Midterm Reviewer Flashcards

1
Q

Who suggested that environmental and host factors such as behaviors might influence the development of disease?

A

Hippocrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

who studied the association of lung cancer to smoking?

A

Doll and Hill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

It refers to the occurrence of health-related events by time, place, and person

A

Patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

securing

  • appropriate clearances and approvals, adhering to appropriate ethical principles,
  • abstracting records, tracking down and interviewing subjects,
  • collecting and handling specimens, and
  • managing the data.
A

Conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ability to produce the intended results with minimum resource expenditure

A

Efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

It is sometimes called “information for action”.

A

Public Health Surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

It is used to assess the prevalence of a health outcome at a certain point of time without regard to its duration.

A

Cross Sectional Study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

It first determines whether a person in the community is exposed to a certain risk factor or not, and then to observe that person’s exposure status in the following days.

A

cohort study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

involves going into the community to learn more about the natural history and clinical spectrum of a disease before determining intervention methods against it.

A

Field Investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who is the Father of Field Epidemiology?

A

John Snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

It is obtained by division of two unrelated numbers.

A

Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

It involved putting the study findings into perspective, identifying the key take-home messages, and making sond recommendations.

A

Interpretation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the ability to produce the intended or expected results in the field

A

Effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the proportion of the population that has disease at a particular time and is useful in describing the occurrence of chronic conditions

A

Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Its first step involves classifying those who have the condition and those without the condition.

A

Case Control Study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

epidemiologist working in a team to accomplish their goals in the community

A

exhibits linkages in public health science.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Its purpose is to display the patterns of disease occurrence and potential so that investigation, control, and prevention measures can be applied in a cost efficient yet effective manner.

A

public health surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Purpose of public health surveillance

A

Its purpose is to display the patterns of disease occurrence and potential so that investigation, control, and prevention measures can be applied in a cost efficient yet effective manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

involves epidemiologists to regularly provide input, testimony, and recommendations regarding disease control and health-care policies.

A

Policy Development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

determines if the health program that was implemented locally is truly effective and cost-efficient

A

evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This study do not allow calculation of incidence.

A

Case-control study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

It iss weaker than either a cohort or case-control study since it cannot distinguish risk factors for disease occurrence from risk factors for survival with the disease

A

Cross sectional study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

It refers to contaminated touch surfaces

A

Fomite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

transmitted through the fecal-oral route.

A

Hepatitis A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hepatitis A is transmitted through

A

Fecal-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the number one prevention method for avoiding the transmission of diseases through the fecal-oral route.

A

Handwashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the condition of having at least three loose, liquid, or watery bowel movements in a day.

A

Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the known cause of diarrheal disease.

A

Escherichia coli, Rotavirus, and Norwalk Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

diarrhea that lasts for 14 days or longer.

A

Chronic Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

cocci bacteria with a cluster-like arrangement.

A

Staphyloccus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the second most common cause of bacterial pneumonia.

A

Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

True or False

Pneumonia may be of viral origin

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

It affects the lower respiratory tract.

A

Bronchiolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

It is also known as the swine flu.

A

Influenza A(H1N1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

primarily affects cattle and is not a serious human pathogen.

A

Influenza D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

results to higher mortalities among immunocompromised populations, underlying disease prior to influenza infection, and Influenza Type A mutations leading to new viral phenotypes.

A

Influenza epidemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Influenza epidemics results to

A
  • higher mortalities among immunocompromised populations, underlying disease prior to influenza infection,
  • Influenza Type A mutations leading to new viral phenotypes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

also known as Breakbone Fever.

A

Dengue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

transmitted by the female Aedes mosquito.

A

Dengue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dengue is transmitted by

A

the female Aedes mosquito.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

belongs to a group of viruses causing acute febrile illness​

A

Chikungunya virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Malaria may cause severe

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

protozoans that cause malaria.

A

Plasmodium spp.

44
Q

Plasmodium spp. are transmitted by

A

female Anopheles mosquito

45
Q

the most common causative agent of malaria in the world.

A

Plasmodium vivax

46
Q

Malaria can be prevented through

A

Vector Control

47
Q

considered to be at a greater risk of acquiring a malarial infection rather than the actual long-term residents in an endemic area because the locals have built up an immunity against malarial parasites through chronic exposure.

A

Travelers

48
Q

Viruses with no envelope are called as

A

naked viruses

49
Q

Viruses have a protein coat called

A

capsid

50
Q

It cannot be seen through the OIO objective in the microscope.

A

Viruses

51
Q

True or False

HIV infection does immediately result to AIDS.

A

False

52
Q

True or False

HIV can be transmitted through contact with sweat and tears.

A

False

53
Q

True or False

HIV is not transmissible through sweat, saliva, tears, and urine because of the low viral count in these body fluids.

A

True

54
Q

what cell count of less than 200 cell/uL increases the risk of getting infected by opportunistic pathogens.

A

CD4+

55
Q

not targeted and destroyed by HIV viral replication.

A

T-cytotoxic lymphocytes

56
Q

True or False

Non-communicable diseases cause 60% of total deaths globally and 40% of universal disease burden annually.

A

True

57
Q

True or False

Non-communicable diseases are preventable.

A

True

58
Q

a common risk factor for developing non-communicable diseases.

A

Unhealthy diet

59
Q

True or False

Though the BMI of obesity is 30 or greater, those with a BMI of 25 to 29.9 are considered overweight, borderline obese

A

True

60
Q

Among the risk factors for developing coronary heart disease.

A

High LDL levels, low HDL levels, and smoking

61
Q

Its not included in the risk factors of coronary heart disease.

