Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MT-PRAC MIDTERMS > MIDTERMS > Flashcards

MIDTERMS Flashcards

1
Q

the application
of procedures, information, and
devices to develop highly
sophisticated solutions to medical
problems or issues such as the
prevention of disease or the
promotion and monitoring of good
health.

A

Medical Technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who stated that medical technology application
of the principles of natural, physical
and biological sciences to the
performance of laboratory
procedures which aid in the diagnosis
and treatment of disease

A

Heinemann

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who stated that medical technology is the the branch of
medicine concerned with the
performance of laboratory
determinations and analyses used in
the diagnosis and treatment of
disease and the maintenance of
health.

A

Fagelson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Medical technology is an auxiliary
branch of laboratory medicine which
deals with the examination of tissues,
secretion and excretion of the human
body and body fluids by various
electronic, chemical, microscopic and
other medical laboratory procedures
or techniques either manual or
automated which will aid the
physician in the diagnosis study and
treatment of disease and in the
promotion of health in general.

A

RA 5527

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When was RA 5527 published

A

June 21st, 1969

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is RA 5527?

A

The Philippine Medical
Technology Act of 1969

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

He describes the four humors or
body fluids in man-blood, phlegm, yellow bile and the black bile. What year?

A

HIPPOCRATES, 460 BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who started the investigation of urine - urine of diabetic person there is a sweet taste in the urine? What is it called? What BD?

A

polyuria, hindu physician, 600 BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a medical technologist
traces the beginning of medical technology when
intestinal parasites (Arcaris, Taenia) were first
identified. what year?

A

Vivian Herrick, 1500 BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Intestinal Parasites that was found by Vivian Herrick

A

Arcaris Taenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the oldest preserved
compilation of ancient egyptian
medical texts

A

EBERS PAPYRUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who proved that the
etiological agent of skin diseases is parasites

A

Anenzoa Arabian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

believed that Medical
technology began in the medieval period
where urinalysis was a fad. Urinalysis was
started.
What year?

A

RUTH WILLIAMS, 1096-1438

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

believed that medical
technology started when a prominent Italian
doctor at the university of Bologna employed
Alessandra Giliani to perform different tasks
in the lab.
WHAT YEAR?

A

ANNE FAGELSON, 1400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

invented and
improved the compound microscope
• First saw bacterias called “animalcules”
WHAT YEAR?

A

ANTON VAN LEEUWENHOEK, 1632

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

described as the greatest of the
early microscopist.
Founder of pathology
• Dyes were used to stain microbes or
bacteria to make them easier to see
under the microscope.

WHAT YEAR?

A

MALPHIGI, 1628-1694

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the founder of the archives
of pathology in Berlin, was the first
scientist/physician who emphasized the study
of the manifestation of diseases. WHAT YEAR?

A

RUDOLPH VIRCHOW, 1800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

One of the youngest Medical
technologists, and one of the people
who emphasized the study of sign and
symptoms and study of diseases

A

RUDOLPH VIRCHOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

first utilized the microscope in
examining specimens at the Massachusetts
hospital

A

DR. CALVIN ELLIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

used lab finding as
preliminary evidence in diagnosing a
patient’s diseases

A

DR. WILLIAN OCCAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

WHO INITIATED Function of med technology became apparent when apothecaries act of 1815

A

BARON KARL HUMBOLDT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

He performed the first quantitative test for urine sugar.
What year?

A

HERMAN FEHLING
1848

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

WHAT YEAR WHEN Harvard University introduced reforms on medical education emphasizing “learning by doing”

A

1871

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

They were the first to apply clinical pathology to medical diagnosis.

WHAT YEAR?

A

Dr. William Welch and Michell Prudden
1878

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

He established his lab at the Bellevue Hospital Medical College and gave the first lab course in pathology.
WHAT YEAR?

A

Dr William Welch
1885

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

He became the first professor of pathology in
John Hopkins University

A

Dr William Welch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

First clinical lab opened by ____________
at John Hopkins Hospital. What year?

A

Dr. William Osler
1896

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Formalised a place where they can do
laboratory activities like urine examination,
etc

A

William Pepper Lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

wrote a “Clinical diagnosis by Laboratory methods”, the first standard reference for labs.
WHAT YEAR?

A

JAMES TODD
1908

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When was Denver society of clinical pathologists was organized?

A

1921

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What year when 3035 hospitals had clinical laboratories?

A

1922

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

It was the first school to offer “Course in Medical Technology for clinical laboratory technicians”.
WHAT YEAR?

