apply a test traction in the cow? 
A) lateral deviation of the head
B) relative large fetus
C) incomplete extention of the elbow
D) torsio uteri externum

Answer 45

B) relative large fetus

Question 46

The following statement is true for the allowed forced extraction:
A) It should always be performed on a standing animal
B) A medium power person performs it during straining of the dam.
C) 3 to 4 medium power persons alternatingly pull the obstetrical chains/ropes, which have been fixed to the legs and head of the fetus
D) Its purpose is to test whether a fetus can be born through the birth canal

Answer 46

C) 3 to 4 medium power persons alternatingly pull the obstetrical chains/ropes, which have been fixed to the legs and head of the fetus

Question 47

Please mark the right statement.
A) The purpose of episiotomy is the distinction of left and right forms of uterine torsion.
B) Episiotomy has to be performed along the medial line between the vulva and the anal ring in bitches (episiotomia media)
C) A dorsolateral cut for episiotomy can only be performed in cattle.
D) Because of the high risk of injuring large vessels, episiotomy should not be applied in horses

Answer 47

B) Episiotomy has to be performed along the medial line between the vulva and the anal ring in bitches (episiotomia media)

Question 48

When would you perform an episiotomy in the cow?
A) in case of a dead fetus
B) in case of an abnormal presentation
C) in case of a monster
D) if only the last critical part of the soft birth canal is narrow and the fetus could pass the pony part and the cervix.

Answer 48

D) if only the last critical part of the soft birth canal is narrow and the fetus could pass the pony part and the cervix.

Question 49

Please mark the right statement.
In postpartum suckling beef cows the formation of preovulatory-like LH release is under a beta-endorphin blockade
A) for at least 35-45 days after calving
B) for max 35-45 days after calving
C) for max 60-75 days after calving
D) due to the long-lasting energetic imbalance

Answer 49

A) for at least 35-45 days after calving

Question 50

Please mark the right statement.
In postpartum suckling beef cows the time of first postpartum ovulation is influenced by the:
A) long-lasting energetic imbalance
B) protein overfeeding
C) manganese deficiency
D) body condition at calving, rather than the postpartum body condition loss

Answer 50

D) body condition at calving, rather than the postpartum body condition loss

Question 51

Please mark the incorrect statement.
In postpartum suckling beef cows the first postpartum ovulation can be induced by:
A) temporary calf removal
B) synthetic gestagen (norgestomet) + eCG administration
C) natural gestagen (progesterone) + eCG administration
D) introduction of bulls

Answer 51

D) introduction of bulls

Question 52

Please mark the right statement.
In postpartum (non-suckling) dairy cows:
A) the GnRH -> FSH + LH release is under a complete beta-endorphin blockade at least 35-45 days after calving
B) the GnRh -> FSH + LH release is under a complete beta-endorphin blockade for max. 5 days after calving
C) the first wave-like development of follicles recruits on 35-45 days after calving
D) the first dominant follicle develops not earlier than 35-45 days after calving

Answer 52

B) the GnRh -> FSH + LH release is under a complete beta-endorphin blockade for max. 5 days after calving

Question 53

Please mark the incorrect statement.
In postpartum (non-suckling) dairy cows the first ovulation may interrelate with: 
A) the nadir of energetic imbalance
B) the body condition at calving
C) the body condition loss after calving
D) beta-carotene – vitamin A deficiency

Answer 53

D) beta-carotene – vitamin A deficiency

Question 54

Please mark the incorrect statement.
In postpartum cows the most important predisposing factors for puerperal metritis:
A) retained fetal membranes
B) at calving: (unhygienic) manual assistance within the birth canal
C) at and just after calving: elevated levels of blood ketone
D) calving on a pasture land

Answer 54

D) calving on a pasture land

Question 55

Please mark the right statement.
On day 28 after calving your cow has abundant, mucopurulent cervical discharge (estimated pus content: > 60%) and the diameter of cervix at the external orifice is about 8 cm. Wat is your diagnosis?
A) Puerperal metritis
B) clinical endometritis
C) pyometra
D) physiological course of uterine involution

Answer 55

B) clinical endometritis

Question 56

Please mark the incorrect statement.
In therapy of puerperal metritis
A) The intrauterine administration of oxytetracycline is the most traditional (but currently less effective) antimicrobial therapy.
B) Due to the less sensitive character of the most uterine pathogens the dose of oxytetracycline is about 2-4 g/animal currently.
C) It would be better not to use the high-dose (2-4 g/animal) intrauterine oxytetracycline administration.
D) The local administration of first generation cephalosporins (cefapirine) is the most proper way antimicrobial therapy.