A

Substance abuse

62
Q

It is also known as the good cholesterol

A

HDL or high density lipoprotein

63
Q

It is also known as the bad cholesterol.

A

LDL or high density lipoprotein

64
Q

It is responsible for reverse cholesterol transport, which means it transports the cholesterol from the tissues to the liver for metabolism.

A

HDL

65
Q

Which has not been shown to be associated with coronary heart disease.

A

Exposure to toxic chemicals

66
Q

It has the highest mortality rate.

A

Pancreatic Cancer

67
Q

It is not included as a risk factor for cancer.

A

Age

68
Q

It is also known as Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.

A

Type 1 diabetes

69
Q

Pre-receptor, receptor, and post-receptor problems in diabetes could occur in what types of diabetes

A

type 2 diabetes

70
Q

Destruction of beta cells of the pancreas is highly linked to what type of diabetes

A

Type 2 Diabetes

71
Q

True or False

1st Statement : Pre-receptor, receptor, and post-receptor problems in diabetes could occur in type 1 diabetes.

2nd Statement: Destruction of beta cells of the pancreas is highly linked to type 1 diabetes.

A

Both statement are false.

It should be Type 2 diabetes

72
Q

It can be considered as COPD.

A

Asthma

73
Q

It refers to the destruction of alveoli caused by chronic smoking.

A

Emphysema

74
Q

Which are among the risk factors that contribute to artery blockage of the carotid artery.

A

Old age, smoking, and diabetes mellitus

75
Q

It is likely to predispose a person to develop type II diabetes mellitus.

A

Low HDL cholesterol levels

76
Q

True or False

Proper nutrition, regular health check-ups, regular exercise prevent the emergence of new non-communicable diseases.

A

True

77
Q

True or False

Viruses damage to host DNA during viral replication contribute to the development of certain cancers.

A

True

78
Q

It damage to host DNA during viral replication contribute to the development of certain cancers.

A

Viruses

79
Q

It refer to the sustained elevation in blood pressure.

A

Hypertension

80
Q

True or False

Low- and middle-income countries have higher Non-communicable diseases cases than high-income countries because of unhealthy lifestyle of citizen due to poverty, malnutrition, and inadequate education.

A

True

81
Q

True or False

The best way to curb the increasing incidence of diabetes among teenagers is to develop a program which aims for increased physical activity, smoking cessation and healthy food choices.

A

True

82
Q

It deals with the causal mechanisms between exposure and subsequent development of disease.

A

Environmental toxicology

83
Q

It was released after an accident at Union Carbide plant in Bhopal India in 1984 killing thousands

A

Methyl isocyanate

84
Q

the worst nuclear-power-plant disaster.

A

Ukraine

85
Q

It is the quantitation of the time course of toxicants in the body during the process of absorption, distribution, biotransformation, and exretion

A

Toxicokinetics

86
Q

It the process of weighing policy alternatives and selecting the most appropriate regulatory actions based on the results of risk assessment.

A

Selecting interventions

87
Q

human needs and wants which drives choices that produce environmental impacts, and may result in adverse health consequences.

A

Societal determinants

88
Q

The first thing to do during an environmental risk assessment is to

A

define the problem.

89
Q

True or False

Pollutants in the water enter the human body through the skin and GI tract.

A

True

90
Q

It is an example of a non-technical factor.

A

Human wants and status in the society

91
Q

It is an example of a technical factor.

A

Human needs and biological susceptibility

92
Q

The proper order in performing the problem Solving Paradigm

  1. define the problem.
  2. understand key determinants.
  3. implement and evaluate.
  4. set policies and priorities.
  5. measure the magnitude
  6. develop interventions
A
  • define the problem
  • measure the magnitude
  • understand key determinants
  • develop interventions
  • set policies and priorities
  • implement and evaluate.

1, 5, 2, 6, 4, 3

93
Q

among the most important consideration in addressing accidents like in Takaimura Nuclear Plant.

A

Agents

94
Q

True or False

The first move to address an environmental issue involves gathering the group and brainstorm for an intervention strategy before setting priorities and policies.

A

True

95
Q

It is the science of the anticipation, recognition, evaluation and control of hazards arising in or from the workplace that could impair the health and well-being of workers

A

Occupational health and safety

96
Q

It is the practice of assessment and control of environmental factors and stresses arising in or from the workplace, which may cause injury, sickness, impaired health and well-being or significant discomfort and inefficiency among workers or among the citizens of the community

A

Occupational hygiene

97
Q

It is the process of identification and measurement of exposures, problem tasks and risks.

A

Work-site analysis

98
Q

Physical hazards includes

A
high level of noise, 
vibration, 
illumination, 
temperature, 
ionizing
non-ionizing electromagnetic radiation.
99
Q

It includes high level of noise, vibration, illumination, temperature, ionizing and non-ionizing electromagnetic radiation.

A

Physical Hazards

100
Q

lt is used to document hazards associated with each process and to correct how each is managed and controlled.

A

Process inventory

101
Q

It is generated by liquids condensing from a vapour back to liquid or a liquid being dispersed by splashing or atomizing.

A

Mist

102
Q

The presence of an uncapped syringe, as well as the use of solvent in plumbing without a face mask is an example of a

A

hazard

103
Q

which are not classified as physical hazards in a work environment

A

Boring, repetitive and stressful tasks

104
Q

Doing a rotation schedule of employees to different areas of the laboratory is under what control

A

under administrative control.

105
Q

Measurement of radiation levels in workers working in nuclear medicine laboratory is an example of

A

of secondary prevention in occupational diseases.

106
Q

True or false

Having an adequate lighting either from natural or artificial lights is best to avoid eye strains in the workplace.

A

True