A

University of minnesota
1923

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

It was as a big factor in the growth of medical labs since this is a time of a war and there was a high demand for medical practitioners and clinical labs.

A

WW1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What year when a standard 2 year curriculum on collegiate education with one year of actual training in the lab was formally established leading to a
bachelor’s degree in science?

A

1940

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

During _______ The “closed system” of blood collection was adapted in this period.
• There were new and advanced
instrumentations and automated equipments

A

WW2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

____ army Americans put up camps in the
Philippines when they misled the Japanese
army and they had the time to liberate the
PH. They established medical facilities in the
country since there were people who were
sick and severely wounded. They also trained
civilians to join the medical camps to help the
soldiers and people there.

A

6TH ARMY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

During ww2 , US bases were built up in ______
and brought healthcare team

A

LEYTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

First clinical labs were made available by the
6th US army at __________
WHAT YEAR?

A

Quiricada St., Sta Cruz, Manila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

During _____________. the first clinical laboratory in
the country was established at Quiricada St.,
Sta. Cruz, Manila. It’s known as the ___________

A

January 9
Public Health Laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

After WW2 on ________, the lab was
reorganized and reopened by ________________ It’s reopened as
Manila Public Health Laboratory

A

OCTOBER 1
Dr. Pio de Roda and Dr. Mariano Icasiano.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Training program was offered by ________________ without duration nor certification. The program was
offered for highschool and paramedical graduates.
WHAT YEAR?

A

Dr. Pio de Roda and Dr. Prudencio Sta. Ana
1947

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Together with _____________ a 6 month
training with certification was done on a
training syllabus prepared by Dr. Sta. Ana.

A

Dr. Tirso Briones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

________________ founder of MT education in the Philippines with
______________, president of PUC and
_______________, president of the 7th day Adventist

A

Dr. Willa Hilger Hedrick
Dr. Reuben Manalaysay
Rev. Warren

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sister company PUC of Baesa, Caloocan

A

THE MANILA SANITARIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

They offered a 5 year course in Medical Technology. They are the first to offer BS MedTech

A

The Manila Sanitarium and its sister company
PUC of Baesa, Caloocan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

First place of OJT is

A

THE MANILA SANITARIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

She was the first graduate after 2 years from Philippine Union College of Baesca. They established the Omega laboratory in Vito Cruz, Manila.

A

Jesse Umali

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

WHAT YEAR when MT offered as an elective in the 4th and 5th year of BS Pharma, UST; temporary permit issued by the DEPED for the 1st to 3rd yr
students?

A

1957-1958

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

They were the people in the department of
pharmacy in UST.

A

Dr. Antonio Gabriel and Dr. Gustavo Reyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What year when the permit for the internship program was approved
• CEU started to offer MT as a course.

A

1960

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What year when full recognition of BSMT as a course?

A

1961

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What year when first batch of CEU graduates?

A

1962

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What year first batch of FEU graduates?

A

1963

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the problems and needs in MT?

A
  1. Manpower shortage
  2. Laboratory Diagnosis
  3. Laboratory workforce
  4. Inadequate resources and infrastructure
  5. Service delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ONE OF THE PROBLEMS AND NEEDS OF MT
• Declining student enrollment
• Job satisfaction
o Poor support
o Lack of compensation
• Prestige of the profession
• Increasing regulation

A

MANPOWER SHORTAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the regulations to complete before finishing MT?

A

1 year internship
2 years SHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Medical products and technologies
o All of the instruments used in
MT are all imported
o Limited products

A

LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

There are limited laboratories that can get the LIS

A

Laboratory Diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

the system where it organizes the information of
the patients and the laboratory findings.

A

LIS (LABORATORY INFORMATION SYSTEM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Quality control is mostly ignored

A

Inadequate Quality Awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Shortage
• Proficiency training and
specialization
o Need of specialization
• Nature of work: consultation skills

A

LABORATORY WORKFORCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Laboratories that are designed for
safety are limited.

A

Inadequate resources and infrastructure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

There should be coordination and
networking in terms of laboratory
services

A

SERVICE DELIVERY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

They are considered the director of the
laboratory.
• They are licensed physicians with specialty in
Pathology certified by the Philippine Board of
Pathology.
• They are specially trained in methods of
laboratory medicine.
• They can either have a specialty in anatomic
or clinical pathology or both.

A

PATHOLOGIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Concerned with the diagnosis or confirmation of diseases through autopsy examination.