Answer 56

D) The local administration of first generation cephalosporins (cefapirine) is the most proper way antimicrobial therapy.

Question 57

Please mark the incorrect statement.
In therapy of puerperal metritis
A) The intrauterine efficacy of aminoglycosides (neomycin, gentamycin) is questionable because of the low oxygen tension.
B) The administration of third and forth generation cephalosporins would be most proper way antimicrobial therapy.
C) the intrauterine E.coli strains are less sensitive to third and forth generation cephalosporins, than to first cephalosporins.
D) The administration on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs would be usually justified.

Answer 57

C) the intrauterine E.coli strains are less sensitive to third and forth generation cephalosporins, than to first cephalosporins.

Question 58

Please mark the right statement.
The proper technique for diagnosis of subclinical endometritis in cattle:
A) Week 8-9 after calving or later: cytology of smear samples taken from the surface of the endometrium with cytobrush technique or small volume lavage
B) Week 5-7 after calving: cytology of smear samples taken from the surface of the endometrium with cytobrush technique or small volume lavage
C) Week 8-9 after calving or later: cytology of vaginal smear samples
D) Week 8-9 after calving or later: rectal palpation of uterus

Answer 58

A) Week 8-9 after calving or later: cytology of smear samples taken from the surface of the endometrium with cytobrush technique or small volume lavage

Question 59

Please mark, which of the below mastitis pathogens has minimal chance to survive in the mammary gland during the dry period. 
A) E.coli
B) Staph.aureus
C) Str.dysgalactiae
D) Str.uberis

Answer 59

A) E.coli

Question 60

Please mark, which of the below mastits pathogens has minimal chance for adherence on the epithelial cells during the intramammary invasion: 
A) E.coli
B) Staph.aureus
C) Str.dysgalactiae
D) Str.uberis

Answer 60

B) Staph.aureus

Question 61

One or more of the below statements related to the hypothalamic regulation of reproduction is/are incorrect. Please indicate it/them.
A) The GnRH producing nuclei of hypothalamus are located in the ventrolateral wall of the third ventricle.
B) The nucleus paraventricularis can produce oxytocin.
C) The nucleus supraopticus can produce GnRH.
D) The nucleus arcuatus can produce oxytocin.
E) The producer neurons transport the GnRH trough their axons to the superior hypophyseal arteries located in the stalk of the pituitary.

Answer 61

C (Oxytocin), D (GnRH)

Question 62

One or more of the below statements related to the gonadotrop hormones is/are incorrect. Please indicate it/them.
A) The protein chains of gonadotrop hormones consist of two separate (alpha & beta) subunits.
B) eCG is the recent synonym of pregnant mare serum gonadotropin.
C) The correct order of gonadotrops in increasing molecular weight: LH/hCG/FSH/eCG
D) The correct order of gonadotrops in increasing carbohydrate (sialic acid) content of their molecules: FSH/eCG/LH/hCG
E) The correct order of gonadotrops in increasing biological half-life: eCG/LH/hCG/FSH

Answer 62

C) The correct order of gonadotrops in increasing molecular weight: LH/hCG/FSH/eCG
D) The correct order of gonadotrops in increasing carbohydrate (sialic acid) content of their molecules: FSH/eCG/LH/hCG
E) The correct order of gonadotrops in increasing biological half-life: eCG/LH/hCG/FSH

Question 63

One or more of the below statements related to the gonadotrop hormones is/are incorrect. Please indicate it/them.
A) The biological half-life of FSH is <20-30 min
B) The biological half-life of LH is <20-30 min
C) The biological half-life of hCG is approx. 120 min
D) The biological half-life of FSH is approx. 120 min
E) The biological half-life of eCG is approx. 11 hours

Answer 63

A) The biological half-life of FSH is <20-30 min, C (11 h), D (20-30 min), E (1 d)

Question 64

One or more of the below statements related to the gonadotrop hormones is/are incorrect. Please indicate it/them.
A) In mare the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours.
B) In rabbit the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours.
C) In ruminants the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours.
D) In dog the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours.
E) In pig the duration of preovulatory-like LH peak is about 6-8 hours.

