Mitochondrial Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are mitochondria?

A

They are the powerhouse of the cell, through OXPHOS and the TCA cycle provide the energy in the cellular currency of ATP

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2
Q

Describe mitochondrial DNA

A

MtDNA is circular and is composed of the heavy and light chain. It encodes 13 core proteins, 22 tRNAs and 2 rRNAs (12S and 16S) and others, ecompassing 37 genes.
The encoded “core” proteins compose critical subunits of Complexes I, III-V.
There are between 2-10 copies per cell and the mtDNA is composed of 16,569 nt.
There are no introns therefore no 3’ or 5’ UTRs, thus upon transcription a polycistronic strand will be produced, cleavage occurs either side of tRNAs.

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3
Q

Describe mtDNA transcription

A

Due to a lack of introns they are transcribed polycistronically, with transcription being initiated at the D loop.
The initiation of transcription required the binding of TFAM upstream of the HSP.
Transcription requires the mtRNA polymerases.
Transcription of the HS usually is initiated at the ITH1 and is terminated at the tetradecamer in the tRNAleu gene, this is called the mtTERM site.
IH2 transcription is less frequent and doesnt require TFAM - however it still generates a transcript (polycis)

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4
Q

Where are the promoters on the heavy and light strand?

A

Heavy - ITH1 (HSP), ITH2 (tRNAphe)

Light - LSP

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5
Q

Describe the processing of the mtRNA polycistronic transcript.

A

tRNAs are typically interspersed between the protein and rRNA transcripts and their secondary structure acts as a recognition site for endonucleases.

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6
Q

What cleaves the 5’ end in polycistronic transcript processing and the 3’ end?

A

5’ - mRNase P

3’ - tRNA endonuclease

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7
Q

What adds the CCA discriminator sequence to the tRNAs?

A

ATP(CTP):tRNA nucleotidyl transferase

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8
Q

Describe mtDNA replication

A

It is independent of nuclear replication, however the regulatory mechanisms governing mtDNA replication are currently unclear.
Nuclear factors are required for mtDNA replcation, namely PolG.
- Origin of H strand replication (oh) is were replication begins, a primer is added by the LSP
- nDNA derived PolG extends the sequence passed the free 3’OH of the primer typically at the Conserved Sequence Block 1, the unwinding of the mtDNA downstream of polG is aided by DNA TWINKLE (helicase)
- Single Stranded Binding proteins are sequentially added to the strands to ensure separation and uninterupted replication
- The termination site is at the termination associated sequence this allows for secondary structure formation of the D loop
- Before replication termination primers will be cleaved from the sequence by RNase MRP (mitochondrial RNA processing) and endonuclease G

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9
Q

Why are mtDNA suscupetible to mutation?

A

They are held in nucleoids, meaning they are not protected by histones.
They are additionally in close proximity to ROS generated by the MRC, this could lead to deamination of adenine, the infliction of double strand breaks, addition of hydroxyl radicals tp guanine generating 8-oh-guanine

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10
Q

What mechanisms are in place to control/prevent DNA damage

A

Previously there were thought to be no “maintenance” systems in place, it is now known that mtDNA can repair itself through BER - this can repair 8-oh-guanine. However it does lack NER, and mismatch repair.
Additionally PolG has not only polymerase capabilities but a 3’ –> 5’ exonuclease domain.

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11
Q

What is the mtDNA helicase

A

TWINKLE TWINKLE LITTLE STAR

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12
Q

Where is replication terminated

A

Often at the termination associated sequence (TAS) here forms the D loop secondary structure

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13
Q

What cleaves the primers

A

Endonuclease G and RNase MRP (mito RNA processing)

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14
Q

What is upstream of the DNA primer?

A

Typically downstream of the Conserved Sequence Block 1 (CSB1)

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15
Q

What can inhibit mtDNA translation

A

Chloramphenicol - this demonstrates the similarities with prokaryotic translation

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16
Q

Where is translation intiated

A

f-Met (N-formylmethionine)

17
Q

What is the mt ribosome composed of

A

38S large subunit - 16S rRNA
29S small subunit - 12S rRNA
–> this is entirely transcribed and translated from mtDNA

18
Q

What is the translational efficiency of mtRNA

A

Low despite the high concentration of matrix mRNAs (mt)

19
Q

What are the clinical features of these disease?

A

CNS-related - ataxia, stroke-like episodes and epilepsy

Muscle related - myopathy

20
Q

What are the prognosis?

A

If infantile onset it is typically infantile fatal
If mid-teen onset it is often progressive and will result in premature death
Others are often simply dehabilitating

21
Q

What are Rho 0 cells

A

Cells with mitochondria, but there DNA has sadly been removed through treatment with ethidium bromide over a long time

22
Q

How are Rho 0 cells used in research

A

Cells with mitochondrial DNA mutations are then hybridised with these cells and the defects are visualised on the MRC, however this does not exclude potential nDNA malfunction

23
Q

How can you visualise MRC defects?

A

Gömöri Trichrome stains or Quant-iTTM PicoGreen® stains used to visualization mitochondria in histological assessment of mtDNA defects

24
Q

In the generation of P 0 cells, how are the patient cells treated

A

Cytochalsin B and centrifugation leads to enucleation

25
Q

In the generation of P 0 cells, how are the normal cells treated

A

Ethidium bromide generates Rhoo cells void of mtDNA

26
Q

How are patient and normal cells then fused?

A

Polyethylene glycol treatment fuses Rhoo cells with enucleated patient cells resulting in Rhoo:patient cybrids that can be used for subsequent biochemical and molecular analyses

27
Q

What do tRNA point mutations typically create

A

Decreased translational efficiency

28
Q

Would do large deletions result in

A

Loss of tRNA and proteins, MRC defects, inefficient translation - effects transcription

29
Q

mRNA point mutations

A

Defective MRC composition

30
Q

rRNA point mutations

A

Defective Translation

31
Q

When does L strand Replication begin?

A

at OL - which is a T rich loop

32
Q

What do the SSB proteins bind

A

The displaced H strand

33
Q

What is the most common point mutation?

A

tRNAleu A3243G

34
Q

What does the tRNA leu point mutation give rise to

A

MELAS phenotype.
MRC defects
1. Abnormal translation through inefficient ribosome binding
2. Inefficient translation through abnormal binding to codons, decreased stability of tRNA and decreased aility to attach AA to tRNA
3. Decreased rRNA levels, through preventing the binding of mTERM

35
Q

What point mutations are present in LHON?

A

G3460A in ND1

G11778A in ND4

36
Q

What point mutations are present in NARP and Leighs

A

T8993G in ATPase 6 - the level of mutant load well decided the phenotype