A

ANATOMIC PATHOLOGIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Concerned with the diagnosis or confirmation of diseases through chemicals.

A

CLINICAL PATHOLOGIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

works under the supervision of a pathologist
or licensed physician authorized by the DOH

A

MEDICAL TECHNOLOGIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

He/She is the head of all
medical technologists who
because of years or
experience or further study
has been promoted to this
position.

A

CHIEF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

works under the supervision of medical
technologists

A

MEDICAL LAB TECHNICIAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

prepares solid tissues such as biopsy samples
and tumors for examination under the
microscope.

A

HISTOTECHNOLOGIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

specialized in the microscopic study of cells
and cellular abnormalities

A

CYTOTECHNOLOGIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

specialized in blood extraction

A

PHLEBOTOMIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

WHAT ARE THE Employment opportunities for medical technologists?

A
  1. MT GENERALIST
  2. MT SPECIALIST
  3. Clinical laboratory supervisors, chief medical
    technologist and laboratory owners
    4.Sales and Public Relations Representative or
    Educational Representatives
  4. Researchers
    6.Teachers or Instructors
  5. OFW
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the traditional Role of Medical Technologist?

A
  1. MISCROPIC EXAMINATION
  2. IDENTIFYING BACTERIA
  3. DETERMINATION OF THE CONCENTRATIONS
  4. PERFORMING BLOOD TYPING
    5.TESTING FOR DRUG LEVELS
    6.CHECKING FOR ABNORMAL CELLS
  5. EVALUATIGN TESTS RESULTS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

WHAT ARE THE Non-Traditional Role of Medical Technologist

A
  1. LABORATORY TESTING
  2. TECHNICAL REPRESENTATIVE
  3. POSITION IN EUCATIONA AND TEACHING
  4. PRODUCT DEVELOPMENT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

WHAT IS SECTION 15 IN RA 5527?

A

EXAMINATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

HOW MANY CIRCULATION BY THE BOARD OF SEC FOR NEWSPAPER?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Written
notice of such examination shall be
published in at least three
newspapers with national circulation
by the Secretary of the Board at least
__ DAYS prior to the date of
examination.

A

30 DAYS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

SECTION 16: WHAT ARE THE QUALIFICATTION FOR EXAMINATION?

A

GOOD HEALTH
GOOD MORAL
4 YEARS LEADING TO BS MT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

WHAT IS SECTION 17 IN RA. 5527?

A

Scope of examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The examination questions shall cover
the FOLLOWING SUBJECTS with their
respective relative weights. WHAT ARE THESE?

A

Clinical Chemistry – 20%
• Microbiology and
Parasitology – 20%
• Hematology – 20%
• Blood Banking and Serology –
20%
• Clinical Microscopy – 10%
• Histopathological technique –
10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The Board shall within ______ days after
the date of completion of
examination, report the result thereof
to the commissioner of the civil service
who shall submit such to the President
of the Philippines for approval.

A

125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Section 19. Ratings of the Examination
In order to pass the examination, a
candidate must obtain a general
average of at least ___% in the written
test, with no rating below ___% in any
of the major subjects, provided that
the candidate has not failed in at
least ___% of the subjects computed
according to their relative weights.

A

75%
50%
60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A non-profit certification agency
and professional membership
association representing over 60T
individuals in allied healthcare.

A

AMT (American Medical Technologist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

WHAT DOES ASCPi stands for?

A

American Society for Clinical Pathology
International

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

international medical
technologist

A

MT(ASCPi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

international medical lab
technician

A

MLT(ASCPi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

international phlebotomist

A

PBT(ASCPi)-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

international technologist in
molecular biology

A

MB(ASCPi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

international technologist in
gynecologic cytology

A

CTgyn(ASCPi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The minimum passing score is ____. The highest
attainable score is ___.

A

400
999

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Certificates can be received approximately ____ weeks after the examination date.

A

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The regulative body of the
Healthcare sector in the Emirate of
Abu Dhabi and ensures excellent
healthcare for its communities by
monitoring health status of the
population

A

HAAD . HEALTH AUTHORITY OF ABU DHABI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Document developed by HAAD to list the
requirements needed to license health
professionals in Abu Dhabi

A

PQR. PROFESSIONAL QUALIFICATION
REQUIREMENTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

organizations are vital in the
continuance of practice of the profession of medical
technology.

A

Professional Organizations of Medical Technologists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

They serve as our voice and defender in
significant social, moral or legal issues
that affect our field of expertise and our
interests.