Answer 64

A (3-5 d), D (24 h), E (24 h)

Question 65

One or more of the below statements related to the gonadotrop hormones is/are incorrect. Please indicate it/them.
A) In cyclic females the pulse frequency of the tonic LH release is suppressed by 17beta-estradiol.
B) The eCG administration can mimic/induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak in females.
C) The pulse frequency of the tonic LH release is suppressed by progesterone.
D) The eCG administration can mimic/induce the biological effects of tonic LH release in females.
E) The hCG administration can mimic/induce the biological effects of tonic Lh release in females.

Answer 65

A) In cyclic females the pulse frequency of the tonic LH release is suppressed by 17beta-estradiol.
B) The eCG administration can mimic/induce the biological effects of preovulatory LH peak in females.

Question 66

One or more of the below statements related to the secondary follicles is/are incorrect. Please indicate it/them.
A) The granulose cells in a secondary follicle have a multi-layer character.
B) In cattle the number of secondary follicles can be identified with rectal palpation.
C) In mares the secondary follicles can be identified only with transrectal ultrasonography.
D) Regardless of the species the size of secondary follicles is about 200-300 um in diameter.
E) The size of secondary follicles is larger in mares than in cows.

Answer 66

B, E

Question 67

One or more of the below statements related to the antral (tertiary/Graafian) follicles is/are incorrect.
A) In the preovulatory stage the 17beta-estradiol production of granulose cells decreases.
B) In the preovulatory stage the progesterone production of granulose cells decreases.
C) In the preoculatory stage the progesterone production of granulose cells increases, resulting in elevated level of this hormone in the follicular fluid.
D) As a consequence of the above phenomenon (point C) the progesterone level increases also in the peripheral blood in ruminants.
E) As a consequence of the above phenomenon (point C) the progesterone level increases also in the peripheral blood in dog.

Answer 67

B/D

B) In the preovulatory stage the progesterone production of granulose cells decreases.

D) As a consequence of the above phenomenon (point
the progesterone level increases also in the peripheral blood in ruminants.

Question 68

Which of these animals has the most optimal pelvic bone? 
A) Shetland pony mare
B) Danish dog bitch
C) Merino ewe
D) Holstein-frisian cow

Answer 68

A) Shetland pony mare

Question 69

What does not belong to the soft birth canal? 
A) Vagina
B) broad ligaments of pelvis
C) hymen
D) cervix

Answer 69

B) broad ligaments of pelvis

Question 70

What does vaginoscopy mean?
A) Plapation of the vagina
B) histological examination of the vaginal mucosa
C) inserting a vaginoscope and applying a light source into the vagina, for internal observation of the organ
D) checking the vaginal discharge

Answer 70

C) inserting a vaginoscope and applying a light source into the vagina, for internal observation of the organ

Question 71

No critical size of the soft birth canal.
A) pelvic inlet & amp; shoulder region of fetus
B) cervix
C) hymen
D) vulva

Answer 71

A) pelvic inlet & amp; shoulder region of fetus

Question 72

When can the fetus have a good prognosis? 
A) hydrocephalus internus
B) during lateral deviation of head
C) dorso transvers presentation
D) calving occurred on day 250

Answer 72

B) during lateral deviation of head

Question 73

Definition of posture of a fetus.
A) relation of longitudinal axis of the fetus as compared to that of the dam
B) relation of back of fetus compared to that of dam
C) relation of head and legs as compared to trunk of fetus
D) relation of vertebral column of fetus compared to that of dam

Answer 73

C) relation of head and legs as compared to trunk of fetus

Question 74

Clear sign of a dead fetus is, is: 
A) fetus does not react on the rotation or bending of the digits. 
B) umbilibal cord has broken
C) fetus is emphysematic
D) suckling reflex cannot be induced.

Answer 74

C) fetus is emphysematic

Question 75

Which monster type does not have a deformed skull? 
A) cyclops parasiticus
B) hydrocephalus internus
C) hydrocephalus externus
D) hydrocephalokele

Answer 75

D) hydrocephalokele

Question 76

What is characteristic for the Harms dog sitting position in the mare?
A) hoofs of the feuts can perforate the uterine wall
B) it is a type of abnormal posture of the front legs.
C) it shows a fetal genetic deformation when the lumbal, sacral, coccygeal area are poorly developed and the fetus borns with a weak viability
D) reposition is easy and after the expulsion of the fetus it has a good chance to survive.

Answer 76

A) hoofs of the feuts can perforate the uterine wall

Question 77

Which statement is not correct?
A) posterior presentation is abnormal
B) Ventral position of fetus during the expulsion stage is abnormal
C) anterior presentation is normal
D) Foot-nape posture is milder form of the downward displacement of the head. During this two frontlegs are in the pelvic cavity and the scull is pushed to the pecten.