A

Professional Organizations of Medical Technologists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

TYPES OF PROFESSIONAL ORGANIZATIONS:
• Accreditation

A

PAASCU, PACUCOA, CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

TYPES OF PROFESSIONAL ORGANIZATIONS:
Certifying or Credentialing

A

PRC, ASCPi,
HAAD, DHA etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

TYPES OF PROFESSIONAL ORGANIZATIONS:
Professional societies

A

PASMETH, PAMET
etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The legitimate national organization of all
RMTs in the Philippines Officially recognized.

A

Philippine Association of Medical Technologist
(PAMET)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

PAMET was first established on ______
at the PHL at Quiricada st., Sta. Cruz,
Manila headed by __________

A

September 15, 1963
Mr. Crisanto Almario

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

PAMET INSIGNIA
________ symbolizes the continuous
involvement where practice and education
must always be integrated

A

CIRCLE

103
Q

PAMET INSIGNIA
trilogy of love, respect and
integrity

A

TRIANGLE

104
Q

PAMET INSIGNIA
the color of health

A

GREEN LETTERS

105
Q

PAMET INSIGNIA
symbolize the science of Medical Technology profession

A

MICROSCOPE & SNAKE

106
Q

______ VISION shall be the constant prime mover in
advancing the Medical Laboratory Science
profession for the continuous growth and
development of its members.

A

PAMET

107
Q

_______ shall be the constant prime mover in
advancing the Medical Laboratory Science
profession for the continuous growth and
development of its members.

A

PAMET

108
Q

WHAT ARE THE CORE VALUES OF PAMET?

A

INTEGRITY
PROFESSIONALISM
COMMITMENT
EXCELLENCE
UNITY

109
Q

the strict adherence to a moral code, reflected in transparent honesty, truthfulness, accuracy, accountable of one’s actions and complete harmony in what one thinks, says, and does

A

INTEGRITY

110
Q

refers to the positive traits and values, moral
responsibility, social responsiveness and
behavioral outlook which makes one highly
respectable and credible

A

PROFESSIONALISM

111
Q

is the unconditional, unwavering and selfless
dedication that one builds-in into the

A

COMMITMENT

112
Q

the high quality performance by advocating and adhering to international standards making services
globally comparable competence

A

EXCELLENCE

113
Q

the necessary linkage, support, involvement and sharing that will increase the success and advancement ofevery individual member and the association in general.

A

UNITY

114
Q

WHT DOES PSMLS STANDS FOR?

A

Philippine Society of Medical Laboratory Scientists

115
Q

It’s not accredited by the PRC. PSMLS is
quite new, that’s why it’s not recognized
by the PRC.

A

The Philippine Society of Medical
Laboratory Scientists (PSMLS)

116
Q

PSMLS
DATE:
CURRENT NATIONAL PRESIDENT:

A

December 12, 2016
Rose Mylene A. Sotocinal

117
Q

WHAT DOES PASMETH STANDS FOR?

A

Philippine Association of Schools of Medical
Technology and Public Health

118
Q

PASMETH

A

Represents the continuity of learning
and the never ending quest for excellence in
the field of academe.

119
Q

PASMETH LOGO MEANING
Represents the four objectives of
the association.

A

Diamond

120
Q

PASMETH LOGO MEANING
Represents the field of medical
technology and public health

A

MICROSCOPE

121
Q

Current National President OF PASMETH

A

Dr. Bernard Ebuen

122
Q

The organization was established on October
14, 1971 by some senior faculty members of
the College of Agriculture , University of the
Philippines at Los Baños, College, Laguna
4031.

A

PHILIPPINE SOCIETY FOR MICROBILOGY

123
Q

WHAT DOES PSM STANDS FOR?

A

PHILIPPINE SOCIETY OF MICROBIOLOGY

124
Q

CURRENT PRESIDENT OF PSM

A

Joel C. Cornista

125
Q

Promotion of scientific knowledge in
Microbiology or related fields through
workshops, symposia, trainings, reports and
publications

A

Philippine Society for Microbiology (PSM)

126
Q

A collegial body composed of microbiologists
who have been selected based on their
academic qualifications and experience
• Founded in 1991, it serves as an accreditation
arm of the PSM

A

Philippine Academy of Microbiology (PAM)

127
Q

Founded in ___, it serves as an accreditation
arm of the PSM

A

1991
PAM

128
Q

Is a special program of the Student
Development Committee of the PASMETH to
serve as a transforming venue for the integral
and holistic development of MT/MLS students
• Was organized in 2002 by the
PASMETH president Dean Zenaida Cajucom.

A

PHISMETS

129
Q

WHO REORGANIZED PHISMETS?
WHAT IS THE DATE:

A

reorganized on November 25, 2006 by
Magdalena Natividad and Bernard Ebuen.

130
Q

PHISMETS
THREE CIRCLES

A

Symbolizes the continuous
active involvement of Luzon, Visayas and
Mindanao to the national transforming
venue of Medical Laboratory Science
Students

131
Q

PHISMET
Symbolizes nature and the
continuation of life every year

A

LAUREL

132
Q

PHISMETS
Correspond to the color
of health

A

THE GREEN LETTERS

133
Q

PHISMETS
Represent the 5 objectives embodied in the
constitution.

A

The 5 Bubbles from a test tube.

134
Q

PHISMETS
Signify the unity of the 15 Board
Schools exploring various possibilities and
aiming towards the integral growth and
holistic development of Medical Laboratory
Science Students.

A

The 15 Interconnected Molecules outside a
test tube.

135
Q

PHISMETS
Signifies medical laboratory science.

A

Microscope

136
Q

means a collection of
people working together under a defined
structure for the purpose of achieving a
predetermined outcome.
• It serves to provide society with products
and services, offer employment and
economic exchange and give a framework
for a social system.
• Provides the general philosophy: unity and
commitment to its mission and vision.

A

Laboratory organizations

137
Q

Provides the general philosophy: _____ AND ____ to its mission and vision.

A

UNITY AND COMMITMENT

138
Q

Literally the commanding
authority responsible for giving orders.

A

Level of Authority.

139
Q

3 ELEMTS OF LABORATORY ORGANIZATION

A

LEVEL OF AUTHORITY
LINES OF COMMUNICATION
DIVISION OF WORK

140
Q

WHAT ARE THE 2 TYPES F LINES OF COMMUNICATION

A

INTRADEPARTMENTAL COMMUNICATION
EXTRADEPARTMENTAL COMMUNICATION

141
Q

Routine exchange of thoughts among
lab sections, lab management or
staff which can be in the form of
written or oral form

A

Intradepartmental communication.

142
Q

Delegated tasks or workload

A

Division of Work

143
Q

Changes in one component or
subpart of an organization
frequently have repercussions
for other parts; the pieces are
interconnected.
• changes made in one element
will affect other elements

A

Internal interdependence

144
Q

information about the output
that can be used to control
the system. Organizations can
correct errors and even
change themselves because
of this characteristic.

A

Capacity for feedback

145
Q

a state of balance
• When an event puts the
system out of balance, the
system reacts and moves to
bring itself back into balance.

A

Equilibrium

146
Q

WHAT ARE Basic System Characteristics of an Organization?

A

Internal interdependence
Capacity for feedback
Equilibrium
Adaptation

147
Q

For a system to survive, it
must maintain a favorable
balance of input or output
transactions with the
environment or it will run
down.

A

Adaptation

148
Q

WHAT ARE THE Elements of Organization?

A

WORK
PEOPLE
CULTURE

149
Q

what work is done, and how it is
processed.
• Consider what skills or knowledge
individual tasks require, whether
they are mechanical or creative, and
how the work flows.

A

Work

150
Q

look at who interacts to get
these tasks done – bosses,
peers, and external
stakeholders, for example.
• Identify the skills, knowledge,
experience, and education
that they possess.

A

People

151
Q

This is often the element with
the greatest influence, but
the hardest one to analyze.
• You can explore your
organization’s culture by
considering the leadership
style and the beliefs and
values of the individuals who
work there.

A

Culture

152
Q

Provides the minimum service
capabilities of a primary
category plus the following
o Routine hematology - includes
Hgb, Hct, WBC ct., Diff. ct
o Qualitative platelet
determination
o Routine fecalysis
o Routine urinalysis
o Blood typing - for hospital
based

A

Primary

153
Q

WHAT ARE OFFERED IN PRIMARY LABORATORY?