Answer 77

A) posterior presentation is abnormal

Question 78

Which statement is surely incorrect?
A) A hydramniotic fetus cannot survive after birth
B) Oedema of the fetal membranes often accompany brucellosis
C) A hydrallantoic fetus can survive, but its vitality is usually weak
D) The cause of hydramnion is the abnormal function of the fetal kidneys.

Answer 78

A) A hydramniotic fetus cannot survive after birth

Question 79

Please mark the inappropriate statement.
A) Infiltration analgesia is used to anaesthetize the planned operation line
B) During epidural anaesthesia usually 15-20 ml Lidocain is administered into the vertebral canal of the cow
C) Analgesia of the abdominal wall can even be ensured by administering a paravertebral anaesthesia
D)The direction of the needle during epidural anaesthesia in cattle has an angle of 60 to 75 ° to the body surface

Answer 79

D)The direction of the needle during epidural anaesthesia in cattle has an angle of 60 to 75 ° to the body surface

Question 80

In which case do we have to apply a test traction in the cow? 
A) Lateral deviation of the head
B) Relative large fetus
C) Incomplete extension of the elbow
D) Torsio uten externum

Answer 80

B) Relative large fetus

Question 81

How do we perform a test traction in the cow?
A) By the help of 3-4 medium power person
B) Always with a recumbent dam
C) only with a standing animal, using the help of a medium power person
D) A medium power person solves the abnormal presentation during straining of the dam

Answer 81

C) only with a standing animal, using the help of a medium power person

Question 82

Which step is incorrect for episiotomy in the cow?
A) lateral incision of the vulva
B) suture the tissues after extraction of fetus
C) dorsal incision of vulva starting at comissura labiorum dorsale
D) using scissors for cuttings

Answer 82

C) dorsal incision of vulva starting at comissura labiorum dorsale

Question 83

In postpartum suckling beef cows the time of the first postpartum ovulation is influenced by the: 
A) long-lasting suckling
B) physical exercise on grazing lands
C)season
D) presence of bulls

Answer 83

A) long-lasting suckling

Question 84

Mark right statement.
Beef heifers are bred one month before the onset of the arbitrary breeding season of older herd mates, because:
A) they need longer period for conception at the first time
B) they need longer period for resumption of cyclic ovarian function after their first calving
C) they are usually underfed
D) heat stress may be supposed to occur resulting in early embryonic mortality later

Answer 84

B) they need longer period for resumption of cyclic ovarian function after their first calving

Question 85

Mark incorrect statement.
In postpartum, non- suckling dairy cows.
A) the first dominant follicle is present on the ovary on day 8-10 after calving
B) the first dominant follicle may ovulate, may undergo atretic degeneration or may become cystic
C) the first dominant follicle can never produce sufficient quantity of 17beta-estradiol
D) the first dominant follicle needs IGF-1 for its final maturation

Answer 85

C) the first dominant follicle can never produce sufficient quantity of 17beta-estradiol

Question 86

Mark incorrect statement. 
In postpartum, non-suckling dairy cows the first ovulation may be postponed by: 
A)the late nadir of energetic imbalance
B) the outbreak of severe mastitis
C) puerperal metritis
D) manganese deficiency

Answer 86

D) manganese deficiency

Question 87

Mark the right statement.
In cattle the most important (pathognosic) clinical signs of puerperal metritis is:
A) the fetid, malodorous, bad-smelling character of the cervical discharge
B) the reddish-brown colour of the cervical discharge
C) the watery consistency of the cervical discharge
D) the presence of necrotic debris in the cervical discharge

Answer 87

A) the fetid, malodorous, bad-smelling character of the cervical discharge

Question 88

Mark the incorrect statement.
In therapy of puerperal metritis:
A) Currently also broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) are frequently used, but their effect is quite questionable
B) currently also aminoglycosides (neomycin, gentamycin) are frequently administered, but it would be better not to use them
C) The administration of uterotonic drugs is always justified
D) the intrauterine administration of broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) can be combined with clavulanic acid successfully also in therapy of puerperal metritis.

Answer 88

C) The administration of uterotonic drugs is always justified

Question 89

Mark the incorrect statement. 
The below-specified bacteria play important role in pathogenesis of clinical endometritis pyometra
A) E. coli
B) A. pyogenes (T. pyogenes) 
C) F. necrophorum
D) Bacteroides ssp.