A

Routine hematology - includes
Hgb, Hct, WBC ct., Diff. ct
o Qualitative platelet
determination
o Routine fecalysis
o Routine urinalysis
o Blood typing - for hospital
based

154
Q

Provides the minimum service
capabilities of a primary
category plus the following
• Routine clinical chemistry -
includes blood glucose
substance concentration,
blood creatinine
concentration, blood uric acid
substance concentration,
blood urea nitrogen, blood
total cholesterol
concentration
• Quantitative platelet
determination
• Cross matching - hospital
based
• Grams staining - for hospital
based
• Microbiology section - they
classify it from gram reaction.
• KOH - for hospital based
• For fungal elements

A

SECONDARY

155
Q

WHAT ARE OFFERED IN SECONDARY LABORATORY

A

PRIMARY PROCEDURES
Routine clinical chemistry -
includes blood glucose
substance concentration,
blood creatinine
concentration, blood uric acid
substance concentration,
blood urea nitrogen, blood
total cholesterol
concentration
• Quantitative platelet
determination
• Cross matching - hospital
based
• Grams staining - for hospital
based
• Microbiology section - they
classify it from gram reaction.
• KOH - for hospital based

156
Q

Provides the minimum service
capabilities of a secondary
category plus the following
• Special chemistry
• Special hematologyIm
• Munology
• Microbiology - culture and
sensitivity
Aerobic and anaerobic (for
hospital based)
• Aerobic or anaerobic (for nonhospital
based)

A

TERTIARY

157
Q

WHAT DOES TERTIARY LABORATORY PROVIDE?

A

Special chemistry
• Special hematologyIm
• Munology
• Microbiology - culture and
sensitivity
Aerobic and anaerobic (for
hospital based)
• Aerobic or anaerobic (for nonhospital
based)

158
Q

(for institutional based only)
provides the laboratory tests
required for a particular
service in institutions such as
but not limited to dialysis
centers and social hygiene
clinics

A

Limited service

159
Q

A laboratory that offers
highly specialized laboratory
services that are usually not
provided by a general clinical
lab
o Molecular laboratories that
have special roles
o Chromatography laboratories
or laboratories that aren’t
seen commonly

A

Special clinical lab

160
Q

is a branch of laboratory medicine concerned with the study of the cause, prognosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases related to blood.

A

Hematology

161
Q

the laboratory section that is concerned with the qualitative and quantitative analysis of the different body fluids for diagnostic and treatment purposes.

A

Clinical Chemistry

162
Q

also known as
hemogram. Evaluates the number of the different
cells present in the blood namely, Red Blood Cells
(RBCS), White Blood Cells (WBCs) and Platelets.
measurements of: Hemoglobin, Hematocrit, WBC
Differential count, RBC indices and Platelet indices.

A
  1. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
163
Q

WHAT DOES EDTA stands for?

A

Ethylenediamine

164
Q

Test sample required: Whole Blood or
Blood in EDTA (Ethylenediamine
tetraacetic acid, an anticoagulant),
Purple top or Violet stoppered tube • Freshly collected

A

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

165
Q

What are the required test for Complete Blood Count (CBC)?

A

Whole Blood or
Blood in EDTA (Ethylenediamine
tetraacetic acid, an anticoagulant)

166
Q

total number of RBCs or
erythrocytes in a person’s blood

A

RBC count

167
Q

total number of WBCs or
leukocytes in a person’s blood

A

WBC count

168
Q

total number of
platelets or thrombocytes in a
person’s blood

A

Platelet count

169
Q

amount of oxygen carrying protein found in RBCs

A

Hemoglobin

170
Q

measure of the
percentage of a person’s blood that
is consists of RBCs

A

Hematocrit

171
Q

Counts of the
various types of WBCs present among
100 WBCs. There are 5 different
types of WBCs also called
leukocytes. They are the neutrophils,
basophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes
and monocytes.

A

WBC differential count

172
Q

Other term for WHITE BLOOD CELLS?

A

Leukocytes

173
Q

What are the types of WHITE BLOOD CELLS?

A

BELM

BASOPHILS
EOSINOPHILS
LYMPHOCYTES
MONOCYTES

174
Q

represents the amount of
hemoglobin relative to the
size of the cell or the
concentration of hemoglobin
per RBC

A

MCHC (Mean Corpuscular
Hemoglobin Concentration)

175
Q

WHAT DOES MCHC STANDS FOR?

A

Mean Corpuscular
Hemoglobin Concentration

176
Q

is a calculation of the
variation in the size of RBCs

A

RDW (Red Cell Distribution
Width)

177
Q

WHAT DOES RDW stands for?

A

(Red Cell Distribution
Width)

178
Q

Measures the physical characteristics of platelets

A

Platelet indices

179
Q

is a calculation of the
average size of platelets

A

MPV (Mean Platelet Volume)

180
Q

WHAT DOES MPV STANDS FOR?

A

(Mean Platelet Volume)

181
Q

is a measurement of
the variation of the platelet
size

A

PDW (Platelet Distribution
Width),

182
Q

WHAT DOES PDW STANDS FOR?

A

(Platelet Distribution Width)

183
Q

Known as low count of WBC

A

Leukopia

184
Q

Known as high count of WBC

A

LEUKOCYTOSIS

185
Q

Low count of NEUTROPHILS
also know as anemia, b12, and deficiency)

A

NEUTROPENIA

186
Q

HIGH count of NEUTROPHILS
also known as leukemia, acute stress burns

A

NEUTROPHILIA

187
Q

What diseases causes by neutropnia?

A

ANEMIA
B12 DEFICIENCY

188
Q

What are the disease causes by NEUTROPHILA?

A

LEUKEMIA
ACUTE STRESS
BURNS

189
Q

Low count of LYMPHOCYTES

A

LYMPHOCYTOPENIA

190
Q

HIGH count of LYMPHOCYTES

A

LYMPHOCYTOSIS

191
Q

Low count of MONOCYTES

A

NO TERM
NOT MEDICALLY SIGNIFICANT

192
Q

LOW COUNT OF EOSINPHILS

A

NO TERM
NOT MEDICALLY SIGNIFICANT

193
Q

LOW COUNT OF BASOPHILS

A

NO TERM
NOT MEDICALLY SIGNIFICANT

194
Q

High count of monocytes can cause stress, sarcoidosis, cushing’s syndrome

A

MONOCYTOSIS

195
Q

High count of EOSINOPHILS can cause allergies, parasitic infections

A

EOSINOPHILIA

196
Q

High count of BASOPHILS can cause allergies, CML, Hodgkin’s disease

A

BASOPHILIA

197
Q

What diseases can cause by MONOCYTOSIS?

A

stress, sarcoidosis, cushing’s syndrome

198
Q

What disease can caused by EOSINOPHILIA?

A

allergies, parasitic infections

199
Q

What disease can be caused by BASOPHILIA?

A

(allergies, CML, Hodgkin’s disease)

200
Q

LOW COUNT OF RBC, also known as anemia (aplastic anemia, chronic renal failure, iron deficiency)

A

RBC (NO NUCLEUS)

201
Q

Low count of RBC, can cause (aplastic anemia, chronic renal failure, iron deficiency)

A

ANEMIA

202
Q

What are the disease causes by anemia?

A

aplastic anemia
chronic renal failure
iron deficiency)

203
Q

High count of RBC, causes (heart disease,
lungs unhealthy)

A

POLYCETHEMIA

204
Q

What are disease causes by POLYCYTHEMIA?

A

heart disease
lungs unhealthy

205
Q

Low count of MCV

A

MICROCYTIC

206
Q

Low count of MCH ((alcoholism, liver disease, B12
deficiency)

A

HYPOCHROMASIA

207
Q

What are the diseases caused by HYPOCHROMASIA?

A

alcoholism
liver disease
B12 deficiency

208
Q

Low count of MCHC

A

HYPOCHROMASIA

209
Q

Low count of size MCHC

A

Uniformity in size

210
Q

High count of MCV

A

MACROCYTIC

211
Q

High count of MCH, (poisoning, iron deficiency)

A

HYPERCHROMASIA

212
Q

What does HYPOCHROMASIA disease leads to?

A

POISONING
IRON DEFICIENCY

213
Q

What does high count of MCHC disease leads to?

A

poisoning
iron deficiency

214
Q

High count of RDW

A

ANICYTOSIS

215
Q

High count of PLATELETS

A

THROMBOCYTOSIS

216
Q

What diseases can cause by THROMBOCYTOSIS?

A

Acute blood loss
Iron Deficiency

217
Q

Low count of PLATELETS

A

Thrombocytopenia

218
Q

What diseases can be caused by Thrombocytopenia?

A

Hellp syndrome
Hemolyticuremic syndrome

219
Q

Low count of MPV
Many mean that a condition is affecting
the production of platelets by the bone
marrow.

A

APLASTIC ANEMIA

220
Q

High count of MPV
May due to the bone marrow producing and
releasing platelets rapidly into circulation

A

PRE-ECLAMPSIA

221
Q

Helpful in diagnosing two specific inflammatory diseases, temporal arteritis and polymyalgia rheumatica.

A

ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate)

222
Q

What does ESR stands for?