Answer 89

A) E. coli

Question 90

One of the statements related to freemartinism is correct.
A) There is an early (30days) anastomosis between the amniotic vesicles
B) It occurs between bull fetuses
C) It occurs between heterosexual fetuses
D) It occurs between homosexual embryos
E) It occurs because of a late (60days) anastomosis of the amniotic vesicles

Answer 90

C) It occurs between heterosexual fetuses

Question 91

One of the statements related to the segmental aplasia of the Müllerian tract is false.
A)Usually both uterine horns are affected
B) The ovaries are functioning
C) Usually one uterine horn is affected
D) The ovarian function is usually physiological
E) It is a hereditary developmental lesion

Answer 91

A) Usually both uterine horns are affected

Question 92

One of the statements related to the follicle theca cyst is false.
A) They are usually larger than 2,5 cm in diameter
B) Usually they have a thin wall
C) Usually they have a thick wall
D) they can occur in both ovaries
E) Usually we can find several cysts

Answer 92

C) Usually they have a thick wall

Question 93

One of the statements related to the medical prevention of follicle cysts is correct.
A)We can give prostaglandin 12-14 days after calving
B) We can give eCG 12-14 days after calving
C) We can give GnRH 12-14 days after calving
D) We can give oestrogens 12-14 days after calving
E) We can give progesterone treatment 12-14 days after calving

Answer 93

C) We can give GnRH 12-14 days after calving

Question 94

What is responsible for the induction of PGF2α synthesis by the endometrium at the
beginning of the luteolysis in the cow?
a) Bovine IFN-tau produced by the embryo.
b) Relaxin produced by the placenta.
c) Progesterone produced by the luteal cells.
d ) Oxytocin produced by the luteal cells.

Answer 94

d ) Oxytocin produced by the luteal cells.

Question 95

Indicate the incorrect statement
a) Different group of neurons are responsible for the tonic and pre-ovulatory-like GnRH
release from the hypothalamus.
b) GnRH transported to the adenohypophysis via the portal plexus.
c) GnRH is produced in the anterior pituitary.
d) Oxytocin is produced by the paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.

Answer 95

c) GnRH is produced in the anterior pituitary.

Question 96

What does puberty mean in domestic animals?

a) Age for first breeding.
b) Maturation of genital organs and start of cyclic sexual activity.
c) Reaching the full body size and conformation.
d) Time of the first conception.

Answer 96

b) Maturation of genital organs and start of cyclic sexual activity.

Question 97

What is typical for the equine estrous cycle?

a) Polyoestrous species with 21-day-long cycles throughout the year.
b) Polyoestrous species with 17-day-long cycles throughout the year.
c) Seasonally polyoestrous long day breeder species.
d) Seasonally polyoestrous short day breeder species.

Answer 97

c) Seasonally polyoestrous long day breeder species.

Question 98

What is the optimum time for insemination in cattle?

a) By the first clinical signs of heat.
b) At peak of the clinical heat symptoms.
c) Second half/last third of the heat.
d) 12-18 hours after the end of clinical signs of the estrous.

Answer 98

b) At peak of the clinical heat symptoms.

Question 99

In the sow, the maternal recognition of pregnancy is based on the production of:

a) Progesterone
b) Pregnancy specific hormone B
c) Estradiol
d) Pregnancy associated glycoprotein

Answer 99

c) Estradiol

Question 100

What is the time of ovulation in cattle?

a) At the first clinical sign of heat.
b) At the peak of clinical heat symptoms.
c) Second half/last third of the heat.
d) 12-18 hours after the end of clinical estrous signs.

Answer 100

d) 12-18 hours after the end of clinical estrous signs.

Question 101

Which statement is true regarding the hormonal background of cattle ovulation?

a) Ovulation takes place at maximal E2 level.
b) Ovulation takes place when the P4 level exceed 2ng/ml.
c) Ovulation is triggered by luteolysis levels of PGF2α.
d) Ovulation takes place 24-30 hours after the LH peak.

Answer 101

d) Ovulation takes place 24-30 hours after the LH peak.

Question 102

Which hormone elevation in the fetus is the very first signal inducing the parturition in
bovine?
a) ACTH + Cortisol
b) PGF2α + Oxytocin
c) Estradiol + Progesterone
d) Relaxin

Answer 102

a) ACTH + Cortisol

Question 103

How many stages does the parturition have in the cow?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Answer 103

b) 3

Question 104

One of the below statements concerning the induction of parturition in the cow is

incorrect. Parturition can be induced with:
a) Relaxin
b) Corticosteroids
c) PGF2α and analogues
d) PGF2α and corticosteroid

Answer 104

a) Relaxin

Question 105

How does a PGF2α treatment with therapeutic dose at the day after parturition act on
the uterine contractility?
a) Enhances
b) Inhibits
c) Does not act on it
d) Enhances on the frequency of contractions but does not influence their intensity

Answer 105

c) Does not act on it

Question 106

What characterizes uterine contractility of normo-calemic cows with retinal foetal
membranes as related to healthy controls within 2 days post-partum?
a) Weaker
b) Same magnitude
c) Stronger
d) Total inactivity

Answer 106

a) Weaker

Question 107

What would you use as first choice to treat puerperal paresis?

a) IM vitamin D
b) Diet rich in cations
c) PO calcium chloride
d) IV calcium gluconicum

Answer 107

d) IV calcium gluconicum

Question 108

Indicate the correct statement:

a) Involution in dairy cow is always completely finished before the first ovulation.
b) Lochia in physiological conditions is a watery, brownish, foul smelling liquid.
c) Blood progesterone (P4) level is high during early involution
d) Size of the uterus is decreased to approx. its half within 10 days post-partum.
e) Following physiological calving, the uterus can be considered sterile.

Answer 108

d) Size of the uterus is decreased to approx. its half within 10 days post-partum.

Question 109

Please choose the one of the bacterial species given below, which presence in the uterus
on days 28-35 post-partum is linearly correlated with impaired reproduction performance
later:
a) Escherichia coli
b) Streptococcus uberis
c) Prevotella bivia
d) Trueperella (Araconobacteriu,) pyogenes
e) Histophilus somni

Answer 109

d) Trueperella (Araconobacteriu,) pyogenes

Question 110

Please evaluate the below statements about clinical examination of different forms of
metritis. Indicate the correct statement:
a) One clinical examination upon transfer from calving unit to production group (i.1. 4-6
days post-partum) is enough.
b) General clinical examination, taking rectal temperature and observation of genitals
provide good enough information for the diagnosis.
c) To establish the diagnosis of sub-clinical endometritis, ultrasonography is necessary.
d) If no spontaneous shedding of discharge takes place, collection from the carnival orifice
either manually or using appropriate tool is strongly advised.

Answer 110

d) If no spontaneous shedding of discharge takes place, collection from the carnival orifice
either manually or using appropriate tool is strongly advised.

Question 111

How can the post-partial negative energy balance be prevented or decreased?
a) With maximal energy intake during the dry period.
b) By restricted feeding during the dry period, followed by ad libitum feeding with
maximal energy content during lactation.
c) Maximal energy intake during the dry period and restricted feeding after calving.
d) Feeding only with energy-rich concentrate after calving.

Answer 111

b) By restricted feeding during the dry period, followed by ad libitum feeding with
maximal energy content during lactation.

Question 112

When does the estrous cycle reinitiate after parturition in dairy cows?

a) 23+/- 7 days
b) 42+/- 7 days
c) 70+/- 7 days

Answer 112

a) 23+/- 7 days

Question 113

The order of hormonal treatments at the Co-Synch protocol?

a) GnRH + PGF2α + GnRH + AI
b) Progesterone + PGF2α
c) PGF2α + PGF2α

Answer 113

a) GnRH + PGF2α + GnRH + AI

Question 114

For how many days the developing corpus luteum is not able to respond to
prostaglandin treatment?
a) 6 days
b) 2 days
c)10 days
d) It is able to respond immediately.

Answer 114

a) 6 days

Question 115

What does silent heat mean?

a) No clinical signs of heat.
b) No corpus luteum develops.
c) No follicle develops.
d) No sound is given by the animal.

Answer 115

a) No clinical signs of heat.

Question 116

How can you diagnose an internal uterine torsion in cow?

a) Vaginal palpation
b) Vaginoscopy
c) Rectal palpation
d) Laparotomy

Answer 116

c) Rectal palpation

Question 117

What is illustrated on this drawing?

a) Harms-dog sitting position
b) Ventro-transverse presentation
c) Twin pregnancy
d) Ventral position
e) Dorsal position

Answer 117

b) Ventro-transverse presentation

Question 118

Which species is not polyoestrous?

a) Cat
b) Horse
c) Ruminant
d) Dog
e) Swine

Answer 118

d) Dog

Question 119

Choose the improper answer for the above drawing:
a) The hind legs may perforate vaginal wall.
b) It illustrated a foal fetus with longitudinal posterior presentation and ventral position.
c) The abnormality can be corrected by using a
Kuhn’s crutch.
d) Only caesarean section can be used to solve it.

Answer 119

d) Only caesarean section can be used to solve it.

Question 120

Choose the proper answer for a fetus in (oblique) dorso-vertical presentation

a) Only Krey-Schottler’s double hook can be used during reposition.
b) The legs of the fetus are usually available.
c) We can use a Caemerer’s torsion fork for reposition.
d) We can try with halving the body of the fetus.

Answer 120

a) Only Krey-Schottler’s double hook can be used during reposition.

Question 121

At what stage does the differentiation of cells starts?

a) 4-8 cell stage
b) 2-4 cell stage
c) Fertilization
d) Blastocyct stage

Answer 121

d) Blastocyct stage

Question 122

What type of placenta does cattle have?

a) Haemochorial discoid
b) Endotheliochorial diffuse
c) Endotheliochorial cotelydon
d) Epitheliochorial cotelydon

Answer 122

d) Epitheliochorial cotelydon

Question 123

What is the fertile lifespan of spermatozoa in dogs?

a) 9-11 days
b) 3-5 days
c) 13-15 day

Answer 123

a) 9-11 days

Question 124

What is the principle of giving progesterone during anoestrous

a) No GnRH and LH peak is produced
b) It induced ovulation

Answer 124

a) No GnRH and LH peak is produced

Question 125

Does GnRH work successfully during deep anoestrous?

a) Yes it generally works successfully
b) No we can not use it successfully

Answer 125

a) Yes it generally works successfully?

Question 126

Which statement is correct?

a) In males both the tonic and the surge centre is found
b) In females only the tonic centre is found
c) In males there is only tonic centre, but no surge centre
d) Female reproductive organs originate from Wolfian
e) In males neither the tonic nor the surge center is found

Answer 126

c) In males there is only tonic centre, but no surge centre

Question 127

What is the palpation finding of a follicle in bovine?

a) Fluctating
b) Flaccid
c) Elastic
d) Densed elastic

Answer 127

a) Fluctating

Question 128

What structure in a cow can be described as: 20-25 cm long snake like, with the
diameter and shape of a pencil point?
a) Uterine body
b) Uterine horn
c) Oviduct
d) Cervix

Answer 128

c) Oviduct

Question 129

When should allowed force extraction not be used?

a) Relatively large foetus
b) Live foetus
c) Dead foetus
d) Dorso-vertical presentation

Answer 129

d) Dorso-vertical presentation

Question 130

Choose the only one incorrect statement during the Götze-method of total fetotomy: -

a) We use a diagonal backrunning cut for the thorax
b) We cut the head and the neck
c) We cut the pelvis between the legs
d) Evisceration

Answer 130

a) We use a diagonal backrunning cut for the thorax

Question 131

What type of cut is this?

a) Forerunning cut
b) Side-running cut
c) Backward running cut
d) Low- running cut

Answer 131

b) Side-running cut

Question 132

What can be used to fix lateral head deviation?

a) Saake snare
b) Gagny loop
c) ostertag eyehook
d) Manually by hand only

Answer 132

b) Gagny loop

Question 133

When does animal return to cyclicity after parturition?

a) After 10 days in dairy cattle
b) After 40 days in both dairy and beef cattle
c) After 20(?) d in dairy and about 3-4 months in suckling beef cattle
d) After 40 days in dairy and 60 beef cattle

Answer 133

c) After 20(?) d in dairy and about 3-4 months in suckling beef cattle

Question 134

When is it most dangerous to measure (+++) ketonuria?

a) 2 weeks pre-partum
b) At calving
c) The day after calving
d) anytime close to calving is equally dangerous

Answer 134

c) The day after calving?

Question 135

How can be prevent the worst effects of NEB?
a) Feeding only high energy concentrate after calving
b) Restricting the feeding during the dry period, and feeding high energy feed during
lactation
c) Feed large quantity of high energy food during dry period

Answer 135

b) Restricting the feeding during the dry period, and feeding high energy feed during
lactation

Question 136

Which one is not part of the abnormal forelimb postures?

a) Shoulder flexion
b) Incomplete elbow extension
c) Head-breast posture
d) Carpal flexion

Answer 136

c) Head-breast posture

Question 137

What does this picture show?
a) Bilateral shoulder flexion
b) Longitudinal anterior position with normal
posture
c) One sided carpal flexion

Answer 137

a) Bilateral shoulder flexion

Question 138

When is the fetal membrane expelled?

a) With the calf
b) Within 24 hours of calving
c) Within the 1st hour after calving
d) Within 2 hours of calving

Answer 138

b) Within 24 hours of calving

Question 139

When is methyl cellulose used in calving?

a) To open birth canal
b) If lubricant is needed
c) If fluid therapy is necessary

Answer 139

b) If lubricant is needed

Question 140

Which is incorrect for primary follicle?

a) Produces inhibin and estrogen
b) Primary follicles can produce 17 beta-estradiol and inhibin

Answer 140

b) Primary follicles can produce 17 beta-estradiol and inhibin

Question 141

When is the foetal membranes expelled?

a) At stage 1
b) At stage 2
c) At stage 3
d) Together with foetus

Answer 141

c) At stage 3

Question 142

Which is a reflex ovulator?

a) Cat

Answer 142

a) Cat

Question 143

What is puberty?

a) When the animal has reached adult body weight
b) When the animal has mature sexual organs and starts cycling
c) First calving

Answer 143

b) When the animal has mature sexual organs and starts cycling

Question 144

Which one of the total fetotomy related statements is correct?

a. In the Benesch-method, the thorax should be sawn until the ventral side of the vertebral column behind the forelegs.
b. In the Götze-method, forth-running cutting planes have to be applied.
c. There is a step belonging to the total fetotomy of a foetus with posterior presentation, when the flexed hind leg is removed by cutting it at the articulation coxae.
d. Evisceration is not necessary.

Answer 144

a. In the Benesch-method, the thorax should be sawn until the ventral side of the vertebral column behind the forelegs.

Question 145

Choose the only one incorrect statement during the Götze-method of total fetotomy:

a. We cut the forelegs in the carpal joint.
b. We cut the head and neck.
c. We use a diagonal back running cut for the thorax.
d. We eviscerate.
e. We cut the pelvic bone between the legs.

Answer 145

c. We use a diagonal back running cut for the thorax.

Question 146

Choose the only correct statement concerning to the most common abnormal presentation in the ewe:

a. Lateral deviation of the head.
b. Breech presentation.
c. Carpal flexion.
d. Transverse presentation.
e. Shoulder flexion.

Answer 146

a. Lateral deviation of the head.?

Question 147

Which of these does not belong to the abnormal postures of the forelegs?

a. Carpal-flexion
b. Foot-nape posture
c. Incomplete extension of the elbow
d. Breast-head posture
e. Shoulder-flexion posture

Answer 147

d. Breast-head posture

Question 148

Choose the proper answer for a foetus in (oblique) dorso-vertical presentation:

a. Its prognosis is good
b. Only krey-Schottler’s double hook can be used during reposition.
c. The legs of the foetus are usually available.
d. We can use a Caemerer’s torsion fork for reposition.
e. We can try to half the body of the foetus.

Answer 148

e. We can try to half the body of the foetus.

Question 149

Select the only incorrect answer for a foetus in (oblique) ventro-vertical presentation:

a. The foetus usually dies even in fresh cases.
b. The dam may show heavy pains.
c. There is a high chance of uterine rupture.
d. The mostly recommended solution is caesarean section.
e. We may use a Kuhn’s crutch for its reposition.

Answer 149

e. We may use a Kuhn’s crutch for its reposition.

Question 150

Choose the only false statement concerning the Caesarean section in the mare:

a. We do it under general anaesthesia.
b. There is an important role in positioning because in dorsal recumbency the pressure of the caudal vena cava can lead to circulation failures.
c. We open the abdominal cavity on the linea alba.
d. We open the non-pregnant uterine horn and pull the foetus from the pregnant horn.
e. We don’t tear the umbilical cord, because the blood accumulated in the placenta should get back to the foetal circulation.

Answer 150

d. We open the non-pregnant uterine horn and pull the foetus from the pregnant horn.?

Question 151

Choose the only false statement concerning the Caesarean section in the mare:

a. We have to suture the endometrium itself alone, because of bleeding from the aterio-venosus arches.
b. If it is possible, we have to remove the foetal membranes.
c. We have to avoid endotoximia in the post-operative therapy.
d. Putting uterine tablets into the lumen provides sufficient protection in the post-operative therapy.
e. In case of uterine infection, intensive fluid therapy is require in the post-operative therapy.

Answer 151

d. Putting uterine tablets into the lumen provides sufficient protection in the post-operative therapy.?