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

223
Q

Below ____ mm per hr is normal but higher ESR there is medication inflammation

A

15

224
Q

is the percentage of newly produced, relatively immature red blood cells that contain reticular material (RNA) that stains gray blue.

A

Reticulocyte count

225
Q

What are the sample test required for RETICULOCYTE COUNT?

A

whole blood
sample in EDTA or Heparin tubes

226
Q

are tests used to detect and diagnose bleeding disorders or excessive clotting disorder.

A

Coagulation Tests: PT with INR & APTT

227
Q

is the percentage of newly produced, relatively
immature red blood cells that contain reticular
material (RNA) that stains gray blue.

A

Coagulation Tests: PT with INR & APTT

228
Q

What are the test required for COAGULATION TEST: PT with INR and APTT?

A

Test sample required: whole blood
sample in EDTA or Heparin tubes

229
Q

It is a test used to determine the presence of and identification of abnormal or immature cells in a person’s blood.

A

Peripheral Blood Smear (PBS)

230
Q

Test sample required for Peripheral Blood Smear (PBS)

A

whole blood or EDTA anticoagulated blood

231
Q

are tests used to detect and diagnose bleeding
disorders or excessive clotting disorder

A

Coagulation Tests: PT with INR & APTT

232
Q

May ginagamit sila na clot anticoagulant para di mag clot yung blood

A

SERUM

233
Q

will be the source of our ATP
(energy) generated from the glucose once
the cell takes it inside

A

GLUCOSE

234
Q

para makapasok yung glucose sa cell need na may signal.

A

GLUCOSE TRANCEPTOR

235
Q

mple sugar or monosaccharides derived
from the breakdown of dietary
carbohydrates are absorbed in the small
intestine as monosaccharides.

A

GLUCOSE

236
Q

lack of insulin (pancreas; autoantibodies; beta cell function (delayed/inadequate insulin to
release)
• Low or absent endogenous insulin

A

IDDM: Insulin Dependent Diabetes
Mellitus

237
Q

What are the symptoms of IDDM (Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus)

A

POLYURIA
POLYDIPSIA
POLYPHAGIA

238
Q

Disease wherein urinates more than usual and passes excessive or abnormally large of amounts of urine each time you urinate.

A

POLYURIA

239
Q

Abormally great thirst

A

POLYDIPSIA

240
Q

A ffeling of extreme and insatiable hunger

A

POLYPHAGIA

241
Q

your body destroys your own cells

A

AUTOIMMUNE DISEASE

242
Q

insulin resistant (sensitive to insulin); might be the receptor is damage
• Often occurs >40 years

A

Type 2 or NIDDM or (Non Insulin
Dependent Diabetes Mellitus)

243
Q

insulin resistant (sensitive to insulin); might be the receptor is damage
• Often occurs >40 years

A

Type 2 or NIDDM or adult-onset (Non Insulin
Dependent Diabetes Mellitus)

244
Q

Type 2 or NIDDM or adult-onset (Non Insulin
Dependent Diabetes Mellitus)

A

GESTATIONAL DIABETES MELLIUS

245
Q

Term used for impaired fasting
glucose or impaired glucose
tolerance
• Glucose levels that are higher than
normal but not high enough to be
diagnostic of diabetes.

A

Pre-Diabetes

246
Q

Blood glucose determinations that requires NO FASTING.

A

RBS – Random Blood Sugar

247
Q

Patient has to fast ( free from calorie
intake), can take water but do not
overuse; usually 8-10 hours (noncalorie
value)
• No vigorous exercise
• Most common and use EDTA
• Serum sample

A

FBS – Fasting Blood Sugar

248
Q

Type of Blood Glucose Dterminations that USES PLASMA SAMPLE

A

FBG – Fasting Plasma Glucose

249
Q

Type of BLOOD GLUCOSE DETERMINATIONS that Eat full meal after 2 hours
• After eating full meal, after 2 hours
glucose level must be normal

A

Post Prandial Glucose Test

250
Q

Type of BLOOD GLUCOSE DETERMINATION that requires take glucose solution

A

OGCT – Oral Glucose Challenge Test

251
Q

FOR OGCT how long is the fasting required for pregnant?

A

12 hours

252
Q

Determine how glucose quickly
cleared from the blood
• 8-12hrs fasting, avoid exercise and
smoking
• Fasting stage: the patient is not
allowed to take in any colored drinks
and food.

A

OGTT – Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

253
Q

How many hours is required for OGTT – Oral Glucose Tolerance Test?

A

8-12 hours

MT-PRAC MIDTERMS